Anatomy & Physiology Test 2 Flashcards

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Anatomy & Physiology Test 2 Flashcards
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2011-09-21 02:56:30
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Test 2
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  1. Some ribosomes attach to the?

    a)SER
    b)mitochondria
    c)RER
    d)Golgi body
    e)DNA
    RER
  2. There was a stupid competition sponsored by certain radio station where people were told to drink water as much as they could during a limited period of time and whoever drank the most water would be the winner. This woman drank about a gallon of water in a record time. She won the competition and died afterwards, because water intoxication due to:

    a)water moved from her blood to the intestines; she dehydrated

    b)the osmosis from the hypertonic solution to the hypotonic one

    c)osmosis from the hypotonic solution to the hypertonic one

    d)the isotonic solution of the water caused the hypertonic solution of her blood to become hypertonic, too

    e)unexplainable causes, because water is not poisonous
    osmosis from the hypotonic solution to the hypertonic one
  3. Toxic substances are removed from cells by the:

    a)Golgi body
    b)mitochondria
    c)ribosomes
    d)SER
    e)RER
    SER
  4. The cell’s DNA is located in the:
    a)nucleus
    b)nucleolus
    c)lysosome
    d)ribosome
    e)nuclear membrane
    nucleus
  5. Chromosomes are mostly made of:
    a)DNA and RNA
    b)proteins and RNA
    c)lipids and proteins
    d)proteins and DNA
    e)carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and DNA
    proteins and DNA
  6. Your cell membranes (as well as all cell membranes) are:

    a)impermeable
    b)freely permeable
    c)actively permeable
    d)selectively permeable
    e)slightly permeable
    selectively permeable
  7. A solution that contains a lower concentration of a solute than the cytoplasm of a cell is called:

    a)isotonic
    b)hypertonic
    c)hypotonic
    d)isomeric
    e)isotropic
    hypotonic
  8. FB (Fill in the Blank). If a substance moves against its concentration gradient it means that it moves from ____ concentration to ____ concentration.
    Low concentration to high concentration
  9. A red blood cell placed in pure water would:

    a)shrink
    b)swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
    c)neither shrink nor swell
    d)swell and burst
    swell and burst
  10. The plasma membrane is:

    a)a single-layered membrane around the nucleus
    b)a double layer of proteins around the plasma
    c)the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
    d)a membrane made of cristae
    The phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
  11. Structures that are fingerlike projections that increase the absorbing surface of cells:

    a)sterocilia
    b)microvilli
    c)cilia
    d)flagella
    microvilli
  12. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, the cell will:

    a)swell and burst
    b)lose water and shrink
    c)shrink at first, but later will reach homeostasis
    d)show no change due to diffusion of solvent and solute
    lose water and shrink
  13. Fluid intercellular material:

    a)cytosol
    b)cytoplasm
    c)protoplasm
    d)nucleoplasm
    Cytosol
  14. Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, one of the following happens:

    a)A ribosome enter the vacuole and uses the amino acids of the invader.

    b)A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the material.

    c)The vacuole remains untouched.

    d)Nitrogen molecules enter the vacuole to digest the material.
    A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the material.
  15. One of the following is the function of a plasma membrane protein:

    a)to circulate antibodies
    b)molecular transport through the membrane
    c)to form a lipid bilayer
    d)oxygen transport
    Molecular transport through the membrane
  16. To detoxify substances by enzymatic action:

    a)ribosomes
    b)lysosomes
    c)flagella
    d)peroxisomes
    Peroxisomes
  17. Remember DNA duplication? The name of the phase where it happens is:

    a)Interphase
    b)Telophase
    c)Anaphase
    d)Prophase
    e)Metaphase
    Interphase
  18. The basic structural and functional unit of life:

    a)the atom
    b)the molecule
    c)the cell
    d)the tissue
    e)the virus
    the cell
  19. The main component of the cytosol is:

    a)proteins
    b)sugars
    c)salts
    d)water
    water
  20. The function of the centrioles is:

    a)to organize the spindle fibers

    b)to provide motion to substances along the cytoplasm

    c)to serve as the site for ribosomes production

    d)to produce ATP
    To organize the spindle fibers
  21. Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in:

    a)an isotonic solution
    b)an hypertonic solution
    c)an hypotonic solution
    d)the plasma
    An hypertonic solution
  22. Rod-shaped bodies that contain the genes: ____________________
    Chromosomes
  23. The cell membrane is made of:

    a)a bilayer of proteins with some phospholipids embedded in it

    b)a bilayer of phopholipids with some proteins embedded in it

    c)a bilayer of phospholipids and a bilayer of proteins

    d)DNA and RNA

    e)a bilayer of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins
    A bilayer of phopholipids with some proteins embedded in it
  24. You are lost and starving in a desert. In order for your brain to obtain enough energy to stay alive, it begins to digest some of its own less essential components. The organelle responsible for this self-digestion is the ________________________________.
    Lysosomes
  25. The more active a cell is, the more ___________________ it contains.
    Mitochondria
  26. Lysosomes are made by the:

    a)ribosomes
    b)nucleolus
    c)Golgi apparatus
    d)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    e)flagella
    Golgi apparatus
  27. The ________________________ (which are present in animal cells but not in plant cells) are made of tubulin
    Centrioles
  28. The arrangement of microtubules in a centriole is:

    a)9 triplets in a circle

    b)10 triplets in a circle

    c)9 triplets in circle and a pair in the center

    d)9 pairs in a circle and a pair in the center
    9 triplets in a circle
  29. They have the same arrangement for the microtubules:

    a)pseudopods and centrioles

    b)centrioles and cilia

    c)cilia and flagella

    d)pseudopods, cilia and flagella
    cilia and flagella
  30. The modification of proteins occurs in the _____________.
    RER
  31. The ribosomes are produced by the________________.
    Nucleolus
  32. The _______________ controls the cell activities.
    Nucleus
  33. It produces lipids:

    a)Golgi apparatus

    b)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    c)rough endoplasmic reticulum

    d)nucleus
    Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  34. They contain digestive enzymes:

    a)nucleolus

    b)Golgi apparatus

    c)lysosomes

    d)centrioles
    lysosomes
  35. The ___ proteins are deeply embedded in the bilayer of ___:

    a)peripheral; integral proteins

    b)integral; peripheral proteins

    c)peripheral; phospholipids

    d)integral; phospholipids
    integral; phospholipids
  36. They are made of the proteins actin and myosin:

    a)centrioles

    b)microtubules

    c)microfilaments

    d)cilia and flagella
    microfilaments
  37. The movement of oxygen molecules from high to low concentration of them across a cell membrane:

    a)simple diffusion

    b)active transport

    c)facilitated transport

    d)osmosis
    simple diffusion
  38. Water entering a red blood cell placed in distilled water is an example of ___________________.
    Osmosis
  39. Pumping of molecules out of a cell from low to high concentration with the help of a carrier is named ______________.
    Active Transport
  40. Exocytosis of wastes (byproducts) is called ____________.
    Excretion
  41. When an amoeba encloses a bacterium in a vesicle:

    a)endocytosis

    b)phagocytosis

    c)pinocytosis

    d)receptor-mediated endocytosis

    e)exocytosis
    phagocytosis
  42. Process that involves the participation of receptors and the production of vesicles to input materials in the cell:

    a)receptor-mediated exocytosis

    b)receptor-mediated phagocytosis

    c)receptor-mediated endocytosis

    d)pinocytosis-carrier-endocytosis
    receptor-mediated endocytosis
  43. An enzyme destroys the actin molecules of a cell. As a consequence, the cell:


    a)will not be able to move

    b)won’t be able to do protein synthesis

    c)will reproduce mitotically

    d)will lose its microtubules
    will not be able to move
  44. They are very scarce when present:

    a)microtubules

    b)microfilaments

    c)cilia

    d)flagella
    flagella
  45. They are hydrophobic:

    a)the heads of the phospholipids

    b)the tails of the phospholipids

    c)the glycerol and phosphate of the phospholipids

    d)b and c
    the tails of the phospholipids
  46. It requires ATPs:

    a)simple diffusion

    b)facilitated transport

    c)active transport

    d)osmosis
    active transport
  47. Two phases where chromatin fibers (not chromosomes) are present: _______________
    Interphase & Telophase
  48. The chromosomic units attached to each other are named:

    a)chromatin fibers

    b)sister chromosomes

    c)sister chromatids

    d)sister centromeres

    e)brother chromosomes
    sister chromatids
  49. The region of attachment between chromosomic units is named ___________________.
    Centromere
  50. One of the following is a diploid cell:

    a)n = 5

    b)n = 6

    c)2n = 7

    d)2n = 8

    e)c and d are correct
    c and d are correct
  51. Chromosomes are on their way towards the equator during _________________.
    Prophase
  52. The sequence of phases in mitosis is:

    a)telo-, ana-, meta-, prophase

    b)pro-, ana-, meta-, interphase

    c)inter-, pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase

    d)pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase
    pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase
  53. Duplication of chromatin fibers and DNA occurs specifically in:

    a)subphase G1

    b)subphase G2

    c)subphase S

    d)interphase

    e)telophase
    subphase S
  54. The nuclear membrane appears during ______________________.
    Telophase
  55. A haploid cell of 5 chromosomes is in prophase. The cell, then, has:

    a)5 chromatids


    b)10 chromatids

    c)5 single chromosomes

    d)10 chromatin fibers
    10 chromatids
  56. A 2n = 28 cell in prophase has:

    a)28 single chromosomes

    b)28 chromatids

    c)14 pairs of double chromosomes

    d)14 pairs of chromatids
    14 pairs of double chromosomes
  57. The duplication of centrioles ends specifically in:

    a)subphase G1

    b)subphase G2

    c)subphase S

    d)interphase

    e)telophase
    subphase G2
  58. When you were an embryo, your brain cells reproduced by:

    a)mitotic division

    b)meiotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)sexual reproduction

    e)anaerobic respiration
    mitotic division
  59. The production of your gametes is by:

    a)meiotic division

    b)mitotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)cytokinesis, mitosis and meiosis
    meiotic division
  60. One difference between mitotic division and meiotic division is that in mitotic division ___ and in meiotic division ___:

    a)the daughter cells contain half the number of chromosomes; the daughter cells contain the same number of chromosomes than the parental cell

    b)there are two daughter cell produced; there are four daughter cells produced

    c)there are four daughter cells produced; there are two daughter cells produced

    d)the process stops; the process repeats with the daughter cells
    there are two daughter cell produced; there are four daughter cells produced
  61. Each set of ___ in DNA or in mRNA is known as a ___:

    a)amino acids; codon

    b)nitrogenous bases; anticodon

    c)nucleotides; polypeptide

    d)nucleotides; codon
    nucleotides; codon
  62. The cytokinesis in animal cells involves a ___________________.
    Cytoplasmic Furrow
  63. The synthesis of mRNA by a strand of DNA is named ________________.
    Transcription
  64. It provides energy to activate the amino acids:

    a)ribosome

    b)ATP

    c)DNA

    d)mRNA

    e)tRNA
    ATP
  65. The spliceosome cuts out the _________________ and reattaches the ____________________.
    Introns / Exons
  66. It takes place in the cytoplasm:

    a)transcription

    b)initiation

    c)elongation

    d)termination

    e)translation
    translation
  67. An incoming tRNA (to the mRNA) with the activated amino acid enters directly in the:

    a)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    b)anticodon of the mRNA

    c)P site

    d)A site
    A site
  68. The very first codon in mRNA is _____________.
    AUG
  69. The anticodon UUU has the complementary (matching) codon ___ in mRNA and the mRNA had the complementary codon ___ in DNA;

    a)UUU; TTT

    b)AAA; TTT

    c)AAA; UUU

    d)UUU; AAA
    AAA; TTT
  70. You find ___ inside the capsid:

    a)DNA

    b)p-18

    c)gp-120

    d)lipid membrane

    e)RNAs
    RNAs
  71. Codon is to ___ as anticodon is to ___:

    a)DNA; mRNA

    b)mRNA; DNA

    c)mRNA; tRNA

    d)tRNA; mRNA
    mRNA; tRNA
  72. The useless sequences of nucleotides are called ________________.
    Introns
  73. The growing polypeptide slides to the ___ in order to leave the ___ opened:

    a)A site; A site

    b)A site; P site

    c)P site; A site

    d)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase; ATP
    P site; A site
  74. In the activation of an amino acid, the enzyme involved is:

    a)DNA helicase

    b)RNA polymerase

    c)tRNA

    d)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    e)mRNA
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
  75. The part of the process of adding amino acids to the chain of amino acids is called _____________.
    Elongation
  76. The RNA polymerase uses a ___ strand to make ___ giving it an exact sequence of ___:
    DNA; mRNA; codons
  77. The capsid of the HIV is made of _________________.
    Protein P-24
  78. AIDS stands for:

    a)human immunodeficiency virus

    b)assisted immunodeficiency simulation

    c)acquired immunodeficiency virus

    d)acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
    acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  79. The AIDS virus is called retrovirus because the presence and action of:

    a)DNA

    b)twin RNAs

    c)gp-120

    d)lipid membrane

    e)tRNA
    twin RNAs
  80. The first type of cell the HIV invades is:

    a)cytotoxic B-cell

    b)helper T-cell

    c)assistant T-cell

    d)red blood cell

    e)helper B-cell
    helper T-cell
  81. The reverse transcriptases make single-stranded _________ molecules.
    DNA
  82. The reverse transcriptases use the ____________________ to make DNAs
    RNA
  83. The AIDS patient has a _____ due to the reduced count of ___:

    a)strong immune system; red blood cells

    b)weak immune system; white blood cells

    c)weak immune system; red blood cells

    d)weak immune system; low count of T-cells only
    weak immune system; white blood cells
  84. The capsules are directly produced inside the host by the:

    a)viral mRNA

    b)host’s mRNA

    c)proviruses

    d)viral DNAs

    e)reverse transcriptases
    viral mRNA
  85. The HIV obtains its lipid membrane from:

    a)the cell membrane of the T-cell

    b)the nuclear membrane of the T-cell
    c)another HIV virus

    d)red blood cells
    the cell membrane of the T-cell
  86. This is the protein that attaches directly to the host’s receptor:

    a)the lipid membrane

    b)p-24

    c)p-18

    d)gp-120

    e)viral single-stranded DNA
    gp-120
  87. This one goes last in the replication of the HIV:

    a)the reverse transcriptases associate with the new twin RNAs

    b)the single strand DNAs become double strand DNAs

    c)the viral capsule disintegrates to produce molecules to take control over the host cell

    d)twin RNAs with associated reverse transcriptases go inside the capsid
    The reverse transcriptases associate with the new twin RNAs
  88. The most external molecule in the HIV is the ______________________.
    GP-120
  89. The proviruses make _____________ and _____________.
    Twin RNA's & mRNA's
  90. The viral mRNAs make:

    a)proteins of the capsule and reverse transcriptases

    b)reverse transcriptases and twin RNAs

    c)mRNAs and twin RNAs

    d)twin RNAs and viral capsules
    proteins of the capsule and reverse transcriptases
  91. Made of prokaryotic cells:

    a)your liver cells

    b)plant cells

    c)protist cells

    d)bacteria

    e)all of them
    bacteria
  92. The cellular material found inside the nucleus is called the:

    a)protoplasm

    b)nucleoplasm

    c)cytoplasm

    d)chromosomes

    e)all are correct
    nucleoplasm
  93. Membranous structure that stores food molecules or pigments:

    a)Golgi body

    b)mitochondrion

    c)ribosome

    d)vacuole

    e)chromatid
    vacuole
  94. One of the following is not found in plant cells:

    a)centrioles

    b)ribosomes

    c)lysosomes

    d)nucleus

    e)vacuoles
    centrioles
  95. The cellular material surrounding the nucleus is called the:

    a)protoplasm

    b)nucleoplasm

    c)cytoplasm

    d)chromosomes

    e)all are correct
    cytoplasm
  96. The organelle involved in cellular respiration is named __________________________.
    Mitochondrion
  97. They participate directly in protein synthesis in the cytoplasm:

    a)genes

    b)ribosomes

    c)microtubules

    d)lysosomes

    e)DNA polymerases
    ribosomes
  98. It uses a template of DNA to do transcription:

    a)genes

    b)RNA polymerase

    c)ribosome

    d)lysosomes

    e)DNA polymerase
    RNA polymerase
  99. Containing a membrane:

    a)ribosomes

    b)centrioles

    c)mitochondrion

    d)nucleolus
    mitochondrion
  100. These are made of proteins and nucleic acids only:

    a)nucleus

    b)chromatin fibers

    c)nucleolus

    d)rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
    chromatin fibers
  101. The chemical composition of lysosomes is _________________ and __________________.
    Lipids & Protein
  102. If your brain cells are lazy, they are not using much:

    a)DNA
    b)AMP
    c)ATP
    d)RNA
    ATP
  103. It has pores for communication:

    a)cell membrane
    b)nuclear membrane
    c)lysosome
    d)cytoplasm
    nuclear membrane
  104. The arrangement of microtubules in a cilium is:

    a)9 triplets in a circle

    b)10 triplets in a circle

    c)9 triplets in circle and a pair in the center

    d)9 pairs in a circle and a pair in the center
    9 triplets in circle and a pair in the center
  105. Short and numerous:

    a)flagella

    b)cilia

    c)pseudopods

    d)pseudopods, cilia and flagella
    cilia
  106. Temporary cytoplasmic projections for movement:

    a)flagella

    b)cilia

    c)pseudopods

    d)pseudopods, cilia and flagella
    pseudopods
  107. Chromatin fibers are found in the:

    a)nucleus
    b)nucleolus
    c)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    d)cytoplasm
    e)nucleoplasm
    nucleoplasm
  108. Two phases where chromatin fibers (not chromosomes) are present: ________________ and _________________.
    Interphase & Telaphase
  109. When your skin cells reproduce, your parental cells will be in Prophase as:

    a)n = 23

    b)2n = 23 pairs

    c)n = 46

    d)2n = 46 chromatids
    2n = 46 chromatids
  110. One of the following is a diploid cell:

    a)n = 5
    b)n = 6
    c)2n = 7
    d)2n = 8
    e)c and d are correct
    2n = 8
  111. Chromosomes are on their way towards the equator during _____________________________.
    Prophase
  112. The sequence of phases in Mitotic Division is:

    a)telo-, ana-, meta-, prophase

    b)pro-, ana-, meta-, interphase

    c)inter-, pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase

    d)pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase
    pro-, meta-, ana-, telophase
  113. Nuclear membrane appears during:

    a)interphase

    b)prophase

    c)telophase

    d)anaphase

    e)metaphase
    telophase
  114. A haploid cell of 4 chromosomes is in prophase. The cell, then, has:

    a)4 chromatids

    b)8 chromatids

    c)4 single chromosomes

    d)8 chromatin fibers
    8 chromatids
  115. A 2n = 18 cell in prophase has:

    a)18 single chromosomes

    b)18 chromatids

    c)9 pairs of double chromosomes

    d)9 pairs of chromatids
    9 pairs of double chromosomes
  116. The duplication of centrioles ends specifically in:

    a)phase G1

    b)phase G2

    c)phase S

    d)interphase

    e)telophase
    phase G2
  117. Deep in your skin, your cells reproduce by:

    a)mitotic division

    b)meiotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)sexual reproduction
    mitotic division
  118. The production of your sperm cells or ova is by:

    a)meiotic division

    b)mitotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)cytokinesis, mitosis and meiosis
    meiotic division
  119. The cytokinesis in your cells involves a:

    a)cell plate

    b)cytoplasmic furrow

    c)mitosis

    d)telophase
    cytoplasmic furrow
  120. Production of mRNA is called:

    a)translation

    b)initiation

    c)elongation

    d)intron-exon

    e)transcription
    transcription
  121. The production of a polypeptide is called _________________________________.
    Transcription
  122. Each set of ___ in DNA or in mRNA is known as a ___:

    a)amino acids; codon

    b)nitrogenous bases; anticodon

    c)nucleotides; polypeptide

    d)nucleotides; codon
    nucleotides; codon
  123. The molecule ________ provides the energy to activate the amino acids
    ATP
  124. The useful sets of nucleotides are named ___:

    a)exons

    b)introns

    c)codons

    d)anticodons

    e)m-RNAs
    exons
  125. The step in the coupling of a ribosome with mRNA is specifically part of this:

    a)transcription

    b)initiation

    c)elongation

    d)termination
    initiation
  126. An incoming tRNA (to the mRNA) with the activated amino acid enters directly in the:

    a)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    b)anticodon of the mRNA

    c)P site

    d)A site
    A site
  127. A stop codon is a codon:

    a)for which there is not anticodon in DNA

    b)like AUG

    c)for which there is no anticodon in tRNAs

    d)that is part of the structure of a ribosome
    for which there is no anticodon in tRNAs
  128. Suppose there is a mutation (change) in a DNA, the immediate consequence of it will be in:

    a)translation

    b)transcription

    c)elongation

    d)the polypeptide
    translation
  129. This kid has a genetic disease. This means that one or more ____ are going to be wrong (bad) in their chemical composition:

    a)polysaccharides

    b)lipids

    c)nucleic acids

    d)proteins
    nucleic acids
  130. The growing polypeptide slides to the ___ in order to leave the ___ opened:

    a)A site; A site

    b)A site; P site

    c)P site; A site

    d)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase; ATP
    P site; A site
  131. In the activation of an amino acid, the enzyme involved is:

    a)DNA helicase

    b)RNA polymerase

    c)tRNA

    d)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    e)mRNA
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
  132. The RNA polymerase uses a ___ strand to make ___ giving it an exact sequence of ___:

    a)mRNA; DNA; codons

    b)DNA; mRNA; anticodons

    c)DNA; mRNA; codons

    d)tRNA; mRNA; codons
    DNA; mRNA; codons
  133. The capsule of the HIV is made of ___________, __________ and __________.
    GP-120 / P-18 / P24
  134. The capsid is made of ____________________________.
    P-24
  135. The provirus is double-stranded ______________.
    RNA
  136. The first type of cell the HIV invades is:

    a)cytotoxic B-cell

    b)helper T-cell

    c)assistant T-cell

    d)red blood cell

    e)helper B-cell
    helper T-cell
  137. The reverse transcriptases use ___ to make ___:

    a)the capsids; DNAs

    b)mRNAs; twin RNAs

    c)twin RNAs; DNAs

    d)the proviruses; twin RNAs and mRNAs
    twin RNAs; DNAs
  138. The capsules are directly produced inside the host by the:

    a)viral mRNA

    b)host’s mRNA

    c)proviruses

    d)viral DNA

    e)reverse transcriptases
    viral mRNA
  139. HIV obtains its lipid membrane from:

    a)the cell membrane of the T-cell

    b)the nuclear membrane of the T-cell

    c)another HIV virus

    d)red blood cells
    the cell membrane of the T-cell
  140. The most internal molecule in the HIV:
    a)a lipid membrane

    b)p-24

    c)p-18

    d)gp-120

    e)viral single-stranded DNA
    p-24
  141. The provirus makes:

    a)proteins of the capsule and reverse transcriptases

    b)reverse transcriptases and mRNAs

    c)mRNAs and twin RNAs

    d)twin RNAs and reverse transcriptases

    e)DNAs, twin RNAs, mRNAs and reverse transcriptases
    mRNAs and twin RNAs
  142. Containing a membrane:

    a)ribosomes

    b)centrioles

    c)mitochondrion

    d)nucleolus
    mitochondrion
  143. The ____________________ are made mostly of lipids, proteins and digestive enzymes.
    Lysosome
  144. The ______________________________ makes ribosomes.
    RER
  145. The ___________ are short and numerous in a cell.
    Cillia
  146. It is made of flat sacs:

    a)Golgi apparatus

    b)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    c)rough endoplasmic reticulum

    d)nucleus
    Golgi apparatus
  147. With digestive enzymes:

    a)nucleolus

    b)Golgi apparatus

    c)lysosomes

    d)centrioles
    lysosomes
  148. The ______________ proteins are found on the surface of the bilayer of __________________.
    Integral & Phospholipids
  149. Movement of Sodium ions from low to high concentration of them across a cell membrane:

    a)simple diffusion

    b)active transport

    c)facilitated transport

    d)osmosis
    active transport
  150. Movement of molecules from high to low concentration of them with the assistance of a carrier:

    a)simple diffusion

    b)active transport

    c)facilitated transport

    d)secretion

    e)osmosis
    facilitated transport
  151. Entrance of a particle into the cell by means of the production of a vesicle:

    a)endocytosis

    b)facilitated transport

    c)active transport

    d)exocytosis

    e)osmosis
    endocytosis
  152. Exocytosis of hormones is named _____________________________.
    Secretion
  153. When your white blood cells eat bacteria, the process is called:

    a)endocytosis

    b)phagocytosis

    c)pinocytosis

    d)exocytosis

    e)receptor-mediated endocytosis
    phagocytosis
  154. Process that involves the participation of receptors and the production of vesicles to input materials in the cell:

    a)receptor-mediated exocytosis

    b)receptor-mediated phagocytosis

    c)receptor-mediated endocytosis

    d)pinocytosis-carrier-endocytosis
    receptor-mediated endocytosis
  155. They are numerous and short when present:

    a)microtubules

    b)microfilaments

    c)cilia

    d)flagella
    cilia
  156. They are hydrophilic:

    a)the heads of the phospholipids

    b)the tails of the phospholipids

    c)the glycerol and phosphate of the phospholipids
    d)b and c
    the tails of the phospholipids
  157. ATPs are used in large quantities during:

    a)simple diffusion

    b)facilitated transport

    c)active transport

    d)osmosis
    active transport
  158. Phases where chromosomes are visible:

    a)interphase and prophase

    b)prophase and metaphase

    c)anaphase and telophase

    d)interphase and telophase
    prophase and metaphase
  159. They are very long and thin chromosomic units attached to each other:

    a)chromatin fibers

    b)sister chromosomes

    c)sister chromatids

    d)sister centromeres

    e)brother chromosomes
    sister chromatids
  160. The regions of attachment between chromosomic units split during:

    a)Interphase

    b)Anaphase

    c)Telophase

    d)Metaphase

    e)Prophase
    Anaphase
  161. Chromosomes are on their way towards opposite poles during:

    a)interphase

    b)prophase

    c)telophase

    d)metaphase

    e)anaphase
    anaphase
  162. The duplication of DNA molecules occurs specifically in:

    a)phase G1

    b)phase G2

    c)phase S

    d)interphase

    e)telophase
    phase S
  163. Nuclear membrane disappears during:

    a)interphase

    b)prophase

    c)telophase

    d)anaphase

    e)metaphase
    prophase
  164. A haploid cell of 10 chromosomes is in prophase. The cell, then, has:

    a)10 chromatids

    b)20 chromatids

    c)10 single chromosomes

    d)20 chromatin fibers
    20 chromatids
  165. A 2n = 18 cell in prophase has:

    a)18 single chromosomes

    b)18 chromatids

    c)9 pairs of double chromosomes

    d)9 pairs of chromatids
    9 pairs of double chromosomes
  166. The duplication of centrioles starts specifically in:

    a)phase G1

    b)phase G2

    c)phase S

    d)interphase

    e)telophase
    phase G1
  167. Your brain cells were produced by:

    a)mitotic division

    b)meiotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)sexual reproduction
    mitotic division
  168. After fertilization, the embryo increases the number of cells by:

    a)meiotic division

    b)mitotic division

    c)a combination of mitosis and meiosis

    d)cytokinesis, mitosis and meiosis
    meiotic division
  169. The cytokinesis in your stomach cells involves a:

    a)cell plate

    b)cytoplasmic furrow

    c)mitosis

    d)telophase
    cytoplasmic furrow
  170. The protein synthesis is actually the production of a:

    a)polysaccharide

    b)polypeptide

    c)polynucleotide

    d)mRNA

    e)DNA
    polypeptide
  171. Each set of ___ in DNA or in mRNA is known as a ___:

    a)amino acids; codon

    b)nitrogenous bases; anticodon

    c)nucleotides; polypeptide

    d)nucleotides; codon
    nucleotides; codon
  172. In protein synthesis, the amino acids are activated by:

    a)ribosome

    b)ATP

    c)DNA

    d)mRNA

    e)tRNA
    ATP
  173. The useful sets of nucleotides are named ___________; the useless ones are named _____________.
    exons / introns
  174. It takes place in the nucleus:

    a)transcription

    b)initiation

    c)elongation

    d)termination

    e)translation
    translation
  175. The very first codon in mRNA is:

    a)DNA
    b)UGA
    c)AUG
    d)AGU
    e)AGT
    AUG
  176. The codon TTT in DNA has the complementary (matching) codon ___ in mRNA and the matching anticodon would be:

    a)AAA; TTT

    b)AAA; UUU

    c)UUU; AAA

    d)TTT; AAA
    AAA; UUU
  177. Codon is to ___ as anticodon is to ___:

    a)DNA; mRNA

    b)mRNA; DNA

    c)mRNA; tRNA

    d)tRNA; mRNA
    mRNA; tRNA
  178. The process of adding amino acids to the chain of amino acids is called _____________________.
    Translation
  179. The RNA polymerase uses a ___ strand to make ___ giving it an exact sequence of ___:

    a)mRNA; DNA; codons

    b)DNA; mRNA; anticodons

    c)DNA; mRNA; codons

    d)tRNA; mRNA; codons
    DNA; mRNA; codons
  180. The capsule of the HIV is made of:

    a)a lipid

    b)protein p-18

    c)protein p-24

    d)gp-120

    e)a - d
    a - d
  181. AIDS virus is called retrovirus because the presence and action of:

    a)DNAs

    b)tRNAs

    c)gp-120

    d)lipid membrane

    e)RNAs
    RNAs
  182. The HIV doesn’t attack:

    a)white blood cells

    b)helper T-cells

    c)macrophages

    d)red blood cell
    red blood cell
  183. The single-stranded viral DNAs become:

    a)double-stranded DNAs

    b)reverse transcriptases

    c)capsules

    d)gp-120s
    double-stranded DNAs
  184. The proviruses are actually:

    a)viral mRNA

    b)host’s mRNAs

    c)viral DNAs

    d)capsids

    e)reverse transcriptases
    viral DNAs
  185. This is the protein that attaches directly to the host’s receptor:

    a)a lipid membrane

    b)p-24

    c)p-18

    d)gp-120

    e)viral single-stranded DNA
    gp-120
  186. This one goes first in the replication of the HIV:

    a)the reverse transcriptases associate with the new twin RNAs

    b)the single strand DNAs become double strand DNAs

    c)the viral capsule disintegrates to produce molecules to take control over the host cell

    d)twin RNAs with associated reverse transcriptases go inside the capsid
    twin RNAs with associated reverse transcriptases go inside the capsid
  187. The most internal molecule in the HIV:

    a)a lipid membrane

    b)p-24

    c)p-18

    d)gp-120
    p-24
  188. The provirus makes:

    a)proteins of the capsule and reverse transcriptases

    b)reverse transcriptases and mRNAs

    c)mRNAs and twin RNAs

    d)twin RNAs and reverse transcriptases

    e)DNAs, twin RNAs, mRNAs and reverse transcriptases
    mRNAs and twin RNAs

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