Mini 1 micro blitz

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lazzsant
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105761
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Mini 1 micro blitz
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2011-10-09 13:46:20
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Mini 1
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  1. What makes up the isotype
    H chain constant region
  2. What presents endogenous antigen peptides to the ER
    TAP 1 and TAP 2
  3. What are 2 main roles of IL8
    • 1) Recruit neutrophils to site of infection
    • 2) inc expression of CD11a/CD18 on leukocytes
  4. Why can superantigens cause serious effects in patients?
    They directly stimulate the T cells to relaease IFN gamma
  5. The effects of endotoxic shock and TSS are mediated by what cytokine
    TNF alpha
  6. What does cyclophosphamide accomplish in a patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant?
    Ablation of the bone marrow
  7. What does Cyclopsporin do?
    Inhibits cytokine formation and inhibits T cell production in transplantation.
  8. What is Goodpasture syndrome?
    The production of specific IgG against antigens in the GBM
  9. PG and Lipid A both require ________
    NAG
  10. PG and O-atnigen both require _________
    Und-P
  11. Pili is associated with 4 things
    • Twitching Motility
    • Biofilm formation
    • Conjugation
    • antigenic variation
  12. Lysozymes function
    Cleaves the bond between NAG and NAM which leads to cell lysis
  13. The replication of dsDNA is accompllished by
    DNA dependent- DNA polymerase
  14. The replication of (-)ssRNA is accomplished by
    Viral RNA dependant- RNA polymerase
  15. The only known gapped dsDNA virus
    Hepadnaviridae
  16. The replication of Hepadnaviridae is accomplished by
    • DNA dependent-RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase
    • gapped DNA
  17. The replication of HIV1 is accomplished by
    cellular DNA dependent- RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase
  18. What makes Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to drugs.
    • Mycolic acid.
    • Point mutations --> strains with more antibiotic ability
  19. Mycoplasma genitalium do not express what virulence factor due to its structure.
    Betalactamase
  20. Capsule and choline-binding proteins are characteristic of which organism that causes severe community-acquired bacterial pneumonia
    Streptococcus pneumoniae
  21. Herpesvirus, Borrelia bergdorferi, mycobacterium tuberculosis, and mycoplasma genitalium have what in common
    • They are not adequately visualized by gram staining.
    • Mycoplasma- too small
    • spirochetes- too thin
  22. Girl in septic shock. Ear ache occured before. Blood cultures show gram (+) diplococcus which binds fluorescently-labeled anti-19A capsular antibody. What is the organism
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    • Negative for catalase and coagulase and is alpha-hemolytic.
  23. Retroviruses (HIV-1) require which polymerases to complete their replication cycle?
    • Viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
    • Cellular DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  24. Function in capsid in a naked virus
    Protection of genomic cargo and cell binding.
  25. Family of Hepatitis B virus that is enveloped and partially dsDNA that encodes its own reverse transcriptase.
    Hepadnaviridae
  26. Family of Hepatitis A that is naked and (+) ssRNA.
    Picornaviridae
  27. Quaternary ammonium compounds are most effective against _____
    Herpesviruses
  28. Direct mode of tissue damage via naked virus infection.
    Cytolysis due to viral release
  29. Cytokines responsible for the symptoms accompanying the prodromal phase of a viral illness
    IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, IL-8 & IFNa/B
  30. Cytokines responsible for the cell-mediated tissue destruction accompanying the symptomatic pahse of several viral illness
    IL-12, IFN-y, & IL-2
  31. Antigenic drift is involved in which phase of pathogenesis
    Viral spread
  32. Human cytomegalovirus viroceptor expression is a virulence mechanism for
    Altering host immune defense mechanisms
  33. Rotavirus NSP4 protein expression is a virulent mechanism for
    Production of a toxin
  34. The purpose of Human herpesvirus gE-gl virally-encoded Fc-gamma receptor is to
    Inhibit the antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity
  35. What promotes the Pkr protein synthesis of antiviral activity
    IFN-a
  36. CD4+ Th1 lymphocytes orchestrate
    CD8+ T lymphocyte cytotoxicity response
  37. What are the responses of Th1 cells in viral infections
    IFN-y and IL-12
  38. What kills viral infected cells in the context of very low levels of MHC-I
    Natural killer cells
  39. What happens after IFN-a binds a virus infected cell
    inactive RNA-activated protein kinase (Pkr) expression which, upon activaton by double-stranded RNA, inactivates the translation activator eIF2 thereby terminating mRNA trnaslation and promoting apoptosis and autophagy.
  40. WHat recpetor initiates the cascade leading to type I IFN expression in virus-infected cells
    Toll-like receptor
  41. What are the main events required for CD4 T lymphocyte activation against extracellular pathogens
    Antigen presentation by dendritic cells & IL-4 production by macrophages
  42. What is reuired for initiation of CD4 T cell mediated response
    MHC class II antigen presentation, CD80/CD86 co-stimulation and IL-12.
  43. Gram (-), oxidase(-), lactose-fermenting, sorbitol non-fermenting rod
    E. Coli
  44. Gram (+), strictly anaerobic rod that prodcues toxin A, which affects host cell's ability to polymerize actin.
    Clostridium dificile
  45. What toxin is produced by C. dificile
    An AB toxin
  46. Gram (-), oxidase-positive, kidney-shaped diplococci.
    Neisseria meningitidis
  47. Serotypes of the causative agents of N. meningitidis
    • A, B, C, Y, W-135.
    • All but B currently have vaccine.
  48. Amoxixillin, Vancomycin, and Bacitracin all have what in common?
    They disrupt the synthesis of the cell wall.
  49. What is an immunotoxin
    A toxin that fuses to an antibody

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