PT Level III Questions.txt

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PT Level III Questions.txt
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  1. 1. Chemical, water-base cleaners are often used for very dirty, greasy parts. If used:
    • a. the surface must be subsequently cleaned with a solvent cleaner.
    • b. The surface must be thoroughly rinsed free of any residue.
    • c. Heat must be used to ensure the removal of any detergents from surface openings.
    • d. The surfaces must be subsequently cleaned with a volatile solvent cleaner.
  2. 2.Generally, vapor degreasing is considered to be one of the best methods of preparing a partfor liquid penetrant inspection because:
    • a. it totally removes all surface contaminants.
    • b. The solvent vapor removes all petroleum based materials
    • c. The method is easily adapted to virtually any size of the part
    • d. The solvent vapor removes all inorganic soils
  3. 3.When penetrant is applied to parts by dipping, the parts should be:
    • a. left in the tank during the entire dwell time.
    • b. Set aside until the dwell time is up
    • c. Placed on a rack designed to return any excess drainage to the dipping station
    • d. Placed in the alkaline solvent rinse tank immediately.
  4. 4.Penetrant stations that have reservoir tanks with recovery systems incorporated:
    • a. should have an agitation system because penetrants are homogeneous
    • b. should have an agitation system to prevent the settling of possible contaminants
    • c. do not need an agitation system as penetrants are pasteurized.
  5. 5. When removing penetrant from the surface by spray water wash, penetrant in a crack would be harder to remove if it has:
    • a. low viscosity
    • b. high viscosity
    • c. medium viscosity
    • d. viscosity is not important
  6. 6. The most desirable objectives governing the cleaning operations when removing surface penetrant are to:
    • a. remove little penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant remaining on the surface
    • b. remove little penetrant from a defect and no residual penetrant remaining on the surface.
    • c. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave minimum of residual on the part surface.
    • d. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave no penetrant on the part surface.
  7. 7. The best method of removing the excess water-washable penetrant is to:
    • a. Immediately immerse the part in the water rinse tank.
    • b. Use water running directly from a tap.
    • c. Boil in hot water or steam spray.
    • d. Use a hose and nozzle with forceful droplets.
  8. 8. When removing excess post-emulsifiable penetrant in a production situation involving small irregularly-shaped parts, one may use a:
    • a. Strong forceful spray
    • b. Strong water blast
    • c. Commercial solvent
    • d. Hot water immersion.
  9. 9. The sensitivity of wet developers can be seriously impaired:
    • a. remove little penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant from defects and a minimum of residual penetrant remaining on the surface
    • b. remove little penetrant from a defect and no residual penetrant remaining on the surface.
    • c. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave minimum of residual on the part surface.
    • d. Remove no penetrant from defects and leave no penetrant on the part surface.
  10. 10. When is a non-aqueous wet developer generally preferred?
    • a. when the dryer oven temperature is above 121�C. (250�F)
    • b. when it is essential to obtain as smooth and as even a coating as possible.
    • c. When using a fluorescent penetrant on an as-cast surface.
    • d. When using a fluorescent penetrant on a wire brushed weld.
  11. 11. The best method of drying after the application of a wet developer is normally:
    • a. blotting the surface gently with absorbive paper toweling.
    • b. Allowing the part to dry slowly at or slightly above the ambient temperature
    • c. Rapid drying with a normal room temperature air blast.
    • d. Rapid drying with circulating hot air at 77�-107�C (170�-225�F)
  12. 12. Removal of residual penetrant or developer materials by a suitable post-cleaning technique is advantageous in which of the following cases?
    • a. where it could interfere with subsequent processes or with service
    • b. where it could provide a contrasting background
    • c. where it could assist in the emulsification of the penetrant bleed-out.
    • d. Where it could assist in the lattice structure
  13. 13.Post-cleaning is particularly important where residual penetrant or developer materials may combine with other materials in service to produce:
    • a. corrosive action
    • b. a contrasting background.
    • c. False penetrant indications
    • d. Proper surface tension
  14. 14. Post-cleaning should be performed:
    • a. as soon as possible because the materials will be easier to remove
    • b. after several hours because the drier the materials are, the easier they will wipe off.
    • c. With the part warm to enhance the solubility of penetrant material
    • d. With the part chilled to cause the materials to lose their cohesion.
  15. 15. When using post-emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant on small parts where sulfur or chlorine residual is deemed harmful.
    • a.low sulphur and low chlorine content penetrant materials should be used and the part should be post-cleaned by solvent wipe.
    • b. Fluorescent materials should be used and the part should be detergent-washed
    • c. Low sulphur and low chlorine penetrant materials should be used and the part should be post-cleaned in an automatic detergent wash.
    • d. Color contrast should be used so that any residue can be readily seen and removed.
  16. 16. �Eyeball fluorescence� should be considered when arranging black light for testing, because direct or reflected black light shining into the inspector�s eyes:
    • a. could cause tissue damage
    • b. is harmless and of no consequence
    • c. even though harmless, can become extremely annoying and will impair inspector effectiveness
    • d. even though annoying, it will not impair inspector effectiveness
  17. 17. Residual acids and chromates are more detrimental to the fluorescent water-wash process than other processes because:
    • a. the fluorescent dyes in all processes are equally affected
    • b. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the presence of water
    • c. acids and oxidizing agents react with the fluorescent dyes only in the presence of emulsifiers
    • d. emulsifiers neutralize the effects of the acids and chromates
  18. 18. Due to the nature of penetrant material, most methods have which of the following adverse effects on operator health?
    • a. penetrants are a hazard due to their inorganic base.
    • b. Penetrant methods include materials which can cause dermatitis if proper precautions are not observed.
    • c. Penetrant materials contain hallucinogens that can cause a sense of drunkenness
    • d. Modern penetrants have been improved to be virtually hazard free
  19. 19. Which of the following is an advantage of post-emulsifiable methods over water-washable methods?
    • a. the excess penetrant removal is accomplished by water spray.
    • b. Their sensitivity is easy to control
    • c. The overall test time is shortened
    • d. They usually exhibit higher sensitivity to tight cracks
  20. 20.When compared to other methods, which of the items below are disadvantages of water-emulsifiable visible dye methods?
    • a. degree of sensitivity to acidity and alkalinity
    • b. portability
    • c. test time
    • d. requirements of ordinary light
  21. 21. The type of penetrant to be used on an investment casting should be:
    • a. water-washable fluorescent for adequate sensitivity and water washability.
    • b. Solvent removable because of size and shape
    • c. Post-emulsifiable fluorescent for maximum sensitivity and water washability.
    • d. Solvent removable for greater visibility
  22. 22. Which of the following techniques has been found to be effective for aiding penetration in certain instances in commercial application?
    • a. heating the penetrant
    • b. vibration
    • c. vacuum and pressure
    • d. ultrasonic pumping
  23. 23. Dentist have used liquid penetrant inspection to:
    • a. locate fine cracks in teeth prior to the availability of X-rays
    • b. locate defects in artificial teeth prior to mounting them
    • c. verify questionable information gathered from X-rays
    • d. identify the filling material
  24. 24. There is a variety of equipment available for precleaning parts prior to penetrant application. Of the following, the recommended method, if practical, is:
    • a. sand or grit blasters
    • b. solvent or chemical tanks
    • c. vapor degreasers
    • d. water-detergent washing machines
  25. 25. If modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
    • a. before the emulsifier tank
    • b. after the developer tank
    • c. before the developer tank
    • d. after the wash unit
  26. 26. In a modular equipment system using a water-washable fluorescent penetrant and dry developer, black light should be available:
    • a. at the penetrant station
    • b. at the wash station
    • c. at the developer station
    • d. after the oven cycle
  27. 27. When a large number of parts are inspected using dry developer that is applied by dipping, the tank should be equipped with:
    • a. an exhaust system
    • b. an agitator
    • c. an electrostatic charger
    • d. a developer replenisher
  28. 28. Filters for black light effectively remove:
    • a. natural white light
    • b. radiation of a wavelength above 300 nm (3 000 �) units
    • c. visible light from the energy given off by the mercury arc
    • d. fluorescence from the penetrant
  29. 29. Super-bright fluorescent penetrants may be:
    • a. more sensitive in dim daylight than color contrast penetrant materials
    • b. as sensitive in dim daylight as it is in darkness
    • c. more sensitive than normal fluorescent penetrants but they cannot be used in daylight
    • d. less sensitive in dim daylight than color contrast penetrant materials
  30. 30. The use of high power spot bulbs for color contrast penetrants:
    • a. should be avoided as too much glare may occur
    • b. will reduce eye fatique
    • c. is acceptable provided the light is shielded
    • d. is acceptable provided the light is not shielded
  31. 31. A good penetrant must be:
    • a. inert with respect to the materials being tested
    • b. highly viscous
    • c. highly volatile
    • d. an inorganic base liquid
  32. 32. Wetting ability is measured by the:
    • a. specific gravity
    • b. density
    • c. contact angle
    • d. surface tension
  33. 33. Which of the following functions does a developer perform?
    • a. �blots� the penetrant by drawing it out of discontinuities
    • b. masks out nonrelevant indications
    • c. dries out the surface of the part
    • d. provides a non contrasting background
  34. 34.The method that uses a color contrast penetrant in conjunction with a developer containing a low intensity fluoragent is called:
    • a. fluorescent developer method
    • b. reversed fluorescent method
    • c. contrast fluorescent method
    • d. reversed contrast method
  35. 35. When inspection using fluorescent penetrant methods, indications will appear as a:
    • a. soft white glow against a gray background
    • b. brilliant yellow-green glow against a white background
    • c. brilliant yellow-green glow against a deep violet-blue background
    • d. bright yellow-green glow against a black background.
  36. 36. A visible dye indication will usually appear as a:
    • a. bright red glow against a white background
    • b. red color against a gray background
    • c. red color against a white background
    • d. red color against a glowing white background
  37. 37. When the reversed fluorescent method is used and inspection is performed under black light, indications will show up as:
    • a. dark spots or lines against a deep violet-blue background
    • b. yellow-green lines or spots against a glowing background
    • c. dark spots or lines against a lightly glowing background
    • d. there is no such method
  38. 38. If an indication reappears after the original developer has been removed and another coat is applied, the discontinuity:
    • a. contains a reservoir of penetrant
    • b. is probably shrinkage
    • c. is most likely porosity
    • d. is most likely a crack
  39. 39. If, upon reprocessing, a faint indication fails to reappear, what could be the cause?
    • a. it was probably a false indication
    • b. the area has been overcleaned
    • c. the indication is probably due to a small flaw
    • d. reprocessing has resealed the opening
  40. 40.A network of interconnecting jagged lines appearing in hard fired, unglazed ceramic products would be an indication of:
    • a. thermal shock
    • b. fatique cracks
    • c. shrinkage cracks
    • d. grinding cracks
  41. 41. Porosity indications in ceramics would appear:
    • a. more intense than porosity indications in metals
    • b. essentially the same as porosity indications in metals
    • c. less intense than porosity indications in metals
    • d. as minute cracks
  42. 42.When inspecting glass and looking for very fine cracks, the preferred method is:
    • a. post-emulsifiable fluorescent
    • b. water-washable fluorescent
    • c. post-emulsifiable color contrast
    • d. electrified particle
  43. 43. When inspecting a hard fired ceramic that is very porous, the best inspection method would be the:
    • a. filtered particle method
    • b. electrified particle method
    • c. brittle enamel method
    • d. emulsifiable color contrast method
  44. 44. A partially welded forging lap would probably:
    • a. give no indication
    • b. appear as a very thin, continuous line
    • c. appear as a broad, continuous line
    • d. appear as an intermittent line
  45. 45. A ragged line of variable width and numerous branches on castings caused by a difference in cooling rates between thick and thinner sections, would most likely be an indication of:
    • a. shrinkage
    • b. cold shut
    • c. hot tear
    • d. lap
  46. 46. A deep crater crack will frequently appear as a:
    • a. small tight crack
    • b. rounded indication
    • c. fine linear indication
    • d. faint intermittent line
  47. 47. The forces generated by capillary attraction caused a liquid to rise spontaneously in a capillary tube. These forces are also involved in the:
    • a. entry of a liquid into a crack.
    • b. Solubility of a liquid
    • c. Flash point of a liquid
    • d. Chemical inertness of a liquid
  48. 48.Viscosity has a considerable effect on some of the practical aspects of the use of penetrant. It is an important factor in the:
    • a. solubility of contaminants
    • b. washability of a penetrant
    • c. degree of fluorescence emitted
    • d. speed with which a penetrant will enter a defect
  49. 49.One of the two most important properties of a good penetrant is wetting ability. Wetting ability is :
    • a. measured by contact angle and is not related to surface tension.
    • b. A function of viscosity and increases as surface tension decreases
    • c. Measured by contact angle and decreases as surface tension increases
    • d. Measured by surface tension and increases as contact angle decreases
  50. 50.To make water a relatively good penetrant:
    • a. a wetting agent must be added to reduce surface tension.
    • b. A wetting agent must be added to reduce wetting ability
    • c. A wetting agent must be added to increase surface tension
    • d. Water is a good penetrant and no additives are needed.
  51. 51. A penetrant that will spread over the surface of the test area in a smooth, even film despite a small amount of surface contamination is said to have:
    • a. low viscosity
    • b. high viscosity
    • c. wetting ability
    • d. low evaporation
  52. 52. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by:
    • a. using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity
    • b. using cracked aluminum blocks
    • c. measuring the contact angles in a wetting test
    • d. the meniscus test
  53. 53. For post-emulsifiable penetrants, a good method for establishing emulsifying time is by:
    • a. experimentation
    • b. the water drop-through test
    • c. the water-tolerance test
    • d. using published book values
  54. 54. A newly mixed batch of wet developer should:
    • a. be checked by a hydrometer
    • b. be agitated for 30 to 40 minutes
    • c. have 0.03 to 0.04 L per 3.8 L (1 to 1.5 oz per 1 gal) of ammonia added to stabilize the mixture
    • d. stand for 4 to 5 hours prior to use
  55. 55. The test used to measure the sensitivity of a penetrant to water contamination based on the amount of water is the:
    • a. a water drop-through test
    • b. hydrometer test
    • c. photofluorometer test
    • d. water tolerance test
  56. 56. When performing an evaluation of the fluorescent ability of a penetrant, the value that is normally sought is the:
    • a. amount of actual light emitted by indications
    • b. amount of black light necessary to cause the material to fluoresce
    • c. relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to other penetrants.
    • d. Relative amount of light emitted by the fluorescent material compared to the light emitted by the background.
  57. 57. The most accurate method for evaluating quantitative values for the emitted light of fluorescent materials is the use of a:
    • a. spectrophotometer
    • b. filter-photometer
    • c. nefluoro-photometer
    • d. photofluorometer
  58. 58. The ability of an indication to be seen can be assigned a value called the contrast ratio. This ratio is based on the amount of:
    • a. white light present as opposed to the amount of light absorbed by the dye
    • b. light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light absorbed by the dye.
    • c. Light absorbed by the background as opposed to the amount of light reflected by the dye.
    • d. Light reflected by the background as opposed to the amount of light reflected by the dye
  59. 59. The contrast ratio of a red dye penetrant to a white developer is normally about:
    • a. 33 to 1
    • b. 6 to 1
    • c. 9 to 1
    • d. 9 to 2
    • e. 23 to 1
  60. 60. Cracked plated strips are sometimes used to compare sensitivity. These plates usually have a brittle iron plating and are bent on:
    • a. cantilever bending dies only
    • b. radial bending dies only
    • c. circumferential bending dies only
    • d. cantilever and radial bend dies
  61. 61 If a cantilever bending die is used to bend a plated strip, the cracks produced will:
    • a. be equally spaced and of uniform width
    • b. be equally spaced and of graduated depth
    • c. closer together and tighter near the clamped end
    • d. cantilever bending dies are not used
  62. 62. The test object and standard penetrant materials should be within a particular temperature range. One of the reasons an excessively cold penetrant is undersirable is that as the temperature becomes lower:
    • a. the viscosity decreases
    • b. the viscosity increases
    • c. fewer volatile materials will be lost
    • d. the dyes degrade
  63. 63. If the surface temperature of the test part is excessively hot, the:
    • a. viscosity of the penetrant may be too high
    • b. penetrant may loose some of its more volatile materials
    • c. surface tension of the penetrant increases
    • d. contact angle increases
  64. 64. Which of the following is a criterion for a good dryer?
    • a. the ability to dry the surface slowly
    • b. the ability to heat the part to an optimum temperature in a minimum of time so that the part is both dry and warm as promptly as possible.
    • c. The electrical heating elements so that there is a guarantee that no contaminants can be introduce into the inspection process
    • d. Be a warm air blast system.
  65. 65. What are the two most important properties that determine whether a liquid will have high penetrating ability?
    • a. surface tension and viscosity
    • b. viscosity and cosine of contact angle
    • c. cosine of the contact angle and density
    • d. density and surface tension
  66. 66. Where pre-cleaning is necessary and a residue-free solvent is used, which of the following is observed?
    • a. the solvents are not suitable for removing grease
    • b. the solvents are not suitable for removing oil
    • c. the solvents should never be used for removing grease and oils
    • d. the solvents are suitable for removing grease and oils, but are generally not adequate if solids are imbedded in void areas.
  67. 67. When utilizing the fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant method and performing the rinse cycle, which of the following will prevent over-rinsing?
    • a. rinse before the penetrant is completely emulsified
    • b. rinse after the penetrant is completely emulsified
    • c. discontinue the rinse as soon as the surface penetrant is removed from the part
    • d. rinse only with water hotter than 43� C (110� F)

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