Human Physiology 10

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NursyDaisy
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100763
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Human Physiology 10
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2011-10-12 00:36:55
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Human Physiology
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Sensory Physiology
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  1. What are the various forms of sensation as sight, taste, or touch?
    modalities
  2. Where in the human body does the perception of sensation occur?
    in the brain
  3. What two broad categories may be used to classify sensory receptors?
    function and structure
  4. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to chemical stimuli?
    chemoreceptors
  5. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to light?
    photoreceptors
  6. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to heat and cold?
    thermoreceptors
  7. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to mechanical deformation?
    mechanoreceptors
  8. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to pain?
    nociceptors
  9. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to body position?
    proprioceptors
  10. What functional category of sensory receptors respond to sensations from the skin?
    cutaneous receptors
  11. What type of receptors respond to continuous stimulus with a burst of activity and then quickly decrease their firing rate?
    phasic recpetors
  12. What type of receptors respond to a continuous stimulus by maintaining their rate of firing as long as
    the stimulus continues?
    tonic receptors
  13. What law states that a sensory nerve fiber will produce only one sensation?
    the law of specific nerve energies
  14. What are the depolarizations that are produced by sensory receptors in response to sensory stimuli?
    receptor (generator) potentials
  15. What are the sensations of touch, pressure, heat, cold, and pain in the skin?
    cutaneous sensations
  16. What group of sensations includes those from cutaneous receptors and proprioceptors?
    somatesthetic senses
  17. In what part of the brain are somatesthetic senses perceived?
    the postcentral gyrus of the contralateral side of the brain
  18. What is pain produced by stimulation of one region of the body but which is perceived in a different area?
    referred pain
  19. What is the area of skin whose stimulation results in changes in the firing rate of the sensory neuron serving that area?
    receptive field
  20. How does the area of receptive fields vary with the density of receptors?
    inversely
  21. What is the minimum distance at which two points of touch can be perceived as separate on the skin?
    two-point touch threshold
  22. What is the sensation of a limbís presence after amputation?
    phantom limb (it often involves pain and is often called phantom pain)
  23. What process sharpens sensations as when a blunt object stimulates a number of receptive fields?
    lateral inhibition
  24. What is a synonym for the sense of taste?
    gustation
  25. What three cranial nerves innervate taste buds?
    • the facial nerve
    • the glossopharyngeal nerve
    • the vagus nerve
  26. What are the five modalities of taste?
    • salty
    • sour
    • sweet
    • bitter
    • umami
  27. What is the sensation of a meaty flavor?
    umami
  28. What in the brain is taste perceived?
    the postcentral gyrus
  29. What physiological term is synonymous with ìthe sense of smell?
    olfaction
  30. What cranial nerve transmits impulses from olfactory receptors in the nose?
    the olfactory nerve
  31. What part of the brain perceives the sense of smell?
    the olfactory cortex in the medial temporal lobes and the associated hippocampus and amygdaloid nuclei
  32. What part of the brain do impulses from the olfactory epithelium bypass that the other senses do not?
    the thalamus
  33. Odor can powerfully evoke emotionally charged memories possibly because it linked directly to what part of the brain that controls emotion?
    the limbic system
  34. What organ provides the sense of equilibrium with respect to gravity?
    vestibuloar apparatus
  35. What are the two main parts of the vestibular apparatus?
    the otolith organs and the semicircular canals
  36. What are the two otolith orgrans?
    the utricle and the saccule
  37. What part of what bone holds the inner ear?
    the petrous part of the temporal bone
  38. The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is contained within the bony labyrinth. What fluid fills
    the membranous labyrinth?
    endolymph
  39. What fluid fills the space between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth?
    perilymph
  40. What part of the vestibular apparatus responds to changes in linear acceleration?
    the otolith organs (the utricle and the saccule)
  41. What part of the vestibular apparatus responds to changes in angular (rotational) acceleration?
    the semicircular canals
  42. Within the vestibular apparatus what are the receptors for equilibrium?
    hair cells
  43. What are all but one of the hairlike extensions of hair cells within the vestibular apparatus?
    stereocilia
  44. What is the largest extension of a hair cell?
    the kinocilium
  45. What happens with stereocilia are bent in the direction of the kinocilium?
    the hair cell depolarizes
  46. What happens when the stereocilia of a hair cell are bent away from the kinocilum?
    the cell hyperpolarizes
  47. What cranial nerve carries impulses from the inner ear to the brain?
    the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
  48. What covers the otolith organs?
    a gelatinous membrane containing crystals of calcium carbonate
  49. Which of the otolith organs is more sensitive to horizontal acceleration?
    the utricle
  50. Which of the otolith organs is more sensitive to vertical acceleration?
    the saccule
  51. What causes the otolith organs to respond to changes in linear acceleration?
    the inertia of the otolithic membrane
  52. How many semicircular canals are there?
    three
  53. What is the orientation of the semicircular canals to one another?
    They are at nearly right angles
  54. What is the enlarged area of each semicircular canal?
    the ampulla
  55. What embeds the hair cells of the semicircular canals?
    a gelatinous membrane, the cupula
  56. What causes the hair cells of the semicircular canals to respond to changes in angular acceleration?
    The movement of the endolymph pushes the cupula like a sail in the wind
  57. Impulses from the vestibular apparatus are transmitted to what parts of the brain?
    the cerebellum and the medulla oblongata
  58. What is the involuntary oscillations of the eyes produced by suddenly stopping a spinning of the body?
    vestibular nystagmus
  59. What is a loss of equilibrium?
    vertigo
  60. What are the two main characteristics of sound waves?
    • frequency (pitch)
    • intensity (amplitude)
  61. In what units is the frequency of a sound wave measured?
    hertz (Hz) or cycles per second (cps)
  62. In what units is the intensity of a sound measured?
    decibels (dB)
  63. Over what range of frequency can a young, trained individual hear?
    20 to 20,000 Hz
  64. What is the level of a sound that is at the threshold of hearing for a young, healthy individual with normal hearing?
    0 dB
  65. What is the average pain level produced by loud sounds?
    130 dB
  66. What is the outer, fleshy part of the ear?
    the pinna (auricle)
  67. What is the passage way within the skull for the outer ear?
    the external acoustic meatus
  68. What the anatomical term for the eardrum?
    tympanic membrane
  69. What is the average intensity of human speech?
    60 dB
  70. What is the estimated distance of movement of the tympanic membrane when responding to normal speech?
    about the diameter of a hydrogen molecule
  71. What is the cavity between the tympanic membrane and the cochlea?
    the middle ear
  72. Collectively, what are the three small bones in the middle ear?
    the ear ossicles
  73. From lateral to medical, name the three ear ossicles.
    • malleus
    • incus
    • stapes
  74. Which of the ear ossicles is attached to the tympanic membrane?
    the malleus
  75. Which of the ear ossicles is attached to the cochlea?
    the stapes
  76. To what part of the cochlea is the stapes attached?
    the oval window (vestibular window)
  77. What two mechanisms help to protect the inner ear from loud sounds that have a gradual onset?
    buckling of the ossicles and contraction of the stapedius muscle
  78. What structure acts as a passageway between the middle ear cavity and the nasopharynx and allows pressure within that cavity to be equalized with pressure in the outer ear?
    the auditory tube (eustachian tube)
  79. What two main structures make up the inner ear?
    the vestibular apparatus and the cochlea
  80. What is the upper most of the three chambers of the cochlea?
    the vestibular canal (scala vestibuli)
  81. What part of the inner ear houses the utricle and saccule?
    the vestibule
  82. What is the lowest of the three chambers or canals of the cochlea?
    the tympanic canal (scala tympani)
  83. What is the middle chamber or canal of the cochlea?
    the cochlear duct (scala media)
  84. What is the membrane attached to the tympanic canal at the base of the cochlea?
    the round window (cochlear window)
  85. What are the individual sensory receptors of the cochlea?
    hair cells
  86. What is the functional unit of the cochlea?
    the spiral organ (organ of Corti)
  87. Hair cells of the spiral organ are attached to what structure?
    the basilar membrane
  88. The stereocilia of the hair cells in the spiral organ are embedded in what structure?
    the tectorial membrane
  89. How are different frequency of sound detected?
    Various frequencies displace the basilar membrane at different locations along the length of the spiral organ
  90. How is the intensity of a sound coded by the spiral organ?
    the louder the sound, the more frequent the impulses to the brain
  91. What cranial nerve carries impulses from the spiral organ within the cochlea to the brain?
    the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
  92. Where within the brain is hearing perceived?
    the auditory cortices of the temporal lobes
  93. What are the two main categories of deafness?
    conduction deafness and sensorineural (perceptive) deafness
  94. What type of deafness involves an impairment of sound waves from the outer ear to the cochlea?
    conduction deafness
  95. What type of deafness an impairment of the transmission of nerve impulses from the cochlea to the auditory cortex?
    sensorineural deafness (nerve deafness)
  96. What is presbycusis?
    age-related deafness
  97. What type of energy is light?
    electromagnetic
  98. What is the range of wavelengths of visible light?
    400 to 700 nanometers
  99. What is the outer layer of the eyeball?
    the fibrous tunic
  100. What is the white, outer layer of the eyeball?
    the sclera
  101. What is the transparent, outer portion of the eyeball?
    the cornea
  102. Within the eyeball, what is the space anterior to the lens?
    the anterior cavity
  103. Within the anterior cavity of the eyeball what is the space anterior to the iris?
    the anterior chamber
  104. Within the anterior cavity of the eyeball, what is the space posterior to the iris?
    the posterior chamber
  105. What fills the anterior cavity of the eyeball?
    aqueous humor
  106. What is the pigmented muscle that controls the amount of light enter the eye?
    the iris
  107. What is the opening in the iris?
    the pupil
  108. What structure of the eye changes shape to focus images on the retina?
    the lens
  109. What structure encases the lens?
    the lens capsule
  110. What structure suspends the lens in position?
    the suspensory ligament
  111. What is continuous with the iris and the choroid and produces aqueous humor from it epithelium and contains smooth muscle to change the shape of the lens?
    the ciliary body
  112. What muscle works to change the shape of the lens?
    the ciliary muscle
  113. What structure absorbs aqueous humor?
    the scleral venous sinus (the canal of Schlemm)
  114. In what condition is aqueous humor inadequately reabsorbed leading to increased interocular pressure?
    glaucoma
  115. Within the eyeball, what is the space posterior to the lens?
    the posterior cavity (vitreous chamber)
  116. Within the eye, what is the gelatinous material posterior to the lens?
    vitreous humor
  117. What is the neural layer of the eyeball, that is the layer that holds the photoreceptors?
    the retina
  118. Within the eyeball, what is the pigmented layer which absorbs light?
    the choroid
  119. What portion of the retina is where nerve fibers pass on their way to the brain?
    the optic disc
  120. What is the blind spot of the eye?
    the optic disc
  121. When light passes from one medium into another of a different density it is bent. What is the term for this bending?
    refraction
  122. What two factors influence the degree of refraction?
    • the difference the densities of media light is passing through
    • the curvature of the interface between the media
  123. What is the part of the external world projected onto the retina?
    the visual field
  124. What happens to the visual field as it passes through the cornea and lens?
    It is turned upside down and backwards
  125. What is the ability of the eyes to keep an image focused on the retina as the distance between the eye and the object varies?
    accommodation
  126. What is the comparative shape of the lens when looking at distance objects (over 20 feet away)?
    thin
  127. What is the comparative shape of the lens when looking at objects that are close?
    thick
  128. What is the action of the ciliary muscle to make the lens thick when looking at close objects?
    It contracts
  129. What is the action of the ciliary muscle when looking at objects that are far away?
    It relaxes
  130. What is the shape of the ciliary muscle?
    It is a sphincter, that is, it is circular
  131. What term refers to the sharpness of vision?
    visual acuity
  132. What is the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced dots?
    resolving power
  133. What does it mean to have 20/20 vision?
    An individual with 20/20 vision sees at 20 feet what the average person sees at 20 feet
  134. What is the medical term for nearsightedness?
    myopia
  135. In what condition are near objects clearly seen, but distance object are not?
    nearsightedness (myopia)
  136. In what condition are distance object clearly seen, but near objects are not?
    farsightedness (hyperopia)
  137. What is the medical term for farsightedness?
    hyperopia
  138. What is the usual cause of hyperopia?
    the eyeball is too short
  139. What is the usual cause of myopia?
    the eyeball is too long
  140. What condition occurs when the cornea or lens are not perfeclty symmetrical?
    astigmatism
  141. What are the two types of photoreceptors of the eye?
    rods and cones
  142. Photoreceptors synapse with what type of cells?
    bipolar cells
  143. Bipolar cells of the retina synapse with photoreceptors and what cells which send fibers to the brain?
    ganglion cells
  144. What visual pigment is within rods?
    rhodopsin
  145. What type of visible light is not absorbed by rods?
    red
  146. What are the two components of rhodopsin that it breaks into when it absorbs light?
    retinaldehyde (retinene or retinal) and opsin
  147. What action occurs when rhodopsin absorbs light and breaks into its component parts?
    bleaching
  148. What are the two forms of retinal?
    the all-trans form and the 11-cis form
  149. Which form of reinal is attached opsin?
    11-cis
  150. Which form of retinal forms when light strikes rhodopsin?
    the all-trans form
  151. Where is the all-trans form of retinal transformed back into the 11-cis form?
    pigment epithelial cells
  152. What is the interaction between photoreceptors and pigment epithelial cells in which the all-trans form of retinal is converted to the 11-cis form?
    the visual cycle of retinal
  153. What is the gradual increase in photoreceptor sensitivity in low light?
    dark adaptation
  154. What is the action of photoreceptors in the dark?
    They release an inhibitory neurotransmitter which hyperpolarizes bipolar cells preventing them from depolarizing
  155. What depolarizes photoreceptors in the dark?
    Na+ channels remain open creating a dark current
  156. What causes photoreceptors to hyperpolarize in light?
    11-cis retinal converts to the all-trans form and dissociates from opsin. Opsin changes shape and causes G-proteins to dissociate thus activating an enzyme that converts cGMP to GMP. This conversion of cGMP to GMP closes Na+ channels and hyperpolarizes the cell
  157. What type of photoreceptor has a lower threshold to light and gives better night vision?
    rods
  158. What type of color vision do human have?
    trichromatic color vision
  159. What are the three types of cones?
    • blue (S cones, short-wavelength cones)
    • green (M cones, medium-wavelength cones)
    • red (L cones, long-wavelength cones)
  160. What region of the retina has the greatest visual acuity?
    the fovea centralis
  161. What larger region of the retina contains the fovea centralis?
    the macula lutea
  162. What type of photoreceptor occurs in the fovea centralis?
    only cones
  163. What is the ratio of cones to ganglion cells in the fovea centralis?
    1 to 1
  164. There are approximately 120 million rods and 6 million cones in each retina. Only about 1.2 million nerve fibers leave the eye. This illustrates that what phenomenon occurs between photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells?
    convergence
  165. Where on the retina does convergence not occur?
    the fovea centralis
  166. Which half of the visual field is transmitted to the same side of the brain as that side of the body the eye occurs on?
    the temporal (lateral) half
  167. Which half of the visual field is transmitted to the opposite side of the brain as that which the eye occurs on?
    the nasal (medial) half
  168. Within what structure does crossing over (decussation) of optic fibers occur?
    the optic chiasma
  169. In what part of the brain is vision perceived?
    the visual cortex of the occipital lobe

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