HROB3

  1. According to the big health care firm Johnson & Johnson’s “credo,” what is its least responsibility?
    Shareholders
  2. The Categorical imperative sets the standard for acceptability of moral rules as: An act is ethical if it can be applied universally to all and is reversible – do unto others as you would like them to do unto you.
    Persons should be considered as an end and not as means to an end.
    True
  3. Which of the following is true of the way diversity issues are beginning to be treated by organizations today?
    It is a reality to build on to make a stronger enterprise.
  4. Cultures around the world impact the organizational behavior of managers and employees in similar ways.
    False
  5. There is no significant relationship between corporate social performance and bottom-line results.
    False
  6. This type of organization is characterized by an examination of all activities for the purpose of evaluating their impact on all employees’ opportunity to both participate in and contribute to their own and the firm’s growth and success.
    Redefining organization.
  7. The foundation and point of departure for creating and effectively managing diversity is the development of a truly multicultural organization.
    True
  8. Cultures around the world impact the organizational behavior of managers and employees in similar ways.
    False
  9. Most women have broken the "glass ceiling" to become CEO's, board of directors, and corporate officers of large organizations.
    False
  10. All of these are recommended for undertaking an analysis of ethics while making decisions, EXCEPT:
    Always decide to use one of the three moral systems.
  11. All of the following are factors that contribute to the success of diversity training EXCEPT:
    mandatory participation of all employees.
  12. A _______ organization acts on a commitment to eradicate social oppression in all forms within the organization.
    multicultural
  13. This type of organization is characterized by core cultural values and an ongoing commitment to eliminate social oppression throughout the organization.
    Multicultural organization.
  14. Awareness training:
    is valuable to shift perceptions.
  15. Identify the ability to put oneself in another's place and see things from that person's point of view.
    Empathy
  16. _____ may be defined as, "engaging in economically sustainable business activities that go beyond legal requirements to protect the well-being of employees, communities, and the environment."
    Corporate social responsibility
  17. The Utilitarian view ignores or overlooks all of the following, EXCEPT:
    An action is right if it produces good results for as many as possible.
  18. Distributive justice emphasizes the:
    the fair distribution of benefits and burden.
  19. A Code of Ethics is a published statement of moral expectations that lists corrective action for deviations.
    True
  20. Most tests traditionally used in selection and evaluation are not suited or valid for a diverse workforce.
    True
  21. It was found that work-to-family conflict was linked to all of the following EXCEPT:
    absenteeism.
  22. While diversity may add value, it does not really contribute to the firm's competitive advantage.
    False
  23. ___________ approach to ethical decision making stresses duties are obligations to act in a morally acceptable manner.
    Deontological
  24. This type of an organization would reflect the contributions and interests of diverse cultural and social groups in its mission, operations, and products/ services.
    Multicultural.
  25. Cultural diversity is a natural by-product for firms going international.
    True
  26. According to the text, all of the following have had dramatic effect on the study and application of management and organizational behavior EXCEPT:
    environmental issues.
  27. Identify the third stage of evolution of organizations leading up to the formation of a multicultural organization.
    Compliance organization.
  28. According to Thomas Friedman, the first phase of globalization was characterized by companies globalizing.
    False
  29. Thomas Friedman study on globalization is titled "The world is flat".
    True
  30. According to the text, which of the following alternative work schedule arrangements have been widely used in Europe?
    Compressed workweek
  31. Which of the following disseminates ethical codes to organizations?
    Sarbanes-Oxley Act
  32. The Teleological approach or Consequentialist view is also known as the:
    Utilitarian view.
  33. In which of the following types of organization, the strategy is more of meeting the letter of the laws, not the spirit.
    Compliance organization
  34. According to Thomas Friedman, the first phase of globalization was characterized by companies globalizing.
    False
  35. Which word means simply that individuals affiliate with one another because of spatial or geographical proximity?
    Propinquity.
  36. The case study featured in the video on team building was based on the company:
    Office Max
  37. This occurs when members reduce their effort and performance levels when acting as part of a group.
    Social loafing.
  38. To improve coordination among the cross-functional teams, organizations can carry out the following steps EXCEPT:
    ensure that specific members especially understand how the group functions.
  39. The following are all practical benefits that can be availed from an informal organization, EXCEPT:
    enumerates gaps in a manager’s abilities.
  40. All of the following increase group cohesiveness, EXCEPT:
    Intragroup competition.
  41. Members performing knowledge-based tasks in remote locations can become members of so-called _____.
    virtual teams
  42. All of the following are ways to use groups to enhance satisfaction and performance, EXCEPT:
    ensuring there is no intergroup rivalry.
  43. The characteristics of a primary group include all of the following EXCEPT:
    large number of people.
  44. All of the following are symptoms of groupthink EXCEPT:
    dialogue to reduce vulnerability due to optimism and risk taking.
  45. All of these are behaviors that are always key to adapting to unusual circumstances or events, EXCEPT:
    Self leadership.
  46. The team in the video on group members getting together to make its’internal process more efficient, could be characterized as a:
    Cross functional team.
  47. The norming stage of group development is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
    confusion
  48. Norms consist of a pattern of roles.
    False
  49. A prestigious social group that a person would like to join would be an example of this type of group.
    Reference group.
  50. To help overcome the potentially disastrous effects of group dysfunctions, _____ of minority and unpopular viewpoints should be encouraged and legitimatized.
    free expression
  51. The following types of views are suppressed in groups and teams suffering from groupthink EXCEPT:
    majority.
  52. The study of groups in the study of organizational behavior becomes especially valuable when the _____ of the groups are/ is analyzed.
    dynamics
  53. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of a coalition?
    Dependent on the formal organization’s structure.
  54. A craft union would be an example for which type of group?
    Membership group.
  55. The phase when group members suddenly recognize that if they don’t change tactics, the group’s goal or mission will not be accomplished is characteristic of which one of the following group theories?
    Punctuated equilibrium theory
  56. From the classical psychology theories on groups, it can be deduced that both leadership and _____ can have an important impact on group performance in organizations.
    group dynamic factors such as cohesion
  57. The team in the video on group members getting together to make its’ internal process more efficient, would pass through the adjourning stage of group development.
    True
  58. What among the following determinants of group effectiveness describes whether and how group performance is rewarded?
    Outcome interdependence.
  59. Which classic theory states that persons are attracted to one another on the basis of similar attitudes toward commonly relevant objects and goals?
    Balance theory.
  60. Identify the role of one who acts as a facilitator and bridge between units or groups which would not otherwise interact.
    Boundary spanner
  61. In which among the following theories, does costs and benefits play an important role in group formation and continuance?
    Exchange theory.
  62. A comprehensive theory of group formation than mere propinquity comes from the classic theory of George Homans based on all of the following variables EXCEPT:
    intensities.
  63. The discussants in the panel discussion had differing views on the:
    Need for bonding between team members.
  64. Group members, in the video on a group members getting together to make its’ internal process more efficient, were employed in:
    Kaiser Permanente
  65. Identify the third stage of group development.
    Norming.
  66. According to Richard Hackman, the conditions or the induction that a leader can imbibe to satisfactorily create conditions that promote group effectiveness include the following EXCEPT:
    letting the group members set themselves a compelling direction for the group’s work.
  67. The following are all factors that can give rise to role ambiguity EXCEPT:
    routine tasks.
  68. The role of a person who is empowered by the group to act on its behalf to get resources and make deals could be termed as:
    negotiator.
  69. Fasting for a religious, social, or political cause is an example of _____ motive being preceded over by the other motives.
    primary
  70. When Mark is late for his economics presentation. Which of the following attribution is Mr. Rutherford, his economics lecturer, making if he assumes that Mark is not interested in the subject?
    Dispositional
  71. Primary motives must be unlearned, and it must be physiologically based.
    True
  72. Management often faces the problem of having employees who are not motivated despite being provided with high salaries, excellent fringe-benefit packages etc. Which theory offers an explanation for this type of behavior?
    Two-factor theory.
  73. This model starts with the premise that motivation (effort or force) does not equal satisfaction or performance.
    Porter – Lawler model.
  74. Glen meets with an accident while returning from work. Which of the following attribute is one of the bystanders making, if he blames the accident to a mechanical defect in Glen's car rather than Glen's negligence while driving?
    Situational
  75. According to research by David McClelland, the derived specific characteristics of high achievers are summarized as being all of the following EXCEPT:
    high risk taking.
  76. An individual who believes in the statement, "I make my own fate", is said to have which of the following attribution?
    Internal locus of control
  77. The chances for making attributions to internal or personal causes for the behavior are higher when all of the following characteristics are present EXCEPT:
    high consensus
  78. In order to be included under the category of secondary motives, the motive must be learned.
    True
  79. According to which of the following theory, extrinsic motivators may actually undermine intrinsic motivation?
    The Cognitive Evaluation Theory
  80. A person who does not like the idea that someone or something controls their lives is said to have which of the following attribution?
    Internal locus of control
  81. In a workplace, which of the following can be categorized as an intrinsic motivator?
    Accomplishment
  82. According to the two-factor theory, all these can be considered as belonging to the category of hygiene factors EXCEPT:
    responsibility.
  83. All of these consist of the negative extrinsic motives EXCEPT:
    pay.
  84. The key to understanding the process of motivation lies in the meaning of and the relationship among all these EXCEPT:
    education
  85. In a workplace, extrinsic motivators include all of these EXCEPT:
    achievement.
  86. The fact that there are a higher number of employees who are dissatisfied with the raise they get points out that the hygiene factors seem to be important in preventing dissatisfaction but do not lead to satisfaction.
    True
  87. Which of these is NOT a category of the need for affiliation?
    Influencing people to change their attitude or behavior.
  88. This according to Maslow, corresponds to the unlearned primary needs.
    Physiological needs.
  89. Identify the second need that correctly fits Maslow’s needs hierarchy principle.
    Safety needs.
  90. Motivation is a process that starts with a physiological or
    psychological deficiency or need that activates a behavior or drive that is aimed at a goal or incentive.
    True
  91. Which of the following is a characteristic of the need for achievement?
    Doing better than competitors
  92. Severance pay, health insurance, and seniority plans fall under which of the following category in the hierarchy of work motivation?
    Security needs
  93. An individual who believes in the statement, "Your fate was decided the day you were born," is said to have which of the following attribution?
    External locus of control
  94. Kelly suggests three dimensions that will affect the type of attributions that are made. To keep these dimensions straight, it can be remembered that _____ relates to other people, _____ relates to other tasks, and _____ relates to time.
    consensus; distinctiveness; consistency
  95. Having a degree from the right university can be categorized under:
    need for status.
  96. According to the two-factor theory, all these can be considered as belonging to the category of motivators EXCEPT:
    salary.
  97. Which of the following theory is concerned with the relationship between personal social perception and interpersonal behavior?
    Attribution theory
  98. The strength of the attempt to restore equity, which in essence is motivation, is in direct proportion to the _____ that exists.
    perceived inequity
  99. These people express the greatest desire to be socially accepted by others.
    People with high need for affiliation.
  100. In explaining victories, athletes commonly credit themselves, but they are more likely to attribute losses to bad breaks, poor officiating, or the other team’s superior effort. This is an example of which one of the
    following attribution biases?
    Self-serving bias.
  101. Attaining an incentive will:
    reduce or cut off the drive.
  102. An incentive is defined as anything that will alleviate the needs and increase the drive.
    False
  103. According to Porter and Lawler, effort does not lead directly to performance but is moderated by all of the following EXCEPT:
    discipline.
  104. This theory is based mainly on the cognitive concept of expectancy.
    Process theories.
  105. In an organization, the interests of the top management is in conflict with that of the middle management. Which of the following theory is consistent with this situation?
    Agency theory
  106. Which one of the following would NOT be classified as a primary motive?
    Having a secure job.
  107. Equity theory is a _____ based motivation theory.
    cognitive
  108. This by definition, occurs when a person perceives that the ratio of his or her outcomes to inputs and the ratio of a relevant other’s outcomes to inputs are unequal.
    Inequity.
  109. What ascribes a person's behavior to external factors such as equipment or social influence from others?
    Situational attributes
  110. Among the following, who believed that once a given need is satisfied, it no longer serves to motivate?
    Maslow.
  111. Motivation is a hypothetical construct that is used to help explain behavior; it should not be equated with behavior.
    True
  112. Which of the following can help explain why employees retaliate against both inequitable outcomes and inappropriate processes?
    Organizational justice
  113. All of the attribution theories share the following assumptions EXCEPT:
    we seek to enhance our status through performance.
  114. Avoiding tasks or decisions with a risk of failure and blame can be categorized under which one of the following needs?
    Need for security
  115. Which dimension of justice can raise issues of equality as opposed to equity?
    Procedural justice
  116. Which of the following consists of an individual's cognitive evaluation regarding whether or not the amounts and allocations of rewards setting are fair?
    Distributive
  117. Using this, work behavior may be explained by whether employees perceive their outcomes as being controlled internally or externally.
    Locus of control.
  118. All of the following are characteristics of a recognition system EXCEPT:
    it is most effective during an annual performance review.
  119. Agency theory is concerned with the diverse interests of the stakeholders, and the methods by which the enterprise’s _____ is used to align these interests and goals.
    reward system
  120. All these are forms of individual incentive plans EXCEPT:
    profit sharing.
  121. Which one of the following theories equates money as being only as important as the most basic requirements of employees?
    Maslow's hierarchy theory
  122. When Steve Kerr, noted that "Nobody refuses it, nobody returns it, and people who have more than they could ever use do dreadful things to get more," what was he referring to?
    Money
  123. The logic behind gain-sharing plans is that:
    if everyone works to reduce cost and increase productivity, the organization will become more efficient and have more money to reward its personnel.
  124. Organizations use rewards to motivate employee performance and encourage their loyalty, but it is not effective in retention of these employees.
    False
  125. This new approach rewards competencies of the employees such as those related to the international business context, social skills etc.
    Competency pay.
  126. Steps needed to effectively set up and manage a formal and informal recognition program include all of these, EXCEPT:
    Recognize using small and large monetary awards.
  127. This group incentive plan typically involves the company taking out a loan to buy a portion of its own stock in the open market.
    Employee stock ownership plan (ESOP).
  128. When may an organization find it difficult to hire and retain many of their personnel?
    When the base pay is not in line with the market rate.
  129. Which of the following is the practice of collapsing the traditional large number of salary levels into a small number of salary grades with broad pay ranges?
    Broad-banding
  130. What is the basic idea behind the stock option plan in relation to the value of the company’s stock?
    The executives will strive to increase organizational performance.
  131. According to agency thoery, the people who are in control of large organizations are usually _____ who are responsible for representing the interests of the owners.
    agents
  132. Some of the formal recognition systems in place at the Hotel Sofitel Minneapolis include all of the following EXCEPT:
    Proactive Personnel of the Week.
  133. A growing number of firms that have implemented a well-structured, formal recognition system have experienced a dramatic improvement in the _____ of their best employees.
    retention
  134. All of these are disadvantages of the group incentive plan EXCEPT:
    it focuses the group on specific performance targets.
  135. As the HR manager of a firm, you have the job to hire a talented candidate for your company quickly. You would motivate the candidate to join the company quickly by offering:
    a signing bonus.
  136. The stock option plan allows senior-level managers to buy company stock in the future at a/ the _____ price.
    predetermined fixed
  137. The importance of _____ is now recognized as being a vital dimension of  the organizational environment that influences human behavior at the
    workplace.
    reward systems
  138. This has been recognized as being central to knowledge management and competitive advantage in the new paradigm shift.
    Intellectual/human capital.
  139. Which among the following is a potentially powerful, and importantly, much less expensive form of organizational reward systems?
    Recognition.
  140. All of the following are disadvantages associated with merit pay EXCEPT:
    it allows the employer to differentiate pay given to high performers.
  141. Identify the kind of worker whose work output may be easily measured.
    Production-line workers.
  142. In this system, besides sales volume, the commission is determined by customer satisfaction and sales team outcomes such as meeting revenue or
    profit goals.
    Commissions based beyond sales to customers.
  143. The rise and fall of Nortel (the large multinational
    Canada-headquartered telecommunications company) was used in the text as an example in critically analyzing
    agency theory.
  144. Based on emperical research which aspect gets negatively affected if organizations reduce their pay?
    Morale.
  145. Agency theory seeks to explain:
    how owners and managers may vary in their approach to risk taking.
  146. These plans are designed to share with the group or team the net gains from productivity improvements.
    Gain-sharing.
  147. The pay package of several CEOs of large companies are not reflected in their performance. To counter this, a growing number of corporate shareholders have proposed resolutions that tie a CEO's pay to a multiple of the _____ pay.
    lowest worker's
  148. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with merit pay?
    It allows the employer to differentiate pay given to high performers.
  149. Which of the following approach includes an employee-satisfaction measure to recognize a manager's people-management skills?
    Rewarding leadership effectiveness
  150. Organizational rewards in the form of money can take on all of the following forms EXCEPT:
    company sponsored training.
Author
mceja
ID
185976
Card Set
HROB3
Description
Chapters 2, 4, 6 & 11
Updated