Author:
flash4joes
ID:
37432
Filename:
Autry
Updated:
2010-09-29 16:00:27
Tags:
RT
Folders:

Description:
Grantz-Chapters 1-4
Show Answers:

  1. Which of the following activites is NOT part of the role of respiratory therapists in patient assessment?
    A. Help physician select appropriate pulmonary function tests
    B. Document patient diagnosis in the patient's chart
    C. Assist physician with diagnostic reasoning skills
    D. Interpret arterial blood gas values and suggest mechanical ventilation changes
    B. Document patient diagnosis in patient's chart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. In which of the following stages of patient-clinician interaction is the review of physician orders carried out?
    A. Treatment stage
    B. Introductory stage
    C Pre-interaction stage
    D. Initial assessment stage
    C. Pre-interaction stage
  3. In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?
    A. Pre-interaction stage
    B. Treatment stage
    C. Introductory stage
    D. Initial assessment stage
    C. Introductory stage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What should be done just before the patient's ID bracelet is checked?
    A. Ask the patient permission
    B. Listen to breath sounds
    C. Check the patient's SpO2
    D. Check the chart for vital signs
    A. Ask the patient permission
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. What is the goal of the introductory phase?
    A. Identify the patient's family history
    B. Establish a rapport with the patient
    C. Assess the patient's apparent age
    D. Determine the patient's diagnosis
    B. Establish a rapport with the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following behaviors is NOT consistent with resistive behavior of a patient?
    A. Minimal eye contact
    B. Asking the purpose of the treatment
    C. Crossed arms
    D. Brief answers to questions
    B. Asking the purpose of the treatment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What is the main purpose of the initial assessment stage?
    A. To document the patient's smoking history
    B. To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate
    C. To identify any allergies to medications
    D. To personally get to know the patient better
    B. To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What should the RT do if the patient suffers serious side effects during treatment?
    A. Continue buy monitor the patient more closely
    B. Call a code
    C. Stop the treatment and notify the supervisor or physician
    D. Go get the head nurse
    C. Stop the treatment and notify the supervisor or physician
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. What is the appropriate distance for the social space from the patient?
    A. 4 to 12 feet
    B. 8 to 20 feet
    C. 3 to 5 feet
    D. 6 to 18 feet
    A. 4 to 12 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. What is the appropriate distance for the personal space?
    A. 18 inches to 4 feet
    B. 6 to 15 feet
    C. 0 to 18 inches
    D. 4 to 12 feet
    A. 18 inches to 4 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following activities is best performed in the personal space?
    A. The introduction
    B. Listening for breath sounds
    C. The interview
    D. The physical examination
    C. The interview
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. What type of behavior is LEAST appropriate in the patient's intimate space?
    A. Pulse check
    B. Simple commands
    C. Eye contact
    D. Auscultation
    C. Eye contact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. You are riding in an elevator at the hospital where you are employed as an RT. The elevator is full, but standing next to you is Joe, the RT who is scheduled to relieve you. He turns to you and asks "How is Mr. Cooper doing?" Earlier int eh day, Mr. Coooper had a cardiac arrest and is not being mechanically ventilated. How should you respond to Joe?
    A. "He is fine."
    B. "He is on the ventilator and will keep you very busy"
    C. "He took a turn for the worse."
    D. "Let's talk later in the report room"
    D. "Let's talk later in the report room"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. In 1996, Congress passed the HIPAA. What does the letter "P"stand for?
    A. Payment
    B. Personal
    C. Patient
    D. Portablility
    D. Portability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following techniques for expressing genuine concern is the most difficult to use appropriately?
    A. Posture
    B. Proper introductions
    C. Touch
    D. Eye contact
    C. Touch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following techniques is not associated with the demonstration of active listening?
    A. Taking notes while the patient is talking
    B. Use of touch
    C. Good eye contact
    D. Asking for clarification
    A. Taking notes while patient is talking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. What does the phrase "Universal Precautions" refer to?
    A. Protecting the patient from hospital germ and microbes
    B. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
    C. Global policies intended to prevent the transmission of disease across countries
    D. Use of potent antibiotics to prevent disease transmission
    B,. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
  18. Your patient has tuberculosis, but has skin test is read as normal. This probably was caused by his weakened immune system, which is the result of AIDS. What terms are used to describe the skin test results?
    A. False negative
    B. True positive
    C. False positive
    D. True negative
    A. False negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. If a diagnostic test is positive most of the time when a ptient is ill with the disease of concern, what can be said about the test?
    A. It is highly accurate
    B. It is of little use
    C. It has a high specificity
    D. It has a high sensitivity
    D. It has a high sensitivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. What term refers to the likelihood of a negative test result in a patient who does not have the disease?
    A. Accuract
    B. Specificity
    C. Sensitivity
    D. Reliability
    B. Specificity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Communication between two people can occur only if:
    A. The speaker speaks clearly
    B. The receiver understands the message
    C. Each person is willing to listen to the other
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  22. Communication between individuals is affected by all of the following factors EXCEPT:
    A. Cultural heritage
    B. Level of education
    C. Time of day
    D. Religious beliefs
    C. Time of day
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. When one is conductin an interview with a patient, which of teh following points is MOST important in facilitating an effective interaction with the patient?
    A. Your ability to project a sense of undivided interest in the patient
    B. Answereing all of the patient's questions completely without using jardon
    C. Recognizing the nonverbal signals that the patient is sending
    D. Introducing yourself appropriately at the beginning of the interview
    A. Your ability to project a sense of undivided interest in the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which of the following types of questions are prefered for all interactions with the patient?
    A. Neutral questions
    B. Open-ended questions
    C. Direct questions
    D. Indirect questions
    A. Neutral questions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. If a patient is unable to provide an accurate history, the RT should:
    A. Ask shorter and more direct questions to determine the cause of the problem
    B. Refuse to treat the patient because effective therapy cannot be initiated without a complete history
    C. Ask a family member or friend to supply the information
    D. Proceed to treat the patient's symptoms based on information already obtained.
    C. Ask a family member or friend to supply the information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which of the following should the RT keep in mind when obtaining a pulmonary history?
    A. Evaluation of the patient's entire health status is essential
    B. Patients with long-standing chronic disease can give a detailed account of how their lives have changed and of the signs and symptoms that the disease has caused
    C. Assessment usually is limited to the respiratory system
    D. Signs and symptoms of pulmonary disease will rarely be seen outside the cardiopulmonary system
    A. Evaluation of the patient's entire health status is essential
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Obtaining background information during an interview is very important because it allows the interviewer to:
    A. Learn the impact of culture, relationships, and finances on his/her health
    B. Predict whether the patient is willing to cooperate in the treatment of his/her disease
    C. Develop a basic understanding of the patient's experience with his/her disease
    D. Achieve all of the above
    D. Achieve all of the above
  28. Screening information is:
    A. Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted
    B. Obtained by the triage nurse in the emergency department to determine how life threatening the patient's symptoms are
    C. Obtained at health fairs to determine whether the person should see a physician
    D. Given to the interviewer by the patient at the very beginning of the interview process
    A. Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The review of systems is very important because it provides to the interviewer:
    A. Additional subjective information about the patient's problem
    B. Information relevant to the patient's problem that may have been overlooked
    C. Information grouped by major organs and physiological systems
    D. A combination of subjective and objective data in a narrative form
    B. Information relevant to the patient's problem that may have been overlooked
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A pertinent negative is defined as:
    A. Refusal by the patient to answer questions about a certain topic
    B. A negative response to an important interview question about the patient's symptoms
    C. Any negative response made by the patient during the interview
    D. Any negative response by the patient to an important question about possible symptoms
    D. Any negative response by the patient to an important question about possible symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A pertinent positive is defined as:
    A. A direct question asked during the interview that elicits a positive response
    B. An affirmative response to an important interview question about the patient's symptoms
    C. Any positive response made by the patient during the interview
    D. An affirmitative response by the patient when asked whether he/she needs a breathing treatment
    B. An affirmative response to an important interview question about the patient's symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The main purpose of the chief complaint is to:
    A. Direct the interviewer to the organ system in which the problem is located
    B. List symptoms in order from most severe to least severe according to organ system involvement
    C. Give a brief explanation about why the patient sought health care
    D. Present a diagnosis that is based on information obtained during the interview
    C. Give a brief explanation about why the patient sought health care
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following cariopulmonary conditions would NOT be found in the chief complaint list?
    A. Wheezing
    B. Hemoptysis
    C. Asthma
    D. Chest pain
    C. Asthma-it is a diagnosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. When a patient is interviewd so the chief complaint can be determined, the BEST questions that can be asked to elicit this information are?
    A. Direct questions
    B. Neutral questions
    C. Open-ended questions
    D. A combination of the above
    D. A combination of the above
  35. Which of the following would NOT be found in the past medical history?
    A. Surgeries and hospitalizations
    B. Over-the-counter medications, vitamins and "home-remedies"
    C. Injuries and accidents
    D. Associated symptoms and aggravating factors
    D. Associated symptoms and aggravating factors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the pack-year history of cigarette consumption?
    A. Packs per day - years smoked
    B. Packs per day / years smoked
    C. Packs per day x years smoked
    D. Packs per day + years smoked
    C. Packs per day x years smoked
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. One disadvantage of using the pack-year method for calucalting cigarette consumption is that:
    A. Advanced mathematical calculations are required to obtain figures
    B. The values are more meaningful to respiratory therapists and physicians than to other healthcare providers
    C. The method is not used widely throughout the US
    D. The method does not reveal how may packs per day were smoked over how many years
    D. The method does not reveal how many packs per day were smoked over how many years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for obtaining the family history?
    A. To learn about the health status of the patient's blood relatives
    B. To identify the presence in the family of diseases with a hereditary tendancy
    C. To assess the current health status of the extended family
    D. To determine whether the patient is adopted
    D. To determine whether the patient is adopted
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which of the following diseases would NOT be recorded in the family history as a hereditary disorder?
    A. Pneumonia
    B. Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
    C. Asthma
    D. Cystic fibrosis
    A. Pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Modern-day office workers may be exposed to which of the following occupational and environmental diseases?
    A. Monday fever
    B. Sick building syndrome
    C. Bagassosis
    D. Pneumoconiosis
    B. Sick building syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following symptoms is oftern seen in patients with tight building syndrome?
    A. Headache
    B. Stuffy nose
    C. Cough
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  42. What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?
    A. Histoplasmosis
    B. Silicosis
    C. Blastomycosis
    D. Coccidioidomycosis
    A. Histoplasmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Who writes the inital admission note?
    A. The head nurse
    B. The head RT
    C. The physician
    D. Any of the above
    C. The physician
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Who writes the progress notes each day?
    A. The physician
    B. The physical therapist
    C. The nurse
    D. Any of the above
    D. Any of the above
  45. Which of the following sequences of events best describes the cough mechanism?
    A. Opening of glottis, relaxation of diaphragm, closure of glottis
    B. Opening of glottis, contraction of diaphragm, explosive release of trapped intrathoracic air
    C. Inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottis
    D. Inspiration, forceful opening of glottis, contraction of diaphragm
    C. Inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following mechanisms does not explain why patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have a poor cough?
    A. Increased elastic recoil
    B. Glottis function failure
    C. Weak muscles of breathing
    D. Airway obstruction
    A. Increased elastic recoil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Chronic productive cough is caused most commonly by which of the following clinical conditions?
    A. Viral infection
    B. Bronchopulmonary disease
    C. Postnasal drip
    D. Upper airway infection
    C. Postnasal drip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following is NOT a complication of forceful coughing?
    A. Pneumothorax
    B. Torn chest muscle
    C. Rib fracture
    D. Pleural effusion
    D. Pleural effusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which of the following condition is not associated with a characteristic "hacking" cough?
    A. Viral infection
    B. Lung cancer
    C. Smoking
    D. Nervous habit
    B. Lung cancer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following is the best definition of sputum?
    A. Thick tenacious secretions
    B. Secretions from the nose, mouth and tracheobronchial tree
    C. Secretions
    D. Secretions from the lungs and lower airways
    B. Secretions from the nose, mouth and tracheobranchial tree
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. What term is used to describe secretions strictly from the lungs and lower airways?
    A. Sputum
    B. Emyema
    C. Phlegm
    D. Mucus
    C. Phlegm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Excessive sputum production is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
    A. Cigarette smoking
    B. Pleural infection
    C. Allergies
    D. Airway infection
    B. Pleural infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which of the following terms best describes foul-smelling sputum?
    A. Mucoid
    B. Mucopurulent
    C. Fetid
    D. Purulent
    C. Fetid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A patient presents in the ER with blood-tinged sputum. The term associated with such sputum is:
    A. Hemoptysis
    B. Mucopurulent
    C. Gelatinous
    D. Hematemesis
    A. Hemoptysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following conditions is believed to be the most common cause of hemoptysis?
    A. Erosive bronchitis
    B. Pneumonia
    C. Tuberculosis
    D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
    A. Erosive bronchitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following definitions is consistent with massive hemoptysis?
    A. 400 mL in 12 hours
    B. 600 mL in 72 hours
    C. 400 mL in 3 hours
    D. 600 mL in 48 hours
    C. 400 mL in 3 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Hemoptysis in the patient with sudden onset of chest pain who is at risk for venostasis is suggestive of what condition?
    A. Pulmonary embolism
    B. Atelectasis
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Myocardial infection
    A. Pulmonary embolism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. In the presense of a nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggest which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?
    A. Duodenum
    B. Liver
    C. Kidneys
    D. Esophagus
    D. Esophagus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Dyspnea is defined as:
    A. An increase in respiratory rate and depth
    B. Difficulty breathing in the upright position
    C. A visible increase in the work of breathing
    D. Breathlessness as perceived by the patient
    D. Breathlessness as perceived by the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following grading systems is useful in qualifiying the degree of dyspnea?
    A. Modified Borg scale
    B. Asthma score
    C. Murray lung injury score
    D. Dubowitz score
    A. Modified Borg scale
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Dyspnea tends to occur when which of the following is present?
    A. Decrease in ventilatory drive to breathe
    B. Increase in ventilatory drive to breathe
    C. Work of breathing that is adequate for a given level of exertion
    D. Increase in ventilatory capacity
    B. Increase in ventilatory drive to breathe
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Breathing at a rate and depth in excess of the body's metabolic needs is known as:
    A. Hyperpnea
    B. Psychogenic dyspnea
    C. Hyperventilating
    D. Platypnea
    C. Hyperventilating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. All of the following conditions are associated with acute dyspnea in children EXCEPT:
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B. Croup
    C. Asthma
    D. Bronchiolitis
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following diseases is one of the most common causes of dyspnea in adults?
    A. Bronchiolitis
    B. Congestive heart failure
    C. Asthma
    D. Cystic fibrosis
    B. Congestive heart failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?
    A. COPD
    B. Obstructive sleep apnea
    C. Asthma
    D. Congestive heart failure
    D. Congestive heart failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. An inablility to breathe while lying down is known as:
    A. Platypnea
    B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
    C. Dyspnea
    D. Orthopnea
    D. Orthopnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Chest pain is the cardinal symptom of which of the following diseases?
    A. Pleural disease
    B. Neuromuscular disease
    C. Heart disease
    D. Chest wall disease
    C. Heart disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. What is the difference between pleuritic and nonpleuritic chest pain?
    A. Pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing
    B. Pleuritic pain involves the lung itself; nonpleuritic pain involves the chest wall
    C. Pleuritic pain is inspiratory; nonpleuritic pain is expiratory
    D. Pleuritic pain usually involves the pleura; nonplueritic pain involves the lungs
    A. Pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nmonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. All of the following pulmonary conditions are associated with syncope EXCEPT:
    A. Prolonged bought of coughing
    B. Valsalva maneuver
    C. Pulmonary embolism
    D. Hyperoxia
    D. Hyperoxia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Cough syncope is associated most often with which of the following types of patients?
    A. Pregnant women
    B. Older obese men with diabetes
    C. Middle-aged men with underlying COPD
    D. Children with asthma
    C. Middle-aged men with underlying COPD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The presence of anasarca is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?
    A. Edema
    B. Pleural effusion
    C. Dyspnea
    D. Hepatomegaly
    A. Edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following conditions is often associated with right heart failure?
    A. Hepatomegaly
    B. Shallow breathing
    C. Organomegaly
    D. Loud A-2
    A. Heptatomegaly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What is the most common manifestation of infection in a patient with pulmonary disease?
    A. Cough
    B. Increased sputum production
    C. Fever
    D. Diaphoresis
    C. Fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. The presence of early morning headache may be caused by which of the following conditions?
    A. Anoxia
    B. Hypercapnia
    C. Hypoglcemia
    D. Hypoxemia
    B. Hypercapnia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. The peak incidence of snoring adult males occurs at ages ____ years
    A. 50 to 59
    B. 45 to 50
    C. 60 to 64
    D. 51 to 55
    A. 50 to 59
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is defined as reflux that occurs more than:
    A. Once a month
    B. Once a week
    C. Twice a month
    D. Twice a week
    D. Twice a week
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)