-
what is your duty in maintenance
to ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
-
what types of actions are considered part of maintenance
Inspection, repair, overhaul, modification, preservation, refurbishment, testing, and analyzing conditions and performance
-
When performing maintenance, you must place emphasis on what factors
safety, quality, and timeliness
-
what is the purpose of the maintenance process
to sustain a capability to support the flying and training missions
-
what types of maintenance ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need
Preventive
-
what is the deifference between on-equipment and off-equipment maintenance
on-equipment is work performed on an aircraft or piece of support equipment, while off-equipment work is typically performed in a repair shop on components removed during on-equipment maintenance
-
what are the three levels of maintenance capability
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
-
what is an example of organizational-level maintenance
an operational check of the ALQ-131 pod while loaded on an aircraft
-
primaraily, what is intermediate-level maintenance
testing and either repairing or replacing component parts
-
why would a component or equipment item be sent to depot for repair
because it can't be fixed by personnel at wither the organizational or intermediate level
-
what is the highest level of maintenance
depot
-
who allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requirements
WG/CC
-
which AFI covers duties and responsibilities of key leadership within a maintenance organization
21-101
-
who manages the wings QAPs
GP/CC
-
who ensures compliance with the wing EPA program
squadron commander
-
who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production
MS
-
who is the first-line manager and technical authority in their area of maintenance supervision
Section Chief
-
which three squadrons exist under the MXG
MXS, AMXS, and MOS
-
the MXS is comprised of which flights
Propulsion, avionics, TMDE, accessory maintenance, AGE, fabrication, armament systems, maintenance, and munitions
-
who maintains off-equipment aircraft and support equipment components, performs on-equipment maintenance of aircraft, and provides repair and calibration of TMDE
MXS
-
for what is the AMXS responsible
servicing, inspecting, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned and transient aircraft
-
for what is PMEL responsible
maintaining, calibrating, and certifying TMDE
-
the avionics flight primarily performs off equipment maintenance on what system/equipment
Avionics components, EW systems and Sencor pods, airborne video tape recording systems, and airborne photographic systems
-
who is responsible for quality maintenance
individual maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders
-
what is the role of QA
to assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition, and increase reliability and maintainability
-
how does QA identify trends and problem areas
by collecting performance data, performing inspections and special assessments, recommending possible corrective actions to supervisors, and providing on-the-spot assistance.
-
what AFI covers maintenance management of aircraft
21-101
-
what two factors determine the off base requisitioning priority
UJC and FAD
-
how is a due-out created
When a rewuirment is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request
-
when is the customer not granted credit upon cancellation of an obligated memo due-out
wjen the due-out was obligated in a prior year
-
what does AFMAN 23-110, Volume 6 cover
policies and procedures for Air Force participation in the DOD PRMP
-
What code identifies an item as consumable
ERRX XB3
-
what are the three basic repair cycle action categories
AWM, INW, and AWP
-
what form is used for local purchase request
DD Form 1348-6
-
what form is used for requesting supplies in the even IMDS is down
AF Form 2005
-
how many alphanumeric characters make up a document number
14
-
what's the purpose of the organization code within a document number
identifies the unit or subordinate activity
-
on an AF Form 2005, what field identifies the end item
mark-for
-
how would you annotate a DD form 1348-1a if you were reusing a delivery of an asset
write "Organizational Refusal" on all copies of the DD form 1348-1A
-
in what TO are the procedures for submitting deficiency reports found
00-35d-54
-
Define CAT I deficiency report
It's a report of a production deficiency meeting one of the following criteria: 1) if uncorrected would cause death, sever injury, or sever occupational illness. 2) if uncorrected would cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. 3) critically restricts combat readiness capability 4) results in a production line stoppage
-
who is responcible for preparing the draft DR
the originator
-
what restrictions must be met when considering an item for a DR
any item, regardless of ERRCD code, is subject to DR procedures
-
what's a warranty
A contract between the purchaser and manufacturer
-
what does a warranty explain and identify
the responsibilities of the purchaser and manufacturer; how long, by perating time or calendar period, the manufacturer is responsible for the equipment
-
where can you find procedures and responsibilities for acquiring, administering, and reporting on WSW's
AFMAN 64-110, Manual for Weapon System Warranties
-
what are the four aircraft inspection concepts
Periodic, phased, isochronical, and programmed depot maintenance
-
when is an isochronical inspection completed? why is it done at this time
on the date due, regardless of the hours flown. To accommodate aircraft scheduling.
-
which inspection concept applies to all aircraft
programmed depot maintenance
-
list the purpose and scope of the preflight inspection
flight preparedness, this inspection is a thorough (visual and operational) check of specific equipment.
-
when is a basic postflight inspection done
After the last flight of the flying period
-
what type of inspection determines if the aircraft is suitable for another flight
basic post flight
-
why was the phase inspection developed
to reduce the time the aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection
-
who has the responsibility of performing operator inspections
the user
-
who or what directs when special inspections are performed
TCTO's
-
what is the purpose of an acceptance inspection
to determine the equipment's serviceability and the condition of the equipment documents
-
who performs the transfer inspection if more than 75% of the inspection interval has elapsed
the transferring organization
-
when are periodic inspections and lubrication requirements done
Periodic inspections are performed on a recurring, scheduled basis. the intervals range from once a day to once every couple of years, depending on the particular inspection. the intervals, and what items are inspected, are carefully planned to try and catch malfunctions before they happen; hence, they're also known as preventative maintenance
-
what three activities are normally done during a periodic inspection
Corrosion control, cleaning, and lubrication
-
why is it important to make sure the test station and work area are kept clean
to ensure valid testing and prevent contamination of equipment
-
why is it important to keep test station and LRU surfaces painted?
paint prevents corrosion from starting.
-
list six types of directive standard publications
AFPD, AFDD, AFI, AFMAN, AFS, and OI
-
what are AFPDs and what do they contain
Orders of the SAF, directive policy statements of the Office of the SAF and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level.
-
what are AFDDs and what do they provide
Statements of officially sanctioned beliefs and warfighting principles that describe and guide the proper use of air and space forces in military action; the foundation for AF policies that guide our personnel as they plan, employ, organize, train, equip, and sustain AF forces
-
what is the purpose of AFIs
to direct action, ensure compliance, or give detailed procedures to standard actions across the Air Force
-
what statment must AF instructions and manuals contain
"Compliance with this publication is mandatory"
-
what is the purpose of an AFS
to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters or agencies
-
Describe requirements for complying with non directive publications
typically expected, but not mandatory
-
in what form(s) do TOs come
Paper, digital, and computer or test station software
-
what type of information do you find in O&M TOs
installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing, or handling of AF systems and equipment end items
-
in what type of TO do you find maintenance instruction or an IPB
O&M TO
-
what type of TO is the TO catalog
Index TO
-
what is an abbreviated TO and what is its purpose
Excerpts from one or more basic TOs; give clear instructions, criteria, and safety warnings for performing inspections or tasks
-
list three methods for updating TOs
Changes, supplements, and Revisions
-
Under what condition are pen-and-ink changes to the technical contents of a TO authorized
Never
-
when you receive a change to a TO page, what do you do with the original page
Remove and discard
-
list four types of TO supplements
Operational, safety, TO page, and TCTO
-
how are TOPS distinguished from other changes or supplements
Printed on green paper and printed only on one side
-
under what condition does a TO undergo revision
when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text
-
what's the purpose of a MPTO
to give generla information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel
-
how does the number of a TO designate that it's of the methodsand procedures type
begins with 00
-
what;s the purpose of TCTO
TCTO are the media through which extensive modifications and modernization programs are directed
-
list three main categories of TCTOs
Immediate action, Urgent action, and Routine action
-
what's the major difference between an immediate action and an urgent action TCTO
Immediate action TCTOs require immediate action to remove the aircraft or affected equipment from service, while the urgent action TCTOs do not.
-
what;s the purpose of the routine action TCTO
to cover conditions not covered by immediate action or urgent action TCTO's
-
what is the maximum time allotted to comply with a routine TCTO that addresses a safety deficiency
90 days
-
what is the maximum time allotted to comply with a routine TCTO that does not address a safety deficiency
270 days
-
what condition warrants the issue of an interim TCTO
when the urgency of conditions docent allow time for printing and distributing instructions in formal TO format
-
what are the two levels where TCTOs are accomplished
Depot and organizational/intermediate
-
when can a depot-level TCTO be accomplished at the organizational/intermediate level
only when current and specific authority is possessed by the activity's MAJCOM
-
what for do you use when removing a TO from its storage location
AF Form 614
-
what precautions can you take to protect your classified TO
Never leave it unattended, dedicate a co-worker to watch it, put it away promptly when not needed, and take a full inventory at the end of your shift
-
what is the difference between a TO "warning" and "caution"
warning- indicates an operation, procedure, or condition that, if not strictly observed, could result in injury, death, or long term heath hazard to personnel; Caution- indicated an operation, procedure, or condition that, if not strictly observed, could resut in damage/destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness
-
what types of diagrams and schematics can you find as part of TO illustration
test equipment interconnection, pod-to-equipment interconnection, power distribution, and detailed wiring.
-
what does the IPB assign to each part of a pod or equipment
A figure and index
-
what action must you take if you find a TO deficiency
you ust submit an RC on an AFTO Form 22
-
why cant you make pen-and-ink changes to carrect a technical deficiency in a TO
official TO updates are the only valid authority for correcting technical deficiencies and implementing changes in a TO
-
if you are submitting an AFTO 22, what is the role of your supervisor
Must ensure the report is valid and warrants submittal
-
list three categories of TO RCs
Emergency, urgent, and routine
-
why is immediate action required on an emergency RC
if not corrected, the discrepancy would result in a fatality or seriuos injury to personnel; extensive damage or destruction to equipment or property; or inability to achieve or maintain operational posture
-
an RC might be catergorized as urgent if the chage would result in an annual savings of that amount
at least $25,000 or 1,000 man hours
-
how are routine RCs typically published
consolidated into a BCU for publication during periodic TO updates
-
where do you find routine addresses and E-mails to submit and AFTO Form 22
table 9-1 of TO 00-5-1
-
how is all Air Force computer software managed
as computer program configuration item (CPCI)
-
list four types of major embedded computer system software
in-place test, operational, UUT, or support programs
-
name the two types of computer manuals and state their purpose
operator manuals - these manuals instruct on how to load and operate computer programs. Reference manuals - these are usually commercial manuals containing general information on the operational check out
-
what is the purpose of a CPIN compendium
TO provide a consolidated index of embedded computer system (ECS) software within the Air Force.
-
what information is contained in CPIN compendium cross-reference 80-0-2
Equipment part numbers and CPINS
-
what information is contained in command CPIN compendiums
Listing peculiar to the major command
-
state what part I and III of a CPIN compendium contain
Part I list the current active software authorized for use. Part III is a listing of computer software that is no longer authorized for use.
-
What does the First feild position indicate
A CPIN category and the major function of the system or subsystem.
-
what is a version of baseline software
a variation or modification to the baseline software, not a revision
-
what is the purpose of an asterisk preceding a CPIN
it identifies new software announced since the last issue
-
State the level of test software for each of these alpha codes A,B, and D
A. Organizational B. Intermediate C. Depot
-
Name four types of media units.
card decks, tapes, reels, and disks
-
what is maintenance data documentation
the collection, storage, and retrieval of information concerning a maintenance action or involving personnel assigned to a maintenance organization.
-
list the benefits that base-level maintenance activities can derive from the MDD process
means of managing assigned equipment resources. Planning and scheduling maintenance. Validating and initiating corrective action on maintenance problems.
-
how is data collected by the MDD process and made available to base-level maintenance
through computer listing and video terminals
-
name the two categories used to document production data
on-equipment and off-equipment
-
which documentation category is used to describe maintenance on end itmes
on-equipment
-
what are the advantages of using MDD codes
simplifies recording procedures and data retrieval and provides the required information while using a minimum amount of space on the forms
-
which data code allows all phases of a job to be tied together for data analysis
Job Control Number
-
what are the four types of work centers that report data to the MDD process
owning work center - performing work center - reporting work center - non reporting work center
-
the identification number code consists of how many characters
Five
-
the standard equipment reporting designator is normally the first character of which MDD code
Identification number
-
what is the purpose of the work unit code
to identify the system, subsystem, and/or components on which maintenance is required, or on which maintenance was done.
-
what form is used to document maintenance when an organization does not have the capability to enter data into an automated system such as IMDS
form 349
-
where can you find the instructions for using AFTO Form 349
TO 00-20-2
-
what form provides a means of controlling items flowing to and from intermediate maintenance shops
AFTO Form 350
-
what form is used to ensure identification of reparable items
AFTO Form 350
-
how is the AFTO Form 350 used as a source document
to complete the AFTO 349 for off-equipment (shop) repair actions
-
what is the purpose of symbols
to bring immediate attention to equipment status
-
name the three status symbols
Red X, Red Dash, and Red Diagonal
-
what form is used to document status of off-equipment
AFTO Form 244
-
what symbol indicates that a special inspection is past due
Red Dash
-
what does a red X symbol mean
An equipment item is considered unsafe
-
what symbol indicates that an unsatisfacoty condition exist but is not dangerous enough to warrant discontinuing use of equipment
Red diagonal
-
what is IMDS
An on-line computer system for collection, storage, and retrieval of maintenance data
-
what is the main objective of IMDS
To provide the maintenance community with instant access to a database of information about maintenance resources.
-
About what types of maintenance resources does IMDS provide information
Aircraft, aircraft subsystems, support equipment, supplies, and personnel
-
list four of the IMDS subsystems
Maintenance events, data collection, inquiries, and ATERS
-
which IMDS subsystem provides automatic reporting of inventory, status, utilization, and assigned test station production
ATERS
-
what is IMDS information used for at the base level
to more effectively utilize maintenance, personnel and equipment resources
-
in which AFCSM and volume can you find an introduction to IMDS
21-556; 2
-
what is the simplest security measures to limit access to IMDS
keep the remote terminal in your work area off-line from the base computer
-
how can you record your maintenance data if the IMDS system is down?
use manual backup system, such as the AFTO From 349
-
entering inaccurate data into IMDS can cause what long-term difficulties
supply shortages, ineffective support contracts, and insufficient inventories
-
list three parts of a basic event number
the first two digits represent the year, the middle three represent the Julian day, and the last four are sequentially assigned throughout the 24 hour day
-
what is a WCE
three digit numerical code added at the end of an event ID to differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job.
-
what can be assigned to a specific equipment item for recurring maintenance or inspections
A JST
-
which IMDS tool (screen) provides you with a list of deferred, unscheduled, and scheduled events by equipment ID, work center, or part/serial number
Documented maintenance inquiry, screen 380
-
your shift supervisor might use screen 380 for what
to keep track of open jobs and assign those jobs to personnel
-
explain what "taking time" means
entering into IMDS the number of hours spent by each technician on the specific jobs performed that day
-
what is "event maintenance" and why is it important
Maintaining data and status on Event ID's and WCEs' ensures real-time information is presented in IMDS and helps maintain error free histories on all job record data.
-
describe the inquiry capability of screen 122
displays all maintenance data performed against a particular Event ID, regardless of whether the work action is complete
-
what feedback do you get when you use IMDS to request an item from supply
a management notice that assigns a document number and indicates either a FILL or a KILL status
-
what is a kill notice and how should you respond to one
indicates a part is not available in supply; backorder the part using screen 407
-
which IMDS screen is used to order parts
Screen 72, SBBS Issue Request Transaction
-
what AFI requires that supervisors provide specialized safety, fire protection, and health OJT to all assigned Air Force personnel
AFI 91-301
-
what form can a supervisor use to document safety, fire protection, and health training?
AF Form 55
-
What's the purpose of the AFOSH program
To prevent or reduce the severity of personal injuries and property damage
-
what does AFOSH STD 48-8 establish
The OELs for airborne chemical concentrations to which nearly all AF personnel may be exposed throughtout their careers without adverse health effects
-
which AFOSH STD covers RFR
48-9
-
which AFOSH STD covers safe operations of laser systems
48-139
-
what does AFOSH STD 91-68 address
USAF chemical storage, handling, use, and disposal operations
-
what AFI outlines your personal rights and responsibilities under the AFOSH program
91-301
-
Which AFOSH STD covers general housekeeping and electrical safety in shops
91-501
-
Which AFI currently contains guidance pertaining to the HAZCOM program
90-821
-
what TO covers the use and care of hand tools
32-1-101
-
why should you put your tools where they belong when you complete a job
to make your job easier and ensure each tool is where it's supposed to be the next time it's needed
-
name two things you should check before plugging in a power tool
ensure the power switch is off and verify the voltage, hertz, and current of the source of electricity
-
define high voltage
electrically defined as 600volts or greater
-
when can an interlock be disconnected or bypassed
during maintenance or adjustments only when prescribed by applicable TOs
-
when is it acceptable to work alone around high voltages
Never
-
when do you require a safety observer when you're repairing electronic equipment
when you'reworking with or repairing electronic systems that may expose you to hazards associated with energized equipment or high-voltage circuits
-
when is a grounding or shorting stick required
when electronic equipment uses high voltages
-
what TO covers gas cylinder use, handling, and maintenance
42b-5-1-2
-
when can color coding be relied upon to identify the cylinder's contents
Never rely on color coding to identify cylinder contents
-
what should you do with a cylinder when the contents can't be identified
cylinders that don't bear a legibly written, stamped, or stenciled identificaton of the contents shouldn't be used; instead they should be segregated and returned to the vendor as soon as possible
-
what is the maximum allowable atmospheric temperature that a cylinder may be exposed
130 F
-
when should a gas cylinder be considered empty? How would you mark it?
When there's at least 25psi remaining; so others will know that it's nearly empty write MT to signify it is empty
-
which AFOSH STD deals with the RFR safety program
48-9
-
what are the three classifications of RF hazard
direct biological, indirect biological, and indirect hazard
-
list your individual responsibilities when you're working with and around RFR
Follow procedures for safe work, follow procedures established by the supervisors, ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place, promptly report and suspected overexposure and unsafe work conditions
-
if you suspect that you have been overexposed to RFR, how soon should you seek medical attention and where should your medical examination be performed
within 72 hours at the flight surgeons office
-
list your individual responsibility regarding hazardous noise
-
what's the purpose of hearing protection devices
to reduce the at-the-ear noise exposure to less than 85dB
-
what is meant by the ALARA principle
personnel exposures to high intensity noise must be maintained as low as possible consistent with existing technology, cost, and operational requirement
-
What actions must be performed in the case of a broken or damaged container of radioactive material
the area must be cleared of all personnel not required to evaluate the condition, recover the radioisotope, or decontaminate the area of material. the area must be secures. in cases of air suspension of contamination by ingestible radioactive material, door and windows must be closed and ventilation systems/equipment must be turned off
-
what five methods are permitted by an authorized recipient to dispose of radioactive materials
treatment prior to disposal, treatment or disposal by incineration, decay in storage, disposal at an appropriately licensed land disposal facility, and disposal at a geological repository.
-
what must be performed to preclude falsely identity a container that no loner contains radioactive materials
Remove or obliterate affixed labels
-
which AFOSH STD details all sorts of safety and procedural requirements for many types of lifting devices
91-46
-
when can cheater bars be used to increase leverage
Never
-
when can the rated load of a lifting device be exceeded
During authorized proof test
-
describe a class IV laser with respect to its ability to cause biological damage
a hazard to the eye and/or skin from the direct beam and sometimes from a diffuse reflection; it can also be a fire hazard
-
what are the responsibilities of an LSO
approved SOPs, train personnel, select alternate controls, establish an NHZ, avoid unnecessary or duplicate controls, and conduct periodic facility and equipment audits
-
what must laser protective eye wear be capable of withstanding?
direct or diffusely scattered laser energy
-
who is your primary point of contact when you have security questions
unit security manager
-
what is JPAS and what information does it contain
a record of security clearance information by unit; each member's clearance, type of clearance, and date of most recent clearance investigation
-
who is responsible for protecting classifies information and material
Everyone who has been granted access to the information/material and has it in his or her possession or control
-
what three elements must be present for you to release or share access to classified information
mission-essential purpose, the proper clearance level, and a need to know
-
what must a visitor to a classified workcenter provide to the security manager
a visit request or official military orders
-
whith what classification level should a classified removable hard drive be marked
with the highest classification level of the information stored on it
-
what forms need to documented during the end of day security check
SF Form 701, activity security check list, and SF form 702 security container check sheet
-
when should you familiarize yourself with your work center's emergency plan
before you need it
-
what are the three levels of classified information and equipment
confidential, secret, and top secret
-
where must the overall classification of a document be marked
top and bottom of front cover, title page, first page, and outside back cover
-
besides overall classification, what information must the front cover of a classified document contain
classified by, reason, and declassify on
-
what is a derivative classification
the act of incorporating, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in new form, information that is already classified
-
what is the difference in the front cover information of a derivatively classified document
Classified by is replaced with derived from
-
how must a classified removable hard drive be marked
with an SF form 711, data description label, and appropriate classification label
-
how do you mark working papers
with the highest classification of the information contained within and the phrase "working paper" on the first page in large letters, as well as the date created, originators name, organization, and office symbol.
-
under what circumstances must you change the combination to a classified storage container
when a lock is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access (unless other sufficient controls exist to prevent access to the lock), when then combination had been compromised, and when taken out of service
-
where can you store a recorded safe combination
in a security container other than the one for which it is used
-
what is the classification of the ALQ 131 and ALQ 184 pods
confidential
-
what is the purpose of an SCG
to provide guidance for evaluating and determining the degree of protection necessary to safeguard classified information pertained or relative to the system in question
-
how are individuals identified as authorized to receive classified assets
by letter or on their supply "SMART" card
-
how are classified assets packaged for turn-in to supply
they are double-packaged with the internal package properly marked with the security classification level and the external package without any security classification markings
|
|
