Airframe Part 5

Card Set Information

Airframe Part 5
2011-09-06 00:40:22

Position and Warning Systems, Ice and Rain Control Systems, Fire Protection Systems
Show Answers:

  1. The purpose of antiskid generators is to
    Measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes
  2. In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which
    Relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake
  3. An antiskid system is
    an electrohydraulic system
  4. Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by
    a switch in the cockpit
  5. A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following?
    Elavators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim
  6. The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by
    A thrust lever
  7. (1) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight.
    Only No.1 is true
  8. The angle-of-attack detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream
    is not parellel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft
  9. (1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid system automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and parking.

    (2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheel speed sensors, control box, and control valves.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No. 1 and No. 2 is true
  10. In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by
    An electrical sensor
  11. Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform?
    1. Normal skid control.
    3. Fail safe protection.
    4. Locked wheel skid control.
    5. Touchdown protection.
    1, 3, 4, 5
  12. In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow to the antiskid control box because
    Landing gear squat switch is open
  13. At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function?
    When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid.
  14. (1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point.
    (2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No.2 are true
  15. When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show
    Trim Position
  16. The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is activated by
    Negative Air pressure
  17. Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall
    is imminent
  18. (Refer to Figure 19.) What is the indication of the red landing gear position light under the following conditions?Aircraft on jacks.Landing gear in transit.Warning horn sounding.
  19. (Refer to Figure 19). Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP position and the gear does not retract?
    Replace Electrical Wire No. 12
  20. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
    Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded
  21. (Refer to Figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?
    Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.
  22. (Refer to Figure 20.) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition?
    Any gear not down and locked, and one throttle retarded.
  23. Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?
    On the main gear shock strut
  24. What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
    Ground Safety Switch
  25. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?
    Gear downlock microswitch
  26. Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?
    Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up
  27. In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by
    Sequence Valves
  28. What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft?
    A horn or other aural device and a red warning light
  29. When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at liftoff, which system is deactivated?
    Antiskid System
  30. The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses
    An electromagnet
  31. The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the
  32. The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses
    A permanent magnet
  33. Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to
    Control Electrical Units Automatically
  34. Which of the following are some uses for a dc selsyn system?
    1. Indicates position of retractable landing gear.
    4. Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler door position.
    5. Indicates fuel quantity.
    7. Indicates position of wing flaps.
    1, 4, 5, 7
  35. (1) A dc selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position.
    (2) A synchro-type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No. 2 are true
  36. When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots,
    Remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.
  37. Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system?
    1. Autotransformer.
    2. Heat control relay.
    3. Heat control toggle switch.
    5. Indicating light.
    1, 2, 3, 5
  38. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?
    Ammeter Reading
  39. What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?
    Distributor Valve
  40. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?
    Vane-type Pump
  41. Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?
    Suction Relief Valve
  42. What may be used to clean deicer boots?
    Soap and Water
  43. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated during flight?
    Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.
  44. Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?
    Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.
  45. What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system using surface combustion heaters?
    Thermo-cycling switches
  46. What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?
    To sequence the deicer boots inflations symetrically
  47. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?
    To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration
  48. Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields?
    Imbedded in the glass
  49. Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing thermal anti-icing system are
    compressor bleed air, aircraft electrical system
  50. What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system?
  51. Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the
    conductive coatings
  52. Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?
    Distributor Valve
  53. How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?
    By breaking up Ice Formations
  54. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?
    Alternate Inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minmum
  55. Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?
    Alcohol Spray and heated induction air
  56. Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?
    It will restrict visibility
  57. What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?
    An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface.
  58. What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface?
    Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol
  59. Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft?
    A brush or a squeegeee
  60. What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields?

    2. An electric heating element in the windshield.
    3. Heated air circulating system.
    5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid.
    2, 3, 5
  61. What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?
    Carburator Ice
  62. What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice?
    Hot Air
  63. What is used as a temperature-sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?
  64. In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?
    Cockpit and/or Cabin
  65. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?
    A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically
  66. The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are
    water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons
  67. When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?
  68. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of
  69. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called
    Photoelectrical Devices
  70. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by
    installing a new indicating element
  71. Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
  72. A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the
    Horn is nonmetallic
  73. The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is
    Dry Powder Chemical
  74. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?
    Photoelectric Cell
  75. Light refraction smoke detectors
    sense light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber
  76. Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits?
    A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning
  77. A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by
    weighing the container and its content
  78. What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?
  79. The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is
    dents, kinks, or crush sensor sections
  80. A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because
    it generates a small current when heated
  81. The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a
    Rate of temperature rises
  82. When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in
    Parallel with each other and in series with the light
  83. Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with
    Halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen
  84. In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems,
    (1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted.
    (2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No.2 are true
  85. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire-extinguisher system?
    A rupture of the red plastic disc in the thermal discharge line.
  86. The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch type fire-detection system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in
    parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.
  87. (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure.)
    45 to 73 degrees Ferienhiet
  88. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.)
    215 to 302 PSIG
  89. On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?
    Replace the extinguisher container
  90. In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a
    Yellow disk on the side of the fuselage
  91. If a fire-extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it
    is recomended that the cartridge be used only on the original discharge valve assembly
  92. Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system?
    1. Display 'No Smoking' placards.
    2. Provide adequate fire-fighting equipment.
    3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.
    4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.
    1, 2, 3, and 4
  93. Which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic?
    Bromidetriflouromethane (Halon 1301)
  94. Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the
    Replacement of damage sensing elements
  95. A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a
    Device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released.