Author:
mbuckley
ID:
44083
Filename:
Skull Ch. 12 & 13
Updated:
2010-10-21 20:31:54
Tags:
skull radiology
Folders:

Description:
Bontrager 7th ed skull radiology final review
Show Answers:

  1. What xrays are included in a bone survey?
    • skull
    • spine
    • pelvis
    • long bones of legs and arms
  2. Where does multiple myeloma generally show quicker at?
    long bones
  3. What are the three cardinal rules of radiation protection
    • distance
    • time
    • shielding
  4. How many bones make up the cranium?
    • 8:
    • right and left parietal
    • right and left temporal
    • sphenoid
    • ethmoid
    • occipital
    • frontal
  5. How many bones make up the facial bones?
    14
  6. What is the maximum degree of incline for a portable?
    7 degrees
  7. What baseline does the panorex use?
    IOML parallel to the floor
  8. Axiolateral Oblique: Mandible

    true lateral - ramus
    30° - body
    45° - mentum
    10° - 15° - general survey
  9. What age does the anterior fontanel generally close?
    18 months of age
  10. What are the joints of the cranium classified as?
    fibrous
  11. At about what age do the cranial sutures completely close?
    12 - 13 years of age
  12. At what age are all of the sinuses completely developed?
    18
  13. Which sinus is located immediately below the sella turcica?
    sphenoid
  14. Meningitis
    inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid
  15. Depressed Fracture
    bone fragment pushed into the cranial cavity
  16. Tripod Fracture
    fracture caused by a blow to the cheek, free floating zygoma bone
  17. Blowout Fracture
    fracture to one side of a structure caused by an impact to the opposite side
  18. Basal Skull Fracture
    fracture visualized in dense inner structures of temporal bone
  19. Subdural Empyema
    suppurative process in the space between the inner surface of the dura and outer surface of the arachnoid
  20. Osteomyelitis of Skull
    direct extension of a suppurative process from the sinuses or mastoid air cells
  21. Brain Abscess
    results from chronic infection of the middle ear and sinuses
  22. Contrecoup
    fracture to one side of a structure caused by an impact to opposite side
  23. Encephalitis
    viral inflammation of the brain and meninges
  24. A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the mandibular rami are not superimposed. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
    rotation of the head
  25. SMV of the sinuses best shows what?
    inferosuperior view of sphenoid and ethmoid sinus
  26. A radiograph of a Waters projection reveals that the petrous ridges are projected within the maxillary sinuses. Is this an acceptable image?
    No the petrous ridges should be projected just below the maxillary sinuses
  27. A lateral of the sinuses best shows what?
    all four paranasal sinuses are demonstrated
  28. A Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection of the sinuses best shows what?
    best view of maxillary sinuses
  29. A PA Caldwell of the sinuses best shows what?
    best view of the frontal and ethmoid sinuses
  30. A PA transoral of the sinuses best shows what?
    sphenoid sinus in the oral cavity
  31. Which sinuses are projected through the oral cavity with the PA axial transoral projection?
    sphenoid sinuses
  32. Which paranasal sinuses are demonstrated with an SMV projection of the paranasal sinuses?
    sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary sinuses
  33. What is the largest immovable bone of the face?
    maxilla
  34. Which soft tissue landmark is found at the base of the anterior nasal spine?
    acanthion
  35. Which two cranial bones articulate with the maxilla?
    frontal and ethmoid
  36. Which facial bone is associated with the tear ducts?
    lacrimal bones
  37. From anterior to posterior, the cone-shaped orbits project upward at an angle of _____ and toward the midsagittal plane at an angle of ______.
    30° and 37°
  38. Which one of the facial bone openings is formed by a cleft between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone?
    superior orbital fissure
  39. What is the older term of the maxillary sinuses?
    antrum of highmore
  40. Specifically, where are the frontal sinuses located?
    posterior to the glabella
  41. The frontal sinuses rarely become aerated before the age of ________.
    6 years
  42. Which specific aspect of the ethmoid bone contains the ethmoid sinuses?
    lateral masses
  43. What is the name of the fracture that results from a direct blow to the orbit leading to a disruption of the inferior orbital margin?
    blow out fracture
  44. A "free-floating" zygomatic bone is the frequent result of a _________ fracture.
    tripod
  45. Where is the CR centered for a lateral position for facial bones?
    zygoma
  46. What CR angle must be used to project the petrous ridges just below the orbital floor with the PA axial (Caldwell) projection?
    30°
  47. Which structures specifically are visualized better on the modified Waters as compared with the basic Waters?
    orbital rims and orbital floors
  48. Where does the CR exit for a Waters of the facial bones?
    acanthion
  49. Where does the CR exit for a 15° PA axial (Caldwell) for facial bones?
    nasion
  50. Which projection for the mandible results in a thyroid dose that is four or five times greater than the thyroid dose for any other projection?
    SMV
  51. Which projection of the mandible will project the opposite half of the mandible away from the side of interest?
    axiolateral oblique
  52. Where should the CR exit for a PA axial projection of the mandible?
    acanthion
  53. Which skull positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for a PA or PA axial projection of the mandible?
    orbitomeatal line
  54. Which aspect of the mandible is best visualized with an AP axial projection?
    condyloid process
  55. What CR angle is required for the AP axial projection of the mandible if the OML is placed perpendicular to the IR?
    35° caudad
  56. Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection of the mandible?
    glabella
  57. Which projection of the mandible will demonstrate the entire mandible, including the coronoid and condyloid processes?
    SMV
  58. Which imaging system provides a single, frontal perspective of the entire mandible?
    panorex
  59. Which projection of the TMJ requires that the skull be kept in a true lateral position?
    Schuller
  60. Which single projection for a paranasal sinus routine provides an image of all four sinus groups?
    lateral
  61. Which paranasal sinuses are best demonstrated with a PA Caldwell?
    frontal and anterior ethmoid
  62. Which group of paranasal sinuses is best demonstrated with a Waters projection?
    maxillary
  63. Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for a Waters projection?
    MML
  64. Where are the petrous ridges located on a well-positioned Waters projection?
    just below the maxillary sinuses
  65. A radiograph of a Waters projection reveals that the distance between the lateral margins of the orbits and the lateral aspect of the skull is not equal. What type of positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
    rotation of the head
  66. A radiograph of a 30° PA axial projection of the facial bones reveals that the petrous ridges are projected at the level of the inferior orbital margins. Is this an acceptable image for this projection?
    yes this image meets the evaluation criteria for a 30° PA axial projection
  67. A lateral radiograph of the facial bones demonstrates that the bodies of the mandible are not superimposed; one is about 1 cm superior to the other. How would this be corrected on a repeat exposure?
    head tilted
  68. The majority of the hard palate is formed by
    the maxilla
  69. Where are the petrous ridges projected for a properly positioned modified Waters projection?
    lower half of maxillary sinuses
  70. Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for a modified Waters projection?
    LML