Pneumatics: How many automatic cabin pressure controllers are there?
Pneumatics: What does the Ditching button do?
A close signal is send to:
- The outflow valve
- Emergency Ram Air Inlet
- Avionic ventilation inlet and extract valves
- Pack flow control valves
If the pressurization mode selector is in MAN the outflow alve needs to be closed manually
Pneumatics: What is the Outflow Valve Position with the aircraft on the ground?
Pneumatics: During climb, cabin ROC is a function of what
A fixed pre-programmed law which takes into account the aircrafts actual ROC
Pneumatics: When do CPC's (Cabin Pressurization Controllers) automatically change over?
70 econd after each landing or if the operating system fails
Pneumatics: What causes a FAULT light to illuminate in the MODE SEL (airco/press)?
A fault in both automatic systems (CPC's)
Pneumatics: What causes a safety valve to operate?
A too high (>8.6 PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient) cabin pressure
Pneumatics: Following structural failure at high altitude, what are the immediate actions?
- Crew Oxygen Masks (above FL100) ON
- Turn ALT sel knob & pull
- Turn HDG sel knob & pull
- Set target spd/ mach
- Descent (THR levers IDLE - SPD BRK FULL - Speed max)
- Notify ATC
Pneumatics: In the 'GROUND' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation? (AiRCO/PRESS)
The open configuration
Pneumatics: In the 'GROUND' mode at low skin air temperatures, wich configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)
The closed circuit
Pneumatics: In the 'FLIGHT' mode at high skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
The intermediate configuration
Pneumatics: In the 'FLIGHT' mode at low skin air temperatures, which configuration is in operation (AIRCO/PRESS)?
The close circuit configuration
Pneumatics: What cause a BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT light to illuminate?
Blowing or extract pressure is low
Computer power supply fails
Smoke warning activated
Pneumatics: Which extra problem causes the BLOWER FAULT light to illuminate
Pneumatics: What happens when the BLOWER is switched to OVERRIDE?
The blower fan stops
System in closed circuit configuration
Pneumatics: What happens when the BLOWER AND EXTRACT are switched to override
Air flows from airconditioning system and the overboard. The external fan continues to run
Pneumatics: When might you have to put both witches to OVERRIDE?
When smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation air
Pneumatics: What causes the system to transit from the GROUND mode to the FLIGHT mode?
Take off power or lift off
Pneumatics: How many motors can drive the Out Flow Valves?
Pneumatics: When is cabin V/S displayed on the doors SD?
During flight phases 5,6 and 7
Pneumatics: What normally supplies the pressurisation system with the landing information
Pneumatics: What is the (approx) max ROD of the cabin in AUTO?
Pneumatics: What is the Outflow Valve position on the takeoff run?
A position for a rate of -400 f/min
Pneumatics: What happens to the Out Flow Valve after touchdown?
After 55 seconds it opens with 500 f/min to 0 difference
Pneumatics: What is the Out Flow Valve position on the takeoff run?
ECAM: What does 'INDEPENDANT OPERATION' displayed in both MCDU scratchpads mean?
The cross talk function is lost, each FMGC will work independantly, the same entries have to be made on both MCDUs
ECAM: What is meant by independant/ primary/ secondary failures?
Independant = Affects an isolated system and does not degrade system
Primary = Causes also loss of other systems
Secondary = System that is inoperative due to primary failure
ECAM: When is the STS S.D. automatically called other than during ECAM drill?
During slat selection during approach (config 1)
ECAM: What happens if a caution is present when a warning is triggered?
The warning is shown first (the system will prioritize)
ECAM: On the right side of the E/WD, systems can be shown in amber with/ without a star. What does this mean?
A star means it is a secondary failure due to a primary failure
ECAM: During APU start, what happens to the SD, and the light on the ECAM control panel?
APU System display is shown during start
APU button on ECP is not on
ECAM: Pressing the RCL button (for more than 3 seconds) on the ECP does what?
Any caution message that is cancelled by pressing the Emergency PB is shown on the ECAM
ECAM: Presing the RCL button for less than 3 seconds does what?
It will recall all caution/ warnings that have been cleared in a normal process by pushing the CLEAR button
ECAM: What happens on the SD when the ENG MODE SEL is placed at START?
Engine page will be displayed on the SD
ECAM: When does the T/O MEMO appear on the E/WD?
2 minutes after 2nd engine start or if one engine is running and T/O config is implemented & pushing the CONFIG TEST PB
ECAM: What is the effect of pressing the T/O CONFIG button?
It will simulate the application of t/o power and test if all systems are set correctly
ECAM: What causes the ENG SD to be auto selected on T/O?
Selecting T/O power untill climb power / slat retraction
ECAM: When does the T/O inhibit message appear op the E/WD?
T/O power up to 1500 feet or untill 2 minutes after take off
ECAM: How does the ALL button work?
Pressed it cycles through all system pages at a one second interval
ECAM: When does the LDG INHB messag appear on the E/WD?
Below 2000 feet up to 80 kts after landing (phase 7 and 8)
EIS RE-CONFIG: If the CPT's left EFIS screen fails, how can the ND be displayed?
Pushing the PFD/NF XFR button will replce the ND for the PFD
EIS RE-CONFIG: In Single ECAM screen oepration, how can a S.D. be displayed?
By pressing and holding the requiered system page PB
EIS RE-CONFIG: In single ECAM screen operation, how long can a SD be displayed?
Maximum of 3 minutes
EIS RE-CONFIG: What should you do if both ECAM screens fail?
Change the ECAM/ ND XFR selector to FO or CAPT and the upper ECAM will be visible on the ND
EIS RE-CONFIG: With one ECAM screen failed, how is an ADV shown?
The letters ADV will appear on the E/WD in the memo section and by presing the SYST button on the ECP
EIS RE-CONFIG: Pressing EMER CANX does what?
Cancels master caution, warning lights and aural warnings (ECAM not affected but all amber warnings will be canceled for the remainder)
EIS RE-CONFIG: How can a CANX CAUT be returned to the system?
Press recall button for more than 3 seconds
EIS RE-CONFIG: What does the speed trend arrow tell you?
Speed in 10 seconds on a constant acceleration.
EIS RE-CONFIG: What is signified by the IAS target being magenta or blue?
Blue is selected, Magenta managed
EIS RE-CONFIG: What does SRS stand for? and what does it do?
Speed reference system. It controls pitch to maintain a vertical path.
EIS RE-CONFIG: When does the SRS speed target change automatically?
In case of an engine failure and at acceleration altitude
EIS RE-CONFIG: What is signified by F and S speeds?
F = Minimum flap retraction speed
S = Minumum slat retraction speed
EIS RE-CONFIG: What is Green Dot speed?
Speed for best lift to drag ration (the engine out operating speed in clean configuration)
EFIS: On the Altitude strip, a vertical red line appears on short finals. What information does it give?
Ground reference/ field elevation (it appears below 570')
EFIS: IF the FMA and ALT targets have magenta indications, what does this represent?
There is an altitude constraint with the contraining altitude in magents above the altitude tape (differs from FCU alt)
EFIS: What happen to the R.O.D. indication if n excessive R.O.D is flown?
The vertical speed indication becomes amber:
<2500 and 1000 RA >2000 f/min
Below 1000 >1200 f/min
EFIS: How is the actual track of the aircraft represented?
A green diamond
EFIS: What information is given by the FPV?
The lateral and vertical trajectory of the aircraft with respect to the gorund (track and angle)
EFIS: What is always below the FPV?
Navigation Display: The wind arrow and digits indicate what?
Arrow = wind direction magnetic
Digits = wind direction (true) and wind speed
Navigation Display: How can VOR beam bars be displayed?
By selecting ROSE VOR mode
Navigation Display: What colours are used for VOR/ADF indications?
ADF = Green
VOR = White
Navigation Display: What does an underscored M (next to a VOR or ADF indication) mean?
That the station is manually tuned by the pilot through MCDU
Navigation Display: Exactly what info is displayed at the top right of the ND?
To waypoint (ident), track, distance, ETA
Navigation Display: What provides the ND with the Groundspeed and TAS info?
Air Data and Inertial Reference System (ADIRS)
Navigation Display: On the ND the TO waypoint is what colour?
Navigation Display: In the plan mode, which waypoint is in the center of the ND?
The selected MAP reference point in the MCDU (2nd line in flightplan)
PFD: If on the PFD the altitude bug is 5000'(blue), where else will 5000' be displayed?
On the FCU
Recorders: When in AUTO does the recorder run?
1.5 minute after electrical power is supplied or when at least one engine is running (up to 5 minutes after engine shutdown)
Recorders: What is the EVENT button used for?
To set an event mark after an inflight event for ease of location finding on the DFDR tape
Flight Management MCDU: On the Init A page, exactly which LAT/LONG appears after a city pair is entered?
The departure aerodrome Airfield Reference Point
Flight Management MCDU: What does a triangle mean after a waypoint?
Overfly the waypoint
Flight Management MCDU: What does pressing the airport button do on the MCDU?
MCDU will show next airport, 2nd push alternate airport, 3rd push departure airport
Flight Management MCDU: What is signified by amber boxes on the MCDU?
Data insertion is mandatory
Flight Management MCDU: What happens to INIT B after engine start? How can you change weights etc in the MCDU?
INIT B will not be available anymore 15 seconds after engine start
Via the FUEL PRED page
Air Conditioning: What does a Pack Controller do?
Controls the pack flow control valve for temperature and flow demand
Air Conditioning: What tells the Packs what their output temperature should be?
The lowest demanding zone controller
Air Conditioning: What could cause the Pack flow to be higher that that selected on the overhead panel?
1. APU use only
2. Single Pack operation
3. When LO is selected but insufficient to meet demand
Air Conditioning: What controls the Trim Air Valves?
The zone controller
Air Conditioning: The Zone Temperature Controller can be et to what range of temperatures?
18 - 30 degrees Celcius
Air Conditioning: After engine start, the APU bleed is switched off; what happes to the various valves?
1. Bleed vaes - Open
2. APU valve - Close
3. Pack valve - Normal
4. Crossbleed valve - Close
Air Conditioning: What happens when the Ram Air Valve is opened?
Ambient air is delivered to mixer unit
If cabin pressure is below 1 PSI, outflow valve 50% (if not in manual)
Air Conditioning: What happens when a duct overheat occurs?
The hot air pressure regulating valves & trim air valves automatically close
Air Conditioning: If the zone controller fails completely, what controls the temperatures? What message is displayed on the SD?
The anti ice valve will control the temperature and no ECAM signals present
Air Conditioning: What limitations apply to opening of the Ram Air Valve?
Open is the cabin pressure is less than 1 PSI
Air Conditioning: What is the 12 o Clock setting of the temperature controller for the cargo?
15 degrees celcius
Air Conditioning: When do the Pack Ram Air Inlet and Outlet flaps close?
During take off (t/o thrust untill lift off) and landing (touchdown up to 70 kts)
Air Conditioning: How are the zone temperatures individually controlled?
By use of the Trim Air Valves
Air Conditioning: What happens to the airconditioning system during engine start?
The pack flow control valve will close
Air Conditioning: When does a Pack overheat FAULT light (on the overhead panel) extinguish?
When the overheat situation disappeared
Fire Protection: How many fire bottles per engine/ APU?
2 bottles for each engine, 1 bottle for APU
Fire Protection: What happens if a lavatory waste bin catches fire?
A self actuated halon extinguisher is discharged in the bin when the temperature reaches 79 degrees Celcius
Fire Protection: How many fire bottles for CARGO fire extinguishing?
Fire Protection: What are the indications for an APU FIRE test?
- Master Warning Light illuminates
- Continuous repetitive chime
- APU fire PB sw illuminated
- APU fire warning on ECAM
Fire Protection: What are the indications for an ENG FIRE test?
- Master warning
- Continuous repetitive chime
- Eng Fire PB illuminated
- Squib and DISCH light illuminated
- Fire LT on eng control panel illuminated
- Engine Fire warning on ECAM E/WD
Fire Protection: A red disc in the aircraft skin near the APU indicates what?
It is servicable/ not discharged
Fire Protection: What happens when a FIRE switch is released?
Arms fire ext squibs and illuminates Squib lights
Fire Protection: Agent DISCH (amber) indicates what?
Low bottle pressure
Fire Protection: During cargo smoke test, how many DISCH lights are illuminated?
Fire Protection: When does the AVIONICS SMOKE indication dissapear?
Smoke no longer detected
Fire Protection: Is fire detection available if a loop fails?
Yes, the remaining loop operates independantly. The FDU generators a fire warning when a fire is detected in the operative loop
Fire Protection: What happens if both loops fail within 5 seconds?
A fire warning will be generated, it could be both loops burned completely through
Fire Protection: On the external fire panel, what does the APU SHUT OFF switch do?
Silences external horn and confirms auto extinguishing of the APU & discharges the bottle
Fuel: What do the transfer valves do?
They allow the transfer of fuel from the outer wing to the inner wing tank.
Fuel: REFUELG on the E/WD means what?
The fuselage refueling control panel door is open
Fuel: What does CTR TK FEEDG mean on the E/WD?
At least one center tank pump is energized
Fuel: What causes before T/O the CTR pumps to automatically shut down?
Fuel: When do the CTR pumps resume operation after T/O when they have been shut down?
After slat retraction
Fuel: How are the IDG's cooled?
Fuel: How is space made, in the wing tanks, to receive fuel from the IDG cooling system when the CTR tank is not empty?
When wing tank is overfull, the CTR tank pumps are on, when wing tank is underfull, the CTR tank pumps are off.
Fuel: How many transfer valves?
Fuel: When do the transfer valves open?
They open automatically when the inner tank fuel reaches low level, enabling the fuel to drain from outer to inner tank.
Fuel: What is indicated by OUTER TK FUEL XFRD on the E/WD?
One more transfer valve opens
Fuel: What is indicated by a half box (amber) on the FUEL quantity on the E/WD?
Displayed quantity is not all useable
Fuel: On the SD what is indicated by the FOB being boxed (amber)?
Part of fuel is not useable
Fuel: On the SD what is indicated by a tank fuel quantity indication being boxed amber?
All fuel is not useable
Fuel: The amber dashes through a fuel quantity indicates what?
The FQIC is in a degraded mode. Loss of accuracy is between +/- 20 kilo's to +/- 400 kilo's
Fuel: With tanks full and all pumps ON, which tank(s) is (are) feeding the engines?
Center fuel tanks
Fuel: What is indicated on the SD, by a fuel pump indication of cross line (green)
Correct situation for auto operation
Fuel: What is the minimum fuel quantity for take off?
1500 Kg's (no wing tank low level on ECAM)
Power Plant: When, and for how long, are FADEC's powered during cockpit preperation?
When the aircraft is first powered up for 5 minutes
Power Plant: When are the FADEC's next powered after first power up?
When the engine mode selector is put to start
Power Plant: On the EGT, what does the amber tick indicate?
Max EGT index
Power Plant: When is the fuel used set to zero?
When the engine master switch is set to the ON position
Power Plant: What happens at 50% N2 (during start)?
Starting valve closes and igniter off (if on the ground)
Power Plant: How can you tell that the start sequence has finished?
The N2 grey box is back to black
Power Plant: On the N1 or EPR, when may a cyan arc appear? What does it mean?
When the E/THR is engages, the difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust
Power Plant: When does IDLE flash (between the EPR gauges)?
When both engines are at idle
Power Plant: What does REV in amber and green indicate?
Amber: Any one reverse door is unstowed or unlocked
Green: All four doors are fully deployed
Power Plant: What does FADEC do during a manual start?
- Opens/ closes start valve
- Opens fuel valves
- operates ignition (both)
- No autostart abort
Power Plant: What do the MAN START switches control?
Opening of the start valves
Power Plant: What happens when the MASTER switch is selected ON?
LP Fuel valve opens
HP Fuel valve opens
Igniters come on
>N2 50% valves closes
Power Plant: What closes the start valve and when?
FADEC, when 50%N2
Power Plant: What causes the FAULT light illuminate on the engine panel?
- Start valve fault
- An automatic start abort
- A disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and it's commanded position
Power Plant: What does FADEC do following a 'wet' automatic start?
It aborts the start, shuts down starter, igniters and HP valve and cranks the engine dry automatically
Power Plant: When the engine is running, what causes the igniters to operate automatically?
- T/O thrust set untill slats up after T/O
- Landing: slats 1 untill the landing
- With an engine failure
Power Plant: What does CHECK (amber) on the EGT/N1/N2/FF indicate?
There is a discrepancy between the values on the FADEC DMC bus and the displayed values
Power Plant: What does the CRANK position of the MODE SEL do?
It cranks the engine qithout ignition
Doors: How long are the escape ropes?
Long enough to reach the ground from either side of the aircraft
Doors: What are the indications, on the doors SD, of slides armed disarmed?
The SLIDE legend appears next to the door on the ECAM page to indicate the slides are armed (in white letters)
Doors: What is the maximum speed for opening a cockpit window?
Doors: What is the maximum wind speed for a cabin door?
Cabin Equipment: What deploys the overwing escape slide?
Removal/ opening of the overwing emergency exit doors
Cabin Equipment: What do the whie indicator and red indicator (below the door window) signify?
White: Slide is armed
Red: residual cabin pressure is present
Cabin Equipment: What happens when a door is opened from the outside?
It disarms the door and escape slide automatically
Cabin Equipment: What happens if the EVA switch is to CPT only, and the purser initiates an EVAC command from the cabin?
The alers may only be activated from the cockpit. If one of the cabin CMD's is pressed only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
Flight Controls: What is indicated by a blue line on the rudder part of the SD?
The rudder trim position
Flight Controls: What does the Rudder Travel Limiter do?
It limits the deflection of the rudder as a function the speed (between 160 and 380 kts)
Flight Controls: Which spoilers are used for ROLL/ GD SPOIL/ SPEEDBRAKES
Ground spolers: 1-2-3-4-5
How many SFCC's? How many channels?
2 SFCC's. Each SFCC has a channel for slat and for flaps (2 channels each)
Flight Controls: What happens if both sidesticks are moved at the same time?
- The inputs are additive
- Aural warning 'DUAL INPUT'
- Both green lights flash
What happens if a sidestick priority button is pressed and held down? What happens if a sidestick priority button is held down for more then 40 seconds?
1) It deactivates the other sidestick
2) The other sidestick is latched out and the pb can be released without losing priority
How is a de-activated sidestick re-activated?
By pressing the priority pb
Flight Controls: What is demanded by a roll/ pitch input on the sidestick?
Roll: A rate of roll/ Pitch: a load factor
Flight Controls: What happens to the flight path angle of the aircraft if the sidestick is put at neutral?
Flight Controls: What are the protections available?
- Load factor
- Pitch attitude
- Angle of attack
- High speed
- Bank angle
- low energy
- load alleviation
- Roll attitude
- Alpha protection
Flight Controls: What are the G protection limits?
Flaps up: -1G / +2.5G
Flaps ext: 0G / +2.0G
Flight Controls: What are the pitch attitude limits?
Nose up (config 0-3) 30 degrees/ 25 degrees (lowspeed)
Nose up (config full) 25 degrees/ 20 degrees (low speed)
Nose down 15 degrees
Flight Controls: What is the lowest speed achievable with the sidestick fully back?
Flight Controls: In Alpha prot. what does sidestick movement command?
It commands Angle of Attack
Flight Controls: What happen if, at alpha max, the sidestick is released neutral?
The AoA will return to Alpha prot
Flight Controls: What happens if, in HI SPD protection, the sidestick is pushed forward?
Flight Controls: What happens to the FD/FMA if more than 45 degr. bank is applied?
Flight directors disappear and assiociated FMA. It reappears when the bank angle is reduced
Flight Controls: What is the maximum bank angle 'hands off'?
Flight Controls: What is inhibited at more than 33 degrees?
Auto trim (pitch compensation)
Flight Controls: How do pitch/roll control in Alternate law compare with normal law? What happens to turn coordination? What happens when the gear is put down?
Pitch remains the same, Roll as in direct law - a higher rate of roll. Turn coordination is lost and the pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals. When gear comes down, the aircraft goes into Direct law.
Flight Controls: What happens to Pitch and Roll protection in Alternate law?
They are lost
Flight Controls: Alpha protection is lost in alternate law. What replaces it? And what is the top of the barber pole now showing?
Replaced by a red/black barbers pole and the top is Vsw (still warning speed)
Flight Controls: In alternate law, what happens at Vsw?
A gentle nose down signal is introduced and stall warning "STALL' and crickets are heard
Flight Controls: In alternate law, can you stall the aircraft?
Yes, Alpha protection is inop
Flight Controls: Is Alpha floor available in Alternate law?
Flight Controls: In alternate law, how does HI SPD stability work? Can it be overridden?
Above Vmo or Mmo a nose up demand is introduced. it can be overridden.
Flight Controls: In direct law, control deflection is proportional to what?
Flight Controls: Are there any protections/ stabilities in direct law?
There are no protections available
Flight Controls: What is indicated (amber) on the FMA's in direct law?
USE MAN PITCH TRIM
Flight Controls: How is all yaw controlled in direct law?
By use of the rudder pedals
Flight Controls: What causes reversion to Mechanical Back Up?
A temporary loss of electrical power and loss of all ELAC's and SEC's
Flight Controls: What appears on the FMA in red in Mechanical back up?
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY
Flight Controls: How is pitch controlled in Mechanical Back up?
Flight Controls: How is roll controlled in Mechanical Back up?
By use of the rudders
Flight Controls: In the ground mode (normal law), flight control movement is proportional to what?
Side stick deflection
Flight Controls: After T/O (flaps 3), what is the next flap selection?
Flight Controls: How does automatic flap retraction work?
With config 1+F set, the flaps retract to 0 automatically at 210 Kts (bfeore Vfe)
Flight Controls: Is there any automatic slat retraction?
Flight Controls: What is the max speedbrake available with A/P engaged?
Half speedbrake lever deflection
Flight Controls: What is Vfe NEXT? How is it represented?
Vfe NEXT is the Vfe corresponding to the next flap lever position. It is represented by an amber =
Flight Controls: Descending through 30 ft RA on the approach, what happens to pitch control?
The aircraft will automatically pitch down from the attitude it was on at 50ft to -2 degrees in 8 seconds. This is to achieve a normal flare technique for the pilot
Flight Controls: What triggers ground spoiler deployment?
Weight on wheels and thrust to idle
Flight Controls: What happens tot the spoilers if a GA is performed after touchdown?
Automatically retracted when at least one thrust lever is advanced to 20 degrees
Flight Controls: How many hydraulic actuators are there for the AIL/ELEV/RUDDER?
Flight Controls: If both ELAC's fail, how is roll control achieved?
Flight Controls: If both elevators are faulty, what happens to them?
Go into centering mode
Flight Controls: What happens if a spoiler fault is detected?
Symmetrical spoiler is inhibited
Flight Controls: What happens to a spoiler that loses hydraulic pressure?
The spoiler retains the deflection it had at the time of the loss or lesser deflection if aerodynamic forces push it down.
Flight Controls: What happens if both channels of an SFCC fail?
Slats and flaps both operate at half speed
Flight Controls: On the spoiler indications, an amber triangle means what?
Spoiler fault detected
Flight Controls: What are the initial actions in the event of a rejected takeoff?
- Call stop
- Thrust levers IDLE
- Reverse thrust MAX AVAIL
- Parking brake ON
- Crew announcement CREW AT STATIONS
Ice and Rain: Which part of the wing is anti/iced=
Ice and Rain: Where does engine anti ice air come from?
The high pressure compressor
Ice and Rain: What happens if there is no electrical control of the engine anti-ice valve?
The valve opens automatically
Ice and Rain: What happens if there is no electrical control of the Wing Anti Ice valve?
Ice and Rain: Which probes are not heated on the ground?
Ice and Rain: What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
Lights: Which lights are located on the nosewheel?
Taxi and takeoff lights and runway turn off lights
Lights: What happens to the lights on the nosewheel when the gear is retracted?
The lights will go off regardless of switch position
Lights: What are the wing lights for?
To help determine if ice is building up on the leading edge and engine intakes
Lights: What is the status of the landing lights in the OFF position?
The landing lights are off, but extended
Oxygen: 1) What should you do if the oxygen pressure indications has a half-box (amber)? 2) And if REGUL LO PR is indicated?
1)Refer to FCOM 3 limitations, to check if pressure is sufficient for the flight (<1500psi)
2)The pressure is too low for flight
Oxygen: How is emergency oxygen flow tested?
By pressing the Reset/Test control slide and the emergency pressure selector simultaneously and observe sound of oxygen flow and blinker.
Oxygen: Squeezing the red clips does what?
Inflates the harnass
Oxygen: What is the significance of the OXY ON white flags?
The supply valve in the stowage compartment is still open.
Oxygen: on the OHP, SYS ON indicates what?
The passenger oxygen system has been activated
Oxygen: How do passengers initiate oxygen flow? How long does it last?
By pulling the mask toward the face, which releases a pin and starts the mechanical reaction. Approx. 13 minutes
Oxygen: How does the over pressure selector work?
It creates an overpressure, which elliminates condensation and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask.
Autoflight: Which FCU window is never dashed?
Autoflight: You are in a managed mach at high altitude. How do you change to selected speed?
1. Pull the FCU speed selector knob
2. Push the FCU spd/mach transfer button
Autoflight: What is the effect of pushing the APPR button on the FCU?
it arms/engages the ILS or NON-P approach
Autoflight: When do columns 2 and 3 share common modes?
LAND / FLARE / ROLLOUT
Autoflight: When is the auto pilot first available for use?
5 seconds after lift off or 100 ft RA
Autoflight: What happens to the FMA and IAS bug if auto pilots and FD's are switched off?
- FMA's will disappear
- Speedbug will indicate current speed (blue)
- A/THR reverts to speed/mach mode if it was engaged
Autoflight: If the A/P's and FD's are switched of and then back on again, what will the FMA show?
- Basic engagement mode: V/S-HDG or FPA-TRK
Auto thrust: With the A/THR active, actual thrust will be limited to what?
TLA. The maximum computet thrust for that setting
Auto thrust: When does ''LVR CLB'' flash on the FMA?
@ thrus reduction altitude to remind that CL needs to be selected
Auto thrust: In CL detent with A/THR on, what happens when the thrust levers are moved forward of the climb detent?
A/THR will become armed
Auto thrust: Why should A/THR be switched off on the instinctive buttons?
If switched off through FCU it will provide: A master caution / single chime / ecam message
Auto thrust:What happens if the A/THR instinctive buttons are held for more than 15 seconds?
Auto thrust will not be available for the remainder of the flight (untill next FMGC power up)
Autoflight: On the MCDU a * (magenta/amber) signifies?
- Magenta: A contstraint and that the prediciton will meet the contraint
- Amber: A constrains and that the prediction will NOT meet the constraint
Autoflight: If the HDG knob is pulled during a managed climb, what happens to the constraint and the FLPLAN indication on the ND?
revert to selected mode so constraints ignored and flightplan on ND will become dottet/dashed
Autoflight:In a CLB or DES, what happens in th A/THR FMA as soon as ALT* is shown in the vertical FMA?
Autoflight:What happens if you press the LS button on the FCU panel?
ILS scale will be represented on the PFD
Autoflight: What is displayed on the top centre of the ND?
Type of the selected approach
Autoflight: When is ILS tuning frozen?
@ 700 ft RA with APP mode armed or engaged (FD + A/P need to be engaged)
Autoflight: When does the ''LAND'' FMA appears and how can you get out of LAND mode?
- Below 400 ft RA
- Only by performing a go around
Autoflight: The descent profile should lead you to what IAS at 1000'above the rwy?
Autoflight: What does DECELERATE on the FMA mean?
If you are beyond TOD and above the vertical profile
Autoflight: What is signified by tge split speedbug in a managed descent?
A buffer to increase or decrease speed by + or - 20 kts to remain on the vertical profile
Autoflight: The message MORE DRAG on the FMA is due to?
A/C abover vertical profile and can not meet the next constraint
Autoflight: What causes the memo SPEEDBRAKE?
That speedbrake is extended with N1 above 50%
Autoflight: What happens to altitude indication on the PFD when the A/C goes below MDA?
The green altitude indication will change to amber
Autoflight: What is G/A TRK exactly?
That the track @ the toga engagement will be maintained during the go around
Autoflight: On a NON-P approach what happens if the APP button on the FCU is pressed?
It will arm the approach in ''FINAL APP''
Autoflight: On a managed NON-P approach what do the FMA show during final descent?
First ''FINAL APP'' and below MDA-50 ''FPA TRK'' because of A/P disconnect
Autoflight: On a NON-P approach what happens with A/P and FMA's if the a/c descends below MDA-50?
- A/P disconnects automatically
- FMA announce ''FPA TRK''
Autoflight: When will ''SPEED SPEED SPEED'' be heard? (every 5 sec)
When energy is below a certain threshold. Thrust is required to regain a positive flight path angle
Autoflight: What triggers ALPHA FLOOR and must the A/THR be engaged first?
- High angle of attack triggers aFOOR
- Side stick deflection >14�ANU
- A/THR will activate automatically
Autoflight: When is windshear protection available? When is it triggered and what do you see and hear?
- @ T/O from lift up to 1300 ft
- @ LDG from 1300 ft up to 50 ft
- Only in config 1,2,3, FULL
- Red ''WINDSHEAR'' message on the PFD (15 sec)
- 3x aural ''WINDSHEAR''
Autoflight: What is MINI GROUNDSPEED?
To make optimum use of the a/c inertia by maintaining a constant groundspeed
Autoflight: In an idle OP DES you fail to pitch down enough to follow the FD, what happens eventually?
- Both FD's disappear @ Vls-2
- OP DES will revert to SPEED mode
Autoflight: Climbing to FL250 (FCU): At FL225 the FCU is set to FL220. What happens?
- The vertical mode changes to V/S with current ROC
Autoflight: If only FD1 is switched off, what happens to the capt FMA's?
FD will disappear from captain side only
Autoflight: Before deliberately switching off the A/THR, you should line up what with what?
Allign the dounut with the current thurst setting
Autoflight: What happens if one of the FCU channels fail?
The second channel will take over all the functions
BLEED: How many BMC's are there and What happens if one of them fails?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers. If one fails the other can take over most of the functions
BLEED: How is the bleed air temperature regulated and to what temperature output?
- colled to 200�C through an air to air heat exchanger
BLEED: On the SD when is a GND triangle displayed?
Always when A/C is on the ground
BLEED: Which enginge bleed has priority? engine or apu?
APU and the engines
BLEED: Does the overhead panel fault light extinguish when temperature drops following an overheat?
Yes, it will go out automatically
Autoflight: What is signified by _ _ _ _� on the FCU?
Autoflight: What happens if you push the V/S knob?
An immediate level off
Autoflight: What generic information is displayed on the 3 FMA lines?
1. Engaged modes
2. Armed modes
3. Special messages
Autoflight: When should both A/P's should be on at the same time?
When the ILS is armed by pushing the APP button on FCU
Autoflight: Why should the A/P not be switched off on the FCU?
It generates warnings and ecam action is required
Autoflight: On the FMA's, 1FD2 or -F2 means?
FD 1 and 2 in use or only FD 2 in use
Autoflight: What do the FMA's read if a lower altitude is selected and the FCU alt knob is pulled?
''THR IDLE / OP DES''
Autoflight: What happens if you fly over a magenta circled ''D'' on the ND when in managed NAV?
The approach mode will activate automatically when in NAV, APPR NAV, LOC mode
Autoflight: What is the effect of activating the approach phase in the MCDU?
It will decellerate to green dot speed
Autoflight: At what radio altitude is ''RETARD'' heard?
- 10 ft RA for an autoland
- 20 ft RA for manual landing
Autoflight: In a managed descent the HDG knob is pulled. What will the vertical FMA announce and what will happen to ALT constraints?
- ''DES'' will revert to ''V/S'' (current v/s)
- contraints will be ingnored
Autoflight: How are the TOGA modes engaged?
By setting at least one thrust lever to TOGA detent
Autoflight: What is strung after a go around?
Another approach of the same type
IF the V.DEV in one dot fly-down, how high are you?
Autoflight: What is the minimum speed possible with A/THR on?
Autoflight: When is ALPHA FLOOR available?
From lift off untill 100 ft RA on the approach
Autoflight: On reaching ALPHA PROT, what tripps off?
@ APLHA PROT +1� the A/P will disconnect
Autoflight: What happens if you climb/descent with an excessive V/S?
It reverts to an OPEN CLIMB/DESCENT
Autoflight: When does the A/THR automatically switch on? Will it be armed or engaged?
- When reaching APLHA FLOOR and it will be engaged
Autoflight: What is meant by A/THR (blue/white) on the FMA?
- Blue = ARMED
- White = ENGAGED
Autoflight: What happens to A/THR if thrust levers are moved to idle?
A/THR will disconnect
Autoflight: In CLB/OP CLB you fail to pitch up enough to follow the FD. What happens eventually?
The A/C will accelerate and @ Vmax +4 the FD will disappear
Autoflight: What happens to the IAS bug if the FD's and A/P's are switched off?
It will become blue
Autoflight: What is meant by DUAL/SINGLE/INDEPENDANT modes?
- Dual = MCDU's crosscheck
- Single = Both MCDU's connected to the same FMGC
- Independant = MCDU's work separately
Autoflight: Both FCU's fail.
A. What is on the FMA = THR LK
B. How do you regain thrust control = Move levers manually
C. What is displayed bottom right PFD = Pressure (1013)
D What will happen to ND range/mode = Rose Nav 80NM
E. Which navaids can be displayed = VOR 1 & ADF 2
Autoflight: What happens to thrust when APLHA FLOOR is annunciated?
TOGA thrust automatically
APU: What happens if the START button is pressed immediately after the MASTER button is pressed?
Nothing until APU flap open. Thereafter it will start
APU: Why would the APU continue to run after being switched off?
A cooling down period
APU: What happens if excessive EGT is sensed?
It will automatically shut down
APU: What is the max altitude for a battery start?
APU: What causes the FLAP to open? What does the message FLAP OPEN mean exactely?
The MASTER switch will open the flap and it indicates that the flap is FULLY OPEN
APU: AVAIL light on the push button means?
APU is available (N=>99.5% or 2 seconds after N=95%)
APU: Auto shutdown is available during which flight phases?
APU: What would you do if the SD showed LO OIL LVL?
The APU can still run for 10 hrs.
APU: What are the APU pack limitation altitudes?
- 15.000 ft for 2 packs
- 22.500 ft for 1 pack
APU: What is the maximum altitude for other that a battery start?
APU: When will the aircraft automatically start a CLB/DESC from level flight?
After passing a constraint
Navigation: On theOHP what must be switched ON in order to get Air Data?
The rotary selector switches
Navigation: When does the ON BAT light illuminate?
Briefly during self test and when the ADIRS are on batteries only
Navigation: When does the ALIGN light flash?
1) Alignment fault
2) No present position is entered within 10 minutes after selecting navigate on selector switches
3) Position error with last known position (more than 1 degree of LAT/LONG)
4) Aircraft moved during alignment
Navigation: On the EFIS, where are ILS1 and ILS2 displayed?
ILS1 on PFD1 and ND2
ILS2 on PFD2 and ND1
Navigation: In the PLAN mode (ECP) what cannot be displayed on the ND?
Data on navaids and on their characteristics and associated bearing pointers
Navigation: What is displayed at the bottom corners of the ND?
Tuned navaid (AD/ VOR), DME, Mode of tuning (M/R), Bearing pointer symbol
Navigation: If both FMGS fail, how are navaids tuned?
Through the radio management panel (RMP) on the pedastal
Navigation: In RMP tuning, which navaids can be tuned from RMP1/RMP2 (and RMP3)?