Name the routes of administration and their bioavailability value IV - 1 IM - 0.85 SQ - 0.75 PO - 0.45-0.56 IP - 0.45 Per rectum - 0.21 This is the movement of drug molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across a semi-permeable membrane: Passive Diffusion Does passive diffusion require energy? No This is the movement of drug molecules being surrounded by a carrier molecule within the cell membrane and carried into the cell usually from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration: Facilitated Diffusion Does facilitated diffusion require energy? yes This is the movement of drug molecules that are surrounded by carrier molecules within the cell membrane and carried into the cell against the concentration gradient: Active Transport Does active transport require energy? Yes This is where the drug molecules particularly large proteins and intact antibiotics are surrounded and/or engulfed by the cell's membrane and taken within the cell Pino/phagocytosis Do pino/phagocytosis require energy? Yes This is the movement of drug molecules from systemic circulation into tissues distribution This is the degree to which an administered drugs is absorbed. bioavailability This is the breaking up of a drug into smaller particles to be absorbed dissolution What form of drugs does not have a dissolution phase? liquid forms Describe ion trapping: A drug in lipophilic form penetrates the cell membrane and enters the cell.  The pH within the cell causes a dramatic shift to the hydrophilic form and the drug can no longer passively diffuse out of the cell.  However since there is a set ratio of hydrophilic to lipophilic molecules any lipophilic molecules will diffuse out of the cell causing other hydrophilic molecules to convert to lipophilic to maintain that set ratio.  Eventually this allows the drug to pass into systemic circulatiion. What are SR tablets and why aren't they used much in small animal medicine? Sustained Release tables are designed to dissolve slowly to allow small amounts of drug to be released into the system over a long period of time.  Since the digestive tract of canine and feline patients is much shorter than humans, the drug will not have enough time to dissolve and be absorbed Describe the first pass effect: Once a drug is absorbed into systemic circulation it goes to the liver via the hepatic portal system.  The liver assumes the drug is a foreign substance or xenobiotic and removes a substantial amount before allowing the remainder to reenter general circulation. This is an drug completely dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base that is only administered orally. Elixir An example of an elixir would be: Cardoxin This is a drug completely dissolved in a heavy sugar solution like 85% dextrose. Syrup An example of a syrup would be: Dirocide These forms of medications are thicker than lotions and liniments that usually liquify at body temperature: Ointments and pastes What is the difference between and ointment and paste Ointment is applied topically only Paste is administered orally only This form of medication is thicker than liniments that is meant to be dabbed or brushed on skin. Lotion This is a drug dissolved in an alcohol solution that is meant to only be applied topically. Tincture This is a small glass container that is opened by snapping of the neck and is for single use injectable medication. Ampule This is the removal of a drug from the body. Excretion What are the two main type of excretion? renal excretion hepatic excretion 4 factors that slow excretion R.I.D.S Renal dysfunction Increased Sympathetic Tone Dehydration Shock This describes how long it takes for the drug concentration in the blood to decrease by 50%. drug half life What is used to measure drug elimination? a drug's half-life This is the period from the last administration of drugs to when the animal can be legally slaughtered for human consumption or products like milk/eggs can be consumed. Withdrawal time This is when the concentration highs (peaks) and concentration lows (troughs) of a drug are roughly the same within the blood after 5 half-lives. Steady State How is the steady state calculated? 5 x t1/2 = steady state An acid environment is better penetrated by which form of a drug? lipophilic An alkaline environment is better penetrated by which form of a drug? hydrophilic This is the state where the ionized to non-ionized ratio of a drug is 1:1 and describes a drugs alkaline or acid nature. pKa An acid drug is predominantly in which form in an acid environment? non-ionized An alkaline drugs is predominantly in which form in an alkaline environment? non-ionized A single use glass container with a rubber stopper that separates the solute from the diluent. Vial This is a drug made from ground up plant and animal parts that have been treated, filtered, refined and prepared into some medical form usually in batches or lots. Extract This refers to a type of drug that requires it to go through biotranformation phase 1 to become active. Prodrug ex: prednisone (K9) > b/t 1 > prednisolone (Fel) Describe the MFO system: Mixed Function Oxidase system is the most common group of enzymes in biotransformation phase 1. Repeatedly used drugs cause an increase in the number of enzymes available.  This increases the rate at which these drugs are metabolized, thus causing induced metabolism Describe Biotransformation Phase I. After the drug exerts its effect and decomposes, it is returned back to the liver where it is either oxidized, reduced or hydrolized  by the MFO system to a generally less active metabolite Describe Biotransformation Phase II After phase one the metabolite is conjugated with another molecule such as glucaronic acid, sulfate or glycine.  This produces a more hydrophilic metabolite.  Excretion is then possible by the kidney or liver since the hydrophilic form is unable to be reabsorbed through the lumen This class of drugs has a HIGH potential for abuse and may lead to severe physiologic and psychological dependence. C-II ex: opium, ketamine, morphine This class of drugs has SOME potential for abuse and may lead to low to moderate physiologic and high psychological dependence. C-III ex: barbituates, Telazol This class of drugs has LOW potiential for abuse and has limited physiologic and psychological dependence. C-IV ex: butorphanol, valium This class of drugs has the LOWEST potential for abuse and is subject to state and local regulations. C-V ex: Lomotil This is the initial dose to reach theraputic range. Loading dose This is the dose needed to hold the level of drug in t he middle of the theraputic range. Maintenance dose What temperature is considered Cold Storage? not to exceed 46 F What temperature is considered Cool Storage? between 46 and 59 F What temperature is considered Room Temperature? 59 to 86 F What temperature is considered Warm Storage? between 86 and 104 F What is considered Excessive Heat greater than 104 F How does perfusion affect absorption? Well perfused tissues will absorb injected drugs quicker than poorly perfused tissues How does perfusion affect distribution? Well perfused tissues will show higher concentrations of drug than poorly perfused tissues Name 4 well perfused tissues Brain Kidney Liver Heart Name 4 poorly perfused tissues Bone Ligaments Tendons Fat Name 4 barriers to drug passage Placenta Globe of the eye Prostate Blood/Spinal cord This is an approximation of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body - a larger number = more tissues penetrated Volume of distribution (Vd) This is a type of suspension in which two compounds are mixed in a jelly-like substance. Gel This is a type if suspension in which a drug mixed into an oil to be rubbed into the skin liniment This is where a drug is used safely and successfully by veterinarians but not specifically approved by the FDA off (extra) label use Which act place the FDA in the role of watchdog over the way veterinary drugs are used? Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act Which act in 1994 gave Veterinarians the authority to use approved drugs in an off (extra) label manner? The Animal Medical Drug Use Clarification Act Requirements for a valid Rx: Name, address, current phone number of veterinarian or clinic/hospital Date written Client's name, address Species Rx to mean "take thou of" Drug name, concentration, number and type of units dispensed Sig - to mean "write or label" DEA # if it is a controlled substance This is the term given to a drug that can be produced by multiple companies once the patent coverage is no longer in effect and is only required to be 90% pure by the FDA to be licensed. Generic equivalent FDA Food and Drug Administration DEA Drug Enforcement Administration MSDS Material Safety Data Sheet What does the MSDS contain? Guidelines for protective precautions, clean up procedures, and first aid for accidental exposure to whichever substance the sheet is about. What does a TM or an encircled R stand for? Trademark or registered name = a name only that manufacturer may legally use, has the patent for by the federal government which allows them to recoup money spent on its development This is a drug suspended in an emulsion of egg lecithin and soybean oil p= Propoflo np = propofol This is a powdered drug compressed into a disk tablet This is a powdered drug surrounded by a gelatin casing capsule This is a powdered drug mixed with lactose or dextrose Chewable Molded Tablet This is a powdered drug mixed with and incorporated into a hard candy not generally used in Veterinary medicine Lozenge/Troche This is a type of suspension where two immiscible liquids when mixed together, one is suspended in small globules in the other Emulsion This is a general term applied to a solute that completely dissolves in a diluent and will not settle out Solution This is a general term applied to a solute that does not dissolve completely in a diluent when mixed and will settle out Suspension This is a substance that had the potential for physical, psychological addiction and/or abuse controlled substance This means to write or label sig syrup abbreviation syp. tablet abbreviation tab. drop abbreviation gtt capsule abbreviation cap extract abbreviation ext abbreviation for "every night at bedtime" nightly by abbreviation per ointment abbreviation ung cubic centimeter cc dispense abbreviation disp gram abbreviation gm grain abbreviation gr at once abbreviation stat. suppository abbreviation supp. suspension abbreviation susp. OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration What is OSHA for? Provides a handbook that outlines guidelines for safe handling, storage, use, clean up and disposal of chemicals/drugs solution abbreviation soln. Normal Saline abbreviation NS after meals abbreviation p.c. as needed abbreviation p.r.n. Four times a day abbreviation q.i.d. intramuscular abbreviation IM every other day abbreviation q.o.d. PDR Physician's Desk Reference VPB Veterinary Pharmaceuticals and Biologics BNDD Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs Old name for the DEA Components to therapeutic drug use 1. route of administration 2. dose 3. dose interval Routes of Administration intravenous - IV intramuscular - IM subcutaneous - SQ oral - PO intraperitoneal - IP rectal intraocular/intrarticular This is the amount of time between administration of separate doses dose interval This is the dose interval and the dosage dose regimen This is the product of the dose and frequency of administration total daily dose This refers to how a drug is metabolized depending on the nature of the drug and the body's responses Pharmacokinetics The 4 classic drug movement steps 1. absorption 2. distribution 3. metabolism 4. excretion This is the movement from the site of administration to systemic blood circulation absorption intravascular(venous) abbreviation IV Over-The-Counter abbreviation OTC What constitutes an OTC drug? Based on toxicity and is determined by how adequately instructions made for the lay person to use with clarity and consistency ounce abbreviation oz How many mL in 1 oz? 30mL milliliter abbreviation mL How many mL in 1 L 1000mL How many mL in 1 T 15 mL How many mL in 1 tsp? 5mL every abbreviation q elixir abbreviation elix. hour abbreviation hr pound abbreviation lb milligram abbreviation mg How many milligrams in 1 g 1000 mg How many grams in 1 oz 28.3 g How many mg in 1 grain 60 mg before meals abbreviation a.c. Packet Insert Terms Description of compostion Indications Precautions Contraindications Warnings Adverse Reactions Side Effects This is the chemical definition on a package insert Description of composition This is a list for which a drug is approved on a package insert Indications These are reasons to use a drug on a package insert Precautions These are reasons NOT to use the drug on a package insert Contraindication These are potentially fatal reactions on a package insert Warnings These are undesirable reactions that could occur to make the animal sick on a package insert Adverse reactions These are any normal effect of a drug other than intended for therapeutic effect on a package insert Side effects tincture abbreviation tintc. two times a day abbreviation b.i.d. as desired abbreviation ad lib once a day abbreviation s.i.d. three times a day abbreviation t.i.d. Veterinary Technician definition A student that has graduated from an AVMA accredited program What 3 things can a vet tech not do Diagnose Prescribe treatment/medications Perform surgery right eye abbreviations OD left eye abbreviation OS both eyes abbreviation OU by mouth abbreviation PO According to Bill what does PO mean via a body opening liter abbreviation L subcutaneous abbreviation SQ Intraperitoneal abbreviation IP This is the movement of a drug from a tissue back to the blood and then to a second tissue Redistribution This is the movement of a drug from the intestinal tract, to the liver, to the blood and tissue, back to the liver, to the intestinal tract, then reabsorbed back from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver enterohepatic circulation This refers to a drug that combines with a receptor and cause a cell to produce a physiological change agonist How do you determine a drugs absorption degree according to availability? Multiply the dose by the bioavailability factor This is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic drug within theraputic range that stops bacterial growth Minimum Inhibitory Concentration This means decrease in number of platelets Thrombocytopenia This is a general term for disease causing agents pathogen This refers to the range of bacteria that can be killed by a particular antimicrobial Spectrum of activity This means to "kill" bacteria Bactericidal This refers to traces of leftover drug in the tissues long after the antimicrobial drug has been stopped Residue This is the chemical structure found in Penicilllins and Cephalosporins that some bacteria produce enzymes that target it for destruction Beta lactam ring This means having an allergic reaction to a drug Hypersensitivity This is the process by which one compound binds to another compound, causing it to precipitate our of solution and occurs in tetracyclines and calcium chelate This  means toxic to the kidney and occurs with aminoglycosides Nephrotoxic This is the presence of crystals, typically precipitated drug molecules, in the urine crystalluria This means "skin plant" and refers to fungal agents such as "ringworm" Dermatophyte This is a term referring to the depression or stopping of bone marrow production of blood cells and occurs with chloramphenicol Myelosuppression This is the enzyme that is the target of quinolones and prevents the nuclear material of bacteria from being condensed thus preventing division DNA Gyrase Most often associated with tetracyclines, this drug-induced condition results in a glucosuria without hyperglycemia Faconi's Syndrome This means to inhibit bacterial growth Bacteriostatic This means a decreased number of white blood cells Leukopenia This term indicates bacteria can be inhibited or killed by a particular drug Sensitive This occurs when an oral antibiotic kills off the beneficial bacteria in the GI tract and allows pathogenic bacterial proliferation Super/suprainfection This means toxic to the ear and occurs with aminoglycosides Ototoxic This is a condition often associated with sulfonamides and is commonly called dry eye due to decreased function of the tear glands Keratoconjuctivitis sicca (KCS) This is the process by which bacteria are isolated and their susceptibility to different antimicrobial drugs is determined Culture and sensitivity This is a class of microbes that grow under conditions with little or no oxygen Anaerobic This means produces pus pyogenic This means to cause birth defects and is associated with griseofulvin use in cats Teratogenic Proprietary name for Griseofulvin Fulvicin This term translates to "against life" antibiotic This refers to bacterial resistance to several related antimicrobial drugs Cross-resistance This is the enzyme produced by some bacteria that can disable penicillins and cephalosporins Beta lactamase This means that a bacteria cannot be killed by a particular drug Resistant This class of microbes require oxygen to grow aerobic Give the 5 Antimicrobial mechanisms of action and an example(s) of each 1) Interferes with formation of bacterial cell wall - Penicillins/Cephalosporins 2) Damages bacterial cell membrane (none given) 3) Interferes with protein synthesis via ribosome interruption - Aminoglycosides/Macrolides/Lincosamides/tetracyclines 4) Interfere with critical enzymes for normal metabolism - Sulfonamides 5) Damage/alteration of Nucleic acids - Quinolones What can render an aminoglycoside ineffective? The presence of pus (pyogenic infection) How are aminoglycosides taken up into tissues and what chemical does this process depend on? Active transport / Oxygen Because they readily uptake in the ear and kidney tissues, aminoglycosides are said to be what? Ototoxic and nephrotoxic Aminoglycoside mechanism of action can be enhanced by which class(es) of drugs? Penicillins and cephalosporins How is early aminoglycoside toxicosis detected? The presence of casts and increased protein in the urine At most physiologic pH levels, Aminoglycosides are typically lipophilic or hydrophilic? hydrophilic True or False: With aminoglycosides, the total daily dose should be t.i.d. instead of s.i.d. False, because extended dosage intervals are necessary to allow plasma concentrations more time to decrease enough to prevent toxicity These tetracyclines are able to penetrate through the blood-brain barrier better than others of the same class and have a slightly broader spectrum of activity Doxycycline and Minocycline These two drugs, when expired decompose to a nephrotoxic compound and are the cause of Fanconi's syndrome Tetracycline Oxytetracycline Class of antimicrobials most associated with hypersensitivity reactions Penicillins Name the first quinolone approved in the US for cats and dogs Enrofloxacin (Baytril) This is the antifungal of choice for deep mycoses and will cause damage to the kidneys if not given with Dextrose 5% in water Amphotericin B (Fungizone) This vehicle for penicillin extends theraputic concentrations for up to 2 days procaine This vehicle for penicillin extends theraputic actions over 5 days benzathine What compound is used to potentiate amoxicillin? Clavulanic acid These are chemical agents that kill or prevent growth of pathogens on living tissues antiseptics These are antiseptics or disinfectants that reduce the number of microorganisms to a "safe" level Sanitizers These are chemical agents that kill or prevent growth on inanimate objects disinfectants This means "kills microbial spores" sporicidal This is an infection acquired during a period of hospitalization nosocomial This means "kills protozoa" protozacidal This is a glycocalyx coating over surgical implants that prevents antiseptics from reaching bacteria biofilm This mean "kills viruses" viralcidal Antiseptics or disinfectants that destroy all forms of microorganisms including spores sterilizers This means capable of killing cells cytotoxic This is a type of virus that is difficult to kill with most antiseptics non-enveloped This means "kills fungi" fungicidal This is an antiseptic combined with soap scrub This is an antiseptic (iodine) dissolved in an alcohol solution tincture This means "kills bacteria" bacteriocidal This biguanide compound is one the most commonly used antiseptic/disinfectant in veterinary medicine that precipitates with hard water, should be diluted, and inhibits fibroblasts Chlorhexidine (Nolvasan) This type of disinfectant is found in most handsoaps, mouthwashes and Lysol and have been reported to be neurotoxic and teratogenic in humans Phenols This term means "generates birth defects" teratogenic This is commonly found in surgical scrubs, can be inactivated by organic material, and is often combined with polyvinyl pyrrolidine to release it over time iodine This chemical is from the chlorine class and is effective against non-enveloped viruses like parvovirus Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) 30:1 T/F: Color-fast bleaches have chlorine as their active ingredient False Which should be used to disinfect a surgery table: microbiostatic or microbiocidal? microbiocidal Which form of bacteria is more susceptible to disinfectants and antiseptics: the vegetative or spore form? vegetative (active form) Note: the spore for is the dormant form and therefore hard to kill This is the group of adrenocorticosteroids associated with the antiinflammatory response that come from the zona fasciculata glucocorticoids These cyclooxygenase produced eicosanoids cause platelets to adhere to each other and thus contribute to the clotting mechanism Thromboxanes This means "loss of hair" and is a clinical sign of Cushing's disease. Alopecia This is the type of immunity provided by antibodies humoral immunity This is a condition of the kidney caused by a combination of NSAID use plus arterial hypotension and can lead to kidney failure renal papillary necrosis These eicosanoids are produced by lipooxygenase leukotrienes This is a type of disease caused by the body's own defense mechanisms turning against its own tissues autoimmune reaction This is the term for the increase in neutrophils and is a part of the "stress triad" neutrophilia This is the term meaning tissue destruction or break down; seen with corticosteroid use catabolism This refers to the outer part of the adrenal gland cortex Name the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex (outer to inner) and the group of steroids that comes from each Zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) Zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids (cortisone) Zona reticularis: sex hormones (5%) and some glucocorticoids Name the enzyme that produces thromboxanes and prostaglandins cyclooxygenase Give 2 names which thromboxanes, prostaglandins and leukotrienes are collectively called. Eicosanoids or Autocoids This means low numbers of eosinophils and is a part of the "stress triad" eosinopenia This is the term for the production of glycogen in the liver glycogenesis This is the hormone produced in the hypothalamus that stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release ACTH Corticotropin releasing factor This means decrease monocytes monocytopenia This means "decreased size": seen with muscles and skin in animals with exogenous corticosteroids atrophy This means a condition or disease "cause by the veterinarian" Iatrogenic This is the enzyme that produces leukotrienes Lipooxygenase This group of adrenocorticosteroids affects mainly the electrolytes and water balance in the body mineralocorticoids This is the creation of glucose from animo acids produced from protein catabolism Gluconeogenesis The means a "decrease of lymphocytes in circulation" and is part of the stress triad lymphopenia This is the chemical structure of a group that includes ibuprofen, naproxen and ketoprofen Propionic acid This is the series of enzymes that result in the production of eicosanoids(autocoids) after an injury Arachadonic acid pathway (vane model) This hormone release by the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of glucocorticoids in the zonal fasciculata Adrenocorticotropic hormone This is the dual-pathway NSAID because it blocks both COX and LOX Tepoxalin (Zubrin) This chondroprotective agent is a component of synovial fluid that acts as a  lubricant, increases viscosity of the fluid Hyaluronic acid This is an intermediate acting corticosteroid that is not a "pred" Triamcinolone acetate PSGAGs Polysulfated glycoaminoglycans These effects are associated with corticosteroids Maintain capillary integrity Decreased fibroblast activity Decreased T-lymphocyte activity Decreased scar tissue formation Increased neutrophils Muscle wasting and atrophy These two nutriceutical chondroprotective agents are precursors for PSGAGs glucosamine and chondriton sulfate