Ch. 1-3 quiz

What is the essence of politics?

a. tactical maneuvering
b. strategy and gamesmanship
c. resolving social conflict
d. electioneering

________ is the ability to legitimately exercise power, such as the power to make and enforce laws.

a. authority
b. persuasion
c. force
d. control

A form of government in which power and authority are in the hands of a single person is

a. a plutocracy.
b. an autocracy.
c. a democracy.
d. an aristocracy.

A(n) ______________ is a form of government in which absolute power is exercised by an individual or group whose power is not supported by tradition.

a. aristocracy
b. dictatorship
c. monarchy
d. plutocracy

The system of government in the United States is best described as

a. a republic.
b. a direct democracy.
c. a representative democracy.
d. an autocracy.

What qualification distinguishes a republic from a representative democracy?

a. It is run by members of established, noble families.
b. The lawmaking and law-enforcing branches of government are united.
c. The people, themselves, make all political decisions.
d. It has no king or queen and the people are sovereign.

Which of the following statements about direct democracy in its purest form is true?

a. It is possible only in small communities where citizens can meet to decide policy.
b. It was advocated by the founders of the United States.
c. It currently exists in many small countries throughout the world.
d. It may be categorized as either a presidential democracy or a parliamentary democracy.

In a ___, there is no separation of church and state.

a. direct democracy
b. republic
c. plutocracy
d. theocracy

The Magna Carta of England established the principle of

a. representative government.
b. equality.
c. liberalism.
d. limited government.

Which of the following best describes a social contract?

a. a voluntary agreement among individuals to create a government and to give that government adequate power to secure the mutual protection and welfare of all individuals
b. the freedom of individuals to believe, act, and express themselves as they choose so long as doing so does not infringe on the rights of other individuals in the society.
c. the set of ideas, values, and attitudes about government and the political process held by a community or a nation.
d. a concept that holds, at minimum, that all people are entitled to equal protection under the law

The English philosopher John Locke asserted that people are born with natural rights to

a. opportunity, equality, and liberty.
b. equality, property, and happiness.
c. life, liberty, and property.
d. equality, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle of American democracy?

a. equality in voting
b. equal protection of the law
c. voluntary consent to be governed
d. unrestricted individual freedom

Which of the following best describes political culture?

a. the belief that the many cultures that make up American society should remain distinct and be protected by American Laws
b. the freedom of individuals to believe, act, and express themselves as they choose so long as doing so does not infringe on the rights of other individuals in the society.
c. a set of ideas, values, and ways of thinking about government and politics
d. a system of political ideas that are rooted in religious or philosophical beliefs concerning human nature, society, and government

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of equality as it relates to American political culture?

a. Most Americans believe that all persons should have the opportunity to fulfill their potential.
b. Most Americans believe that it is government's responsibility to totally eliminate the economic and social differences that lead to unequal opportunities.
c. The goal of equality has never been a central part of American political culture.
d. Most Americans believe that legal assurances of equality are incompatible with liberty.

For Americans, ___ and the pursuit of happiness are closely related.

a. equality
b. liberty
c. property
d. freedom

Which of the following best describes capitalism?

a. a voluntary agreement among individuals to create a government and to give that government adequate power to secure the mutual protection and welfare of all individuals
b. the freedom of individuals to believe, act, and express themselves as they choose so long as doing so does not infringe on the rights of other individuals in the society
c. the set of ideas, values, and attitudes about government and the political process held by a community or a nation
d. an economic system based on the private ownership of wealth-producing property, free markets, and freedom of contract

The belief that the many cultures that make up American society should remain distinct and be protected by law is referred to as

a. multiculturalism.
b. assimilation.
c. the "melting pot."
d. cultural integration.

When it comes to ideology, Americans are often placed in two broad political camps: ___ and ___.

a. liberal; conservative
b. conservative; socialist
c. liberal; progressive
d. economic progressive; social conservative

___ is best defined as a set of beliefs that include a limited role for the national government in helping individuals and in the economic affairs of the nation, and support for traditional values and lifestyles.

a. Progressivism
b. Conservatism
c. Libertarianism
d. Liberalism

___ is best defined as a set of beliefs that include the advocacy of active government, including government intervention to improve the welfare of individuals and to protect civil rights.

a. Progressivism
b. Conservatism
c. Libertarianism
d. Liberalism

Progressivism is an alternative, increasingly popular term for the set of political beliefs also known as

a. libertarianism.
b. socialism.
c. conservatism.
d. liberalism.

People whose views fall in the middle of the political spectrum are generally called

a. progressives.
b. moderates.
c. libertarians.
d. socialists.

___ have the greatest tolerance for strong government and have the strongest commitment to egalitarianism.

a. Socialists
b. Liberals
c. Libertarians
d. Progressives

The Tea Party Movement is a grassroots conservative movement that

a. favors big government and current levels of taxation, and advocates political compromise.
b. arose in 2009 after Barack Obama became president.
c. arose in the 1950s and 1960s and continues to shape conservative beliefs.
d. advocates socialist positions on public policy.

Libertarianism is a political ideology that

a. advocates government redistribution of income.
b. supports government regulation of the economy.
c. has few adherents in the United States as compared to the rest of the world.
d. opposes government involvement in issues of private morality.

Even before the Pilgrims went ashore, they drew up the ___, in which they set up a government and promised to obey its laws.

a. Mayflower Compact
b. Massachusetts Body of Liberties
c. Pennsylvania Frame of Goverment
d. Fundamental Orders of Connecticut

The ___ and ___ were both used to establish the principles that were later expressed in the U.S. Constitution and the Bill of Rights.

a. Mayflower Compact; Massachusetts Body of Liberties
b. Massachusetts Body of Liberties; Fundamental Orders of Connecticut
c. Pennsylvania Charter of Privileges; Pennsylvania Frame of Government
d. Fundamental Orders of Connecticut; Pennsylvania Charter of Privileges

Which of the following statements about the Stamp Act of 1765 is TRUE?

a. It was the second time the British Parliament levied a direct tax on the colonists.
b. It was levied to help support British costs incurred during the Seven Years' War.
c. It was a document prepared by colonial delegates outlining their perceived rights and grievances.
d. It imposed a tax on all sugar imported into the colonies.

The British Parliament responded to the Boston Tea Party by

a. imposing taxes on sugar imports.
b. passing the Stamp Act.
c. passing the Coercive Acts and directly controlling Massachusetts government.
d. imposing taxes on glass, paint, and lead.

The First Continental Congress

a. created a colonial army and named George Washington as commander in chief.
b. was convened in response to the battles at Lexington and Concord.
c. was comprised of delegates from all thirteen colonies.
d. created "safety" committees that spied on neighbors and suppressed pro-British opinions.

The Second Continental Congress

a. decided that the colonies should send a petition to King George III to explain their grievances.
b. was convened to declare war on Britain.
c. was organized in Boston.
d. assumed the powers of a central government in response to restrictive British measures.

One of the most important arguments in favor of independence was presented by Thomas Paine. In ___, Paine contended that America could survive economically on its own and no longer needed its British connection.

a. the Declaration of Independence
b. Common Sense
c. the Articles of Confrederation
d. the Federalist Papers

The concepts expressed in the Declaration of Independence clearly reflect Thomas Jefferson's familiarity with European political philosophy, particularly the works of

a. John Locke.
b. Patrick Henry.
c. James Otis, Jr.
d. Benjamin Franklin.

The constitutions created by each of the colonies at the request of the Second Continental Congress all called for

a. a civil relationship with Britain.
b. limited governments.
c. increased government aid.
d. complete autonomy.

In 1776, ___ were suspicious not only of executive authority in their own states, but also of national authority as represented by the Continental Congress.

a. moderates
b. nationalists
c. republicans
d. federalists

The ___ served as a draft of America's first national constitution.

a. Mayflower Compact
b. Declaration of Independence
c. Articles of Confederation
d. Fundamental Orders of Connecticut

The Articles of Confederation provided that

a. a bi-cameral Congress of the Confederation would act as the central governing body.
b. each state, no matter what its size, had one vote in the Congress.
c. Congress could raise revenues for the militia and force the states to meet military quotas.
d. a strong central government would be formed to oversee the association of independent states.

The ___ favored large states, calling for a bicameral legislature with representatives in proportion to population, and which would elect the executive branch and create the national court system.

a. Virginia Plan
b. Pennsylvania Plan
c. Great Compromise
d. New Jersey Plan

Which of the following best describes Shays' Rebellion?

a. It was a catalyst for the Boston Tea Party of 1773, in which colonists dumped almost 350 chests of British tea into Boston Harbor.
b. It was an organized protest by colonial merchants against the imposition of a British tax on all sugar imported into American colonies.
c. Minutemen, seeking freedom from British rule, faced redcoats at Lexington and Concord and initiated the American Revolution.
d. It was an uprising in western Massachusetts in 1786 where indebted farmers seized county courthouses and disrupted the debtors' trials.

Which of the following was proposed in the Great Compromise?

a. a bicameral legislature would have one chamber based on population and one chamber that represented the states equally.
b. Congress had the authority to elect an executive office of more than one person.
c. A state's population alone would determine its number of representatives in Congress.
d. Congress had the power to void any state's law.

At the Constitutional Convention, the deadlock over how slaves would be counted for the purpose of determining representation in the House of Representatives was settled by the

a. Virginia Plan.
b. Great Compromise.
c. New Jersey Plan.
d. three-fifths compromise.

The delegates to the Constitutional Convention compromised on the issue of slavery by agreeing that

a. slaves imported after 1808 would be granted citizenship.
b. all current slave states could continue the practice of slavery while those states entering the Union after the Constitution was ratified would be slave free.
c. Congress could prohibit slave importation into the country beginning in 1808.
d. the issue would be put to a national vote as soon as the Constitution was ratified.

Why did the Federalists have an advantage in the debate over ratification of the Constitution?

a. They were unable to be elected as delegates to the states' ratifying conventions.
b. They stood for the status quo.
c. They had very little money or prestige and could relate to the common man.
d. They had attended the Constitutional Convention and were thus familiar with the arguments both in favor of and against various constitutional provisions.

The principle of limited government rests on the concept of

a. popular sovereignty.
b. separation of powers.
c. federalism.
d. checks and balances.

The Madisonian Model refers to a model of government that

a. divides power between central and regional governments.
b. is also known as federalism.
c. separates the powers of the national government into three different branches: legislative, executive, and judicial.
d. relies entirely on popular sovereignty.

The constitution incorporates the principle of ___, which means that the powers of the national government are divided among different branches of government.

a. federalism
b. checks and balances
c. separation of powers
d. the rule of law

The president's veto power is an example of

a. popular sovereignty.
b. checks and balances.
c. the rule of law.
d. limited government.

The Bill of Rights was

a. added by the Federalists to appease several states and secure the ratification of the Constitution.
b. drafted by Thomas Jefferson.
c. prepared with little input from individual states.
d. added to the original draft of the Constitution to appease the Federalists.

An amendment to the U.S. Constitution can be proposed by

a. a vote in four-fifths of the state legislatures.
b. a vote in three-fourths of the state legislatures.
c. a two-thirds vote in the Senate and in the House of Representatives.
d. a three-fourths vote in both chambers of Congress.

An amendment to the U.S. Constitution can be ratified by a

a. favorable vote from three-fourths of the state legislatures.
b. two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress.
c. vote in special ratifying conventions in two-thirds of the states.
d. vote in a national constitutional amendment convention called by Congress at the request of two-thirds of the state legislatures.

A ___ system is a centralized governmental system in which local or subdivisional governments exercise only those powers given to them by the central government.

a. federal
b. unitary
c. confederal
d. centralized

One of the reasons a ___ form of government would be well suited to the United States is our country's large size.

a. federal
b. unitary
c. confederal
d. centralized

An advantage of federalism for the United States is that the existence of numerous government subunits

a. eliminates political and cultural interests of regional groups from being reflected in its laws.
b. creates simultaneous regulation of business by multiple levels of government.
c. allows smaller state and local units to block or impede national plans.
d. facilitates experimentation with innovative policies and programs at the state or local level.

Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution enumerates twenty-seven powers that Congress may exercise. Two of these expressed powers are the power to ___ and the power to ___.

a. ratify amendments to the U.S. Constitution; tax
b. conduct elections; regulate intrastate commerce
c. impose taxes on exports; establish courts
d. coin money; regulate interstate commerce

The "necessary and proper clause" is the basis for ___ powers of the national government.

a. implied
b. expressed
c. inherent
d. reserved

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution reserves numerous powers for

a. the states.
b. Congress.
c. local governments.
d. the national government.

A state's police powers are best defined as the ability to

a. enact any laws necessary to protect the health, morals, safety, and welfare of its people.
b. establish a state militia.
c.. establish a police force and a correctional system.
d. use its reserved or concurrent powers to counter national policies.

The Constitution's ___ clause requires each state to honor every other state's public acts, records, and judicial proceedings.

a. full faith and credit
b. equal protection
c. necessary and proper
d. supremacy

___ establishes the precedence of national government power when federal law conflicts with state or local law.

a. The full faith and credit clause
b. The supremacy clause
c. The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution
d. Article I, Section 10, of the Constitution

State governments are prohibited by the Constitution from

a. regulating intrastate commerce.
b. establishing courts.
c. borrowing money.
d. entering into treaties with other countries.

Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power?

a. the power to regulate interstate commerce
b. the power to conduct elections
c. the power to coin money
d. the power to levy and collect taxes

In McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), the Supreme Court established the

a. doctrine of stare decisis.
b. right to equal protection
c. right to due process.
d. doctrine of implied powers.

In Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court held that the power to ___ was an exclusive national power.

a. coin money
b. establish courts
c. hold elections
d. regulate interstate commerce

Ultimately, the secession of the southern states in 1860-61 and the ensuing Civil War resulted in

a. an increased belief in a state's right to secede from the union.
b. the equal distribution of power between the states and the national government.
c. increased power for the national government.
d. the establishment of state supremacy.

The model of cooperative federalism grew out of the need to

a. solve the pressing national problems caused by the Great Depression.
b. implement Lyndon Johnson's Great Society programs initiated during the 1960s and 1970s.
c. evolve the federal system after the Civil War.
d. support states' police power and strictly limit federal power under the commerce clause.

The model of federalism in which every level of government is involved in implementing a policy is sometimes referred to as ___ federalism.

a. dual
b. competitive
c. picket-fence
d. new

When Congress chooses to act exclusively in an area in which the states and the national government have concurrent powers, Congress is said to have ___ the area.

a. extended
b. seized
c. nullified
d. preempted

The "new federalism" initiated in the 1970s involved a shift from ___ federalism to ___ federalism.

a. state-centered; cooperative
b. dual; cooperative
c. dual; picket-fence
d. nation-centered; state-centered

Which of the following is NOT true of devolution?

a. New federalism's devolutionary goals were espoused by the Clinton administration.
b. It is the process of transferring powers from a central government to its political subunits.
c. It is a doctrine providing that national laws take precedence over conflicting state laws that govern in the same area.
d. It was a product of conservative thought and initiated by Republicans.

Which of the following statements about a federal mandate is TRUE?

a. It is a federal grant targeted for a specific purpose as defined by federal law.
b. It requires states and municipalities to comply with certain rules specified by federal law.
c. It limits the federal government's role in regulating state government.
d. It transfers the powers of the local authorities back to the central government.

When taxes are collected by one level of government (typically the national government) and spent by another level (typically state or local governments), the process is called ___ federalism.

a. new
b. picket-fence
c. fiscal
d. categorical

Which of the following statements about categorical grants is TRUE?

a. They are given for a broad area, such as criminal justice or mental-health programs.
b. They are given by local governments to municipalities for establishing schools and financing education.
c. They target a specific purpose as defined by federal law.
d. They give the states more discretion than a block grant over how the funds will be spent.

Grants of funds to the states from the national government are one way that the ___ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution can be bridged.

a. Third
b. Tenth
c. First
d. Thirteenth

Currently, about ___ of state and local revenue comes from the national government.

a. one-fifth
b. two-thirds
c. one-half
d. one-fourth

If the state of Ohio offers tax advantages for locating a factory there, a business may be more likely to move its manufacturing operations to Ohio from a state, such as Michigan, which does not offer such tax breaks. This situation reflects the model of ___ federalism.

a. fiscal
b. competitive
c. dual
d. picket-fence