Pathology II

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  1. In what disease of the bone do you see atriovenous fistulas leading to high cardiac output failure?
    Paget's diseas of bone
  2. Pagets is due to high activity of what cells?
    osteoblast and osteoclasts
  3. Mockenberg arteriosclerosis is due to what?
    calcification of the media layer of the BV
  4. What are the 3 types of arteriosclerosis?
    • MOckenberg calcific sclerosis
    • Hypertensive arteriosclerosis
    • atherosclerosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis of the intima level with fibrofatty plaques is called what?
  6. In the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis, smooth muscle cells migrate from what level to what level to form foam cells with macrophages?
    from media to intima
  7. In what kind of hypertension are end organs damaged?
    malignant hypertension
  8. Under what condition do you see concentric hypertrophy of the LV?
  9. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen as a result of what?
    HTN-where the high BP foces protein thru the endothelium
  10. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis(onion skinning) is seen in what type of HTN?
    Malignant hypertension
  11. Malignant Hypertension is what systolic and diastolic reading?
    • systolic >200
    • Diastolic >120
  12. Aneurysm?
    abnormal dilation of a bv wall due to weakening of the BV wall
  13. What are the 3 types of aneurysms?
    • saccular
    • fusiform
    • dissecting
  14. What are teh 3 consequences of an aneurysm?
    • rupture
    • thrombogenesis
    • compression of adjecent structures
  15. Why do AAA occur below the Renal arteries (L4)?
    because the vasa vasorum does not supply blood to that section of the aorta so poor blood supply = pool healing= weakening of the bv wall
  16. How much does the bv have to be occluded in order to hear a bruit?
  17. Mycotic abdominal aneurysms are caused by what organisms?
    • salmonella
    • gastroenteritis causng
  18. What organism causes obliterative endoarteritis of vasa vasorum?
    Treponema Pallidium--Tertiary stage
  19. What 2 congenital conditions are associated with a Berry Aneurysm?
    • PCKD
    • Coarctation of Aorta
  20. Berry Aneurysms occur at what site of the Circle of Willis?
    Bifurcation of the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral Artery
  21. What trace mineral is needed for lysyl oxidase for collagen synthesis?
  22. What happens to the mediastinum in an aortic dissection?
    Widening of the mediastinum
  23. Poly arteritis nodosa affects every organ except what?
  24. What 2 antigens could lead to PAN?
    • Hepatitis B
    • Amphetamines
  25. PAN is what type hypersensitivity?
  26. Lesions of different age are characteristic of what vasculitis?
  27. Asthma, eosinophilia and granulomas are characteristic of what vasculitis?
    Churg-Straus syndrome
  28. What 2 vasculitis have p-anca antigens?
    • churg-strauss syndrome
    • Microscopic polyangitis
  29. Kawasaki affects which blood vessels?
    coronary arteries
  30. Which vasculitis presents with a skin rash and lymphadenopathy
  31. Systemic vasculitis of URT and LRT is seen in what vasculitis?
    Churg-Strauss Syndrome
  32. Which 2 vasculitis are type III hypersensitivity?
    • PAN
    • Microscopic Polyangitis
  33. What are the drugs and bacteria that could precipitate microscopic polyangitis?
    • Drugs: penicillin, Sulfanamides
    • beta hemolytic streptococcal ag
  34. What vaculitis is associated with HLA-DR4?
    Giant cell arteritis
  35. Giant cell arteritis is associated with what disease?
    Polymyalgia rheumatica
  36. Which vasculitis is the pulseless disease?
  37. Which vasculitis follows the a URI?
    Henoch-Schloein Purpura
  38. Thromboangitis Obliterans is also known as what?
    Buerger disease
  39. What predisposes to Thromboangitis Obliterans?
  40. What is the difference between Good Pasture Syndrome and Wegener's Granulomatosis?
    Good pasture--no sinus involvement
  41. What anca is present in Wegener's Granulomatosis?
  42. What are the conditions that predispose to Raynauds Phenomenon
    • Thromboangitis Obliterans
    • Takayasu
    • Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
    • Cryoglobulinemia
    • CREST
    • Cold Glutinin Disease
    • Ergot poisoning
  43. IgA nephropathy causing vasculitis?
    Henoch-Schloeinin Purpura
  44. What is affects in Henoch-Schloein Purpura?
    • Skin
    • Joints
    • GI
  45. What 2 vasculitis have c-ANCA?
    • church-strauss syndrome
    • Microscopic polyangitis
  46. What 2 vasculitis are type III hypersensitivity?
    • PAN
    • MIcroscopic Polyangitis
  47. Primary varicose veins occur when?
    • valvular incompetence
    • weakened BV walls
  48. Esophageal Verices are seen under what condition?
    liver cirrhosis with portal hypertension
  49. Kaposi sarcoma is a frequency of what part of the skin?
  50. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by what virus?
  51. Angiosarcoma of the liver is associated with what 3 compounds?
    • Vinyl Chloride
    • Arsenic
    • Thorostat
  52. Strawberry hemangioma is a tumor found in what age group?
    children-capillary tumor--regresses spontaneously
  53. Cherry Hemangioma is a tumor found in what age group?
    • Elderly
    • Capillary tumor--does not regresses
  54. Where is pyogenic Granulomas usually found?
    • Skin
    • Gingival/oral mucosa
  55. What condition predisposes to Pyogenic Granuloma?
  56. Hemangioblastomas are usually associated with what syndrome?
    Von Hippel Syndrome
  57. Glomus tumor (Glomangioma) is located where?
    underneath the fingernails
  58. Kaposi sarcoma presents with what ?
    Red purple skin plaques on extremeties but could also be on viscera
  59. Chronic or Immunosuppresed Kaposi Sarcoma spreads to viscera?
    Immunocompromised and skin lesions may be absent
  60. Cystic Hygroma is associated with what Syndrome?
    Turne Syndrome
  61. Which tumor has a staghorn vascular pattern?
  62. What is calculus?
    mineralized bacterial plaque
  63. Difference between gingivitis and Perdiodontitis?
    • Gingivitis-inflammation of soft tissue surrounds the gums
    • Periodontitis--inflammation of
    • periodontal ligament
    • alveolar bone
    • cementum
  64. Pyogenic granuloma is a hemangioma of what?
  65. What can predispose to pyogenic Granuloma?
    • Pregnancy
    • Trauma
  66. Where does pyogenic granuloma normally occur
    • skin
    • Gingival/oral mucosa
  67. Inflammation/glossitis occurs in what vitamin deficiency?
    Vitamin B ---most of them, cobalamin, niacin, pyridoxine
  68. What is the Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?
    • Dysphagia
    • Iron-deficiency anemia
    • Glossitis
  69. Peripheral Giant cell Granuloma is caused by what?
    Where does it appear?
    chronic inflammation
  70. What caues Apthous Sores (canker sores)?
  71. What test detects herpes?
    Tzanck test
  72. What does the Tzanck test detect?
    multinucleated Giant cells and Intranuclear inclusions
  73. Oval yeast like budding cells and pseudohyphae are characteristic of what fungi?
    Candida Albicans
  74. What are the 3 types of Candidiasis?
    • pseudomembrane
    • erythomateus
    • hyperplastic
  75. Who gets white plaque lesions---Hairy Leukoplakia?
  76. What causes Hairy Leukoplakia?
  77. What aspect of the tounge is Hairy Leukoplakia on?
    Lateral Aspect
  78. Ballooning of squamous cells in upper epithelium is characteristic of what oral condition?
    Oral Hairyleukoplakia
  79. What predisposes to Leukoplakia?
    • Abrasions to the buccal Mucosa i.e
    • smoking
    • alcohol
    • spicy foods
  80. Which conditions of the tounge can turn malignant?
    • Leukoplakia
    • Erythroplakia
  81. 95% of the time oral cancer is of what origin?
    Squamous cell Carcinoma
  82. Keratin pearls are characteristic of what type of cancer?
    Squamous cell Carcinoma
  83. What causes nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
  84. Remnant of the Thyroglossal Duct is called?
    Foramen Caecum
  85. What is the epithelium of the Thyroglossal duct above the hyoid bone?
    • above-squamous
    • below--ciliated columnar
  86. Which types of HPV give rise to benign lesions?
    6 and 11
  87. Reactive vocal cord nodule arises from bc of what stimulation?
    • chronic smokers
    • singer- or those who strain their vocal cords
    • Never give rise to tumors
  88. Juvenile Laryngeal Papillomatosis is caused by what?
    HPV 6 and 11
  89. Abestosis gives rise to what common cancer?
    second common?
    • bronchogenic carcinoma
    • Mesothelioma
  90. 95% of Larynx carcinoma are of what origin?
    squamous cell carcinoma
  91. What is the etiology of Larynx carcinoma?
    • smoking
    • EtOH
    • Irradiation
    • Asbestosis
    • HPV
  92. Dry eyes, Dry mouth, Parotitis and Arthritis is what syndrome?
    Sjogren Syndrome
  93. Dry eyes, dry mouth is what syndrome?
    Sica syndrome
  94. What antibodies are present in Sjogren syndrome?
    • Rho-anti-SSA
    • La -anti SSB
  95. What are the complication of Mumps?
    parotitis, Meningitis, Orchitis, pancreatitis
  96. What autoimmune disorder is associated with Sjogren?
    Rheumatoid Arthritis
  97. Most common benign salivary gland tumor?
    Pleiomorphic(mixed) adenoma
  98. What is meant by Mixed tumor(Pleiomorphic)
    epithelial/mesenchymal components
  99. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?
    • telangiectasia
    • Epistaxis
    • AVM
  100. cardiac rhabdomyosarcoma and hamartomas of CNS seen in what syndrome?
    Tuberous Sclerosis
  101. Port wine stain in V1 opthalmic region is part of what syndrome?
    Sturge-Weber syndrome
  102. What 2 conditions can cause lung hypoplasia?
    • oligohydramnios
    • renal abnormalities in utero
  103. Bronchogenic cystis a detached what primitive structure?
    primitive foregut
  104. Which is the more common, with large cysts and good prognosis?
    congenital pulmonary artery malformation?
  105. What are the the different types of atelectasis?
    • obstructive--copd-mediastinum moves toward the affected lung
    • Compressive---pleural effusion, pneumothorax--mediastinum moves away from the affected lung
    • Patchy--loss of surfactant--NRDS or ARDS
    • Contraction--fibrosis due to infection/Tb
  106. Which atelectasis is irriversible?
  107. WHat is the difference between typical and atypical pneumonia?
    • typical--consolidation in lobe/lung--sputum
    • s. pneumonia
    • Atypical--interstitial involvement-
    • viruses
    • chlamydia pneumoniae
    • Mycoplasma pneumonia
    • Legionella
  108. Community acquired pneumonia is by what bacteria?
    what is seen on the gram stain?
    • s. pneumonia
    • lancet diplococci
  109. Bacteria causes pneumonia and meningitis in kids?
    H. influenza-coccoid rod
  110. Bacteria in elderly pt with pneumonia?
    Moraxella catarrhalis
  111. 3 bacteria causes otits media in kids?
    • s. pneumonia
    • h. influenza
    • M.catarrhalis
  112. Pneumonia in chronic etoh users?
  113. secondary pneumonia in kids and adults after a viral infection?
    staph. aureus
  114. Cause of nocosomial pneumonia and IV drug user pneumoniae?
    staph. aureus
  115. Elevated cold agglutinins are found in what type of Pneumonia?
    atypical with interstitial infiltrate
  116. What is Reye syndrome?
    • hepatoencephalopathy with aspirin use after a influenza or VZV infection
    • bc aspirin inhibits beta oxidation in liver--liver becomes fatty---no plasma proteins...reduced oncotic pressure..edema in brain..encephalopathy?
  117. Aspiration abscess usually occurs where inthe lung?
    rt lower lobe
  118. Lung abscess occurs when?
    • secondary to obstruction
    • secondary to septic emboli
    • secondary to s. aureus
    • aspiration
  119. Under what 3 conditions are night sweats present?
    • hodgkin lymphoma
    • TB
    • Takayasu vasculitis
  120. Which conditions produce cavitation in the lung?
    • silicosis
    • TB
    • aspergillus
  121. Which pneumoconicosis predisposes to TB?
  122. What is Pott's disease?
    miliary TB in the vertebra
  123. What Obstructive lung disease gives a blue bloater?
    chronic bronchitis
  124. What obstructive lung disease gives a pink puffer?
  125. Reid index measures the thickness of the mucus glands to the width of the epithelium to the cartilage and indicates what condition?
    chronic bronchitis
  126. Chronic bronchitis can lead to what 3 consequences?
    • infections
    • cor pulmonale
    • carcinoma because of metaplasia and dysplasia
  127. What happens in emphysema?
    distruction of elastin= septa resulting in enlarged air spaces
  128. What are teh different types of emphysema?
    • pancinar--alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency--uniform in
    • centricinar--smoking associated--central part of b
    • septal-- enlargerement of distal parts of alveolus--
  129. Which emphysema type is associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis?
  130. WHich type of emphysema can lead to bullae which can spontaneously rupture and lead to pneumothorax?
  131. What are the 2 types of asthma?
    • extrinsic--allergic-hypersensitivity
    • intrinsic---idiopathic--cold,
  132. What are curshman spirals?
    where is it seen in?
    • epithelial cells wrapped in mucus plugs
    • asthma
  133. What happens to the morphology of the airways in asthma?
    • hypertroph of goblet cells
    • inflammation
    • edema
    • hypertrophy of smooth muscle
    • thickened basement membrane
  134. What is bronchiectasis?
    dilation of alveoli due to an obstruction--copd, chronic bronchitis, necrotizing pneumonia, CF, kartageners which leads to inflammation and progressive destruction of the alveolus
  135. What is the MCC in COPD?
  136. Honey comb lung on X ray indicates what?
    restrictive interstitial disease
  137. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is caused by what?
    repeated cycles of injury and healing with increased collagen deposition and ensuing fibrosis
  138. Pneumoconicosis are caused by what 3 compounds?
    • Asbestos
    • Silica
    • coal
    • berillium
  139. What is caplan syndrome?
    Rheumatoid nodules + COAL workers pneumoconicosis
  140. Coal and silica affect what part of the lung?
    upper part
  141. what pneumoconicosis caused eggshell dystrophic calcificatio of the hilar lymph nodes?
  142. What effect does silica have on the function of the phagolysosome?
    inhibits it thus predisposing the pt to Tb and carcinoma bc of inefficient macrophage activity
  143. What conditions does asbestosis cause in the lung?
    • plauqes-calcified
    • pleural effusion/interstitial fibrosis
    • bronchogenic carcinoma
    • mesothelioma
  144. Ferriginous body is indicative of what interstitial lung disesae?
  145. What are the features of Sarcoidosis
    • Gammaglobulinemia
    • RA
    • ACE high
    • Interstitial fibrosis
    • Non caseating granulomas
  146. What cell population is abundant in the lung in sarcoidosis?
    TH4 cells
  147. Whats a marker of disease in sarcoidosis?
  148. What HLA associationg with sarcoidosis?
    HLA A1 and B8
  149. IN sarcoidosis there is anergy to what 2 organisms?
    • candida
    • ppd
  150. WHa is characteristic for sarcoidosis on xray?
    bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  151. Shaumann bodies and asteroid bodies are seen in what restrictive lung diseases?
  152. What are 3 types of hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
    • farmers lung--inhalation of actinomyces spores from hay
    • Pigeon breeders lung--inhalation of pigeon excreta
    • Humidifier and air conditioned--thermophilic spores of bacteria
  153. What happens is ARDS?
    alveolar and capillary damage
  154. In NRDS and ARDS what is deposited in the alveoli that prevents oxygen diffusion?
    hyaline membrane because of diffuese inflammation and fibrosis
  155. What shoudl be the sphinogomyelin to lecithin ration?
    at least 2
  156. Iron laiden macrophages (heart failure cells) are seen in what condition?
    pulmonary edema due to left ventricular failure---blood extravasates and is taken up in the alveoli by macrophages
  157. V/mismathc is characteristic of what pulmonary condition?
    pulmonary emboli
  158. What is the difference in the inflammation pattern between good pasture and wegeners granulomatosis?
    • good pasturure---linear inflammation
    • wegeners----nodal involvement
  159. Coin lesion on an xray is most likely?
  160. What are teh genetic mutation associated with bronchogenic carcinoma?
    • L-myc
    • K-ras
    • p53/RB
  161. What is the difference in location between adenocarcinoma and SCC?
    • adenocarcinoma--peripheral
    • SCC--central
  162. Which lung cancer is associated with occupational hazard exposure such as asbestos
  163. What kind of shape does bronchoalveolar(subset of adenocarcinoma) have?
  164. Where does a bronchoalveolar tumor occur?
    wall of bronchiole of alvolar
  165. Which lung tumor has keratin pearls?
  166. Which lung cancer has salt and pepper chromatin?
    small cell
  167. What 2 lung tumors are located centrally?
    • SCC
    • Small cell carcinoma
  168. Which 2 lung tumors secrete hormones(paraneoplastic)
    • SCC-PTHrp
    • Small cells--adh and acth
    • Lambert eaton
  169. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteroarthropathy
    • clubbing
    • arthritis
    • periosteal new bone formation
  170. What are the complications of lung tumors?
    • superior vena cava syndrome
    • Pancoast tumor
    • Horners
    • Endocrine
    • Recurrent laryngeal
    • Effusion pleural
  171. benign mesothelioma is acalled?
    solitary fibrous tumor
  172. What are the two types of malignant mesothelioma?
    • sarcomantous--spindle shaped cells
    • carcinomatous--ciliated columnar cells
  173. What lung tumor resembles pneumonia?
    bronchioalvolar tumor
  174. Cardiac rhabdoymyoma is associated with what syndrome?
    Tuberous Sclerosis
Card Set
Pathology II
Pathology II
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