BIOL 223 Chapter 6-3

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christophertkennedy
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107405
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BIOL 223 Chapter 6-3
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2011-10-09 15:25:54
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anatomy physiology skeletal system
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Study Cards for Chapter 6 BIOL 223 CSN
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  1. Random rods that make up spongy bone are known as:
    trabeculae
  2. The spaces between the trabeculae are filled with:
    red bone marrow
  3. True or False: The arrangement of lacuna, osteocytes, canaliculi, and lamellae are much less ordered in spongy bone than in compact bone.
    True
  4. List the two benefits of spongy bone discussed in class.
    • resists forces from multiple directions
    • lightens the skeleton
  5. Define calcification.
    the deposition of Ca2+ salts
  6. Which bones form by intramembranous ossification?
    flat bones
  7. What is the first step of intramembranous ossification?
    an ossification center develops when mesenchymal cells move in and become osteoprogenitor cells
  8. During intramembranous ossification, osteoblasts surround the ossification center and start to create:
    osteoid
  9. What happens to the osteoid during intramembranous ossification?
    it is calcified into bone
  10. During intermembranous ossification, after the trabeculae form and the periosteum develops, the outer layers are remodeled into:
    compact bone
  11. Which bones form by endochondral ossification?
    long bones, irregular bones
  12. What type of tissue serves as a model for bone formation during endochondral ossification?
    hyaline cartilage
  13. The process by which dermal tissue becomes bone is known as:
    intermembranous ossification
  14. Where is the primary ossification center in a long bone?
    in the center of the diaphysis of the hyaline model
  15. Where are the secondary ossification centers in a long bone?
    one in each epiphysis
  16. The cells of a hyaline model contain _______ which build cartilage and allow the model to enlarge.
    chondroblasts
  17. True or False: Early in the endochondral ossification process, a thick layer of bone forms along the epiphysis.
    False - early in the endochondral ossification process a thin layer forms along the diaphysis
  18. True or False: After the central parts of the hyaline model have become calcified, the primary ossification center begins to form the first significant bone.
    True
  19. During endochondral ossification, spongy bone is remodeled into compact bone around the:
    medullary cavity
  20. True or False: The secondary ossification centers form spongy bone in the epiphysis.
    True
  21. True or False: During endochondral ossification, the epiphyseal plate is formed out of compact bone.
    False - the epiphyseal plate is formed out of hyaline cartilage
  22. List the four zones of cartilage found at the actively growing epiphyseal plate.
    • zone of resting cartilage
    • zone of proliferating cartilage
    • zone of hypertrophic cartilage
    • zone of calcified cartilage
  23. This zone attaches the underlying cartilage layers to the ephiysis and does not actively grow.
    zone of resting cartilage
  24. In this zone, chondrocytes are dividing and thickening the layer.
    zone of proliferating cartilage
  25. The zone in which chondrocytes increase in size is known as the:
    zone of hypertrophic cartilage
  26. The transition from cartilage to bone takes place in which zone of the epiphyseal plate?
    zone of calcified cartilage
  27. True or False: As bone length increases, layers of matrix are added around the circumference to increase bone mass.
    True
  28. True or False: As long as new cartilage growth and calcification happen at the same rate, your bones will continue to grow in length.
    True
  29. What will happen when bone calcification overtakes the rate of cartilage formation.
    the epiphyseal plate turns into bone and growth stops
  30. The process of breaking down Ca+2 and sending it to the blood stream is called:
    resporption
  31. Deposition of Ca+2 from the blood into the bone matrix is performed by which bone cell?
    osteoblasts
  32. If osteoclast activity is greater that osteoblast activity, your bones will:
    weaken
  33. Bones that become heavier, denser, and more mineralized are due to the fact that osteoblast activity is _______ than osteoclast activity.
    greater
  34. The substance needed for bone mineralization is:
    calcium
  35. The substance your body requires for the proper absorption of calcium is:
    calcitrol, or vitamin D
  36. What vitamin is needed for collagen synthesis?
    vitamin C
  37. Which vitamin is essential for osteoblast function?
    vitamin A
  38. These two vitamins are needed for synthesizing bone proteins and also play a role in the production of collagen.
    • vitamin B12
    • vitamin K
  39. These two hormones play a role in the growth of bones during childhood and puberty.
    • thyroid hormone
    • growth hormone
  40. Which hormone will be synthesized when blood calcium levels are high?
    calcitonin
  41. Which hormone will be secreted when blood calcium is low?
    parathyroid hormone
  42. Calcitonin stimulates a series of responses designed to _______ blood calcium levels.
    lower
  43. Parathyroid hormone stimulates a series of responses designed to _______ blood calcium levels.
    raise
  44. List the four physiological responses to calcitonin discussed in class.
    • osteoclast function inhibited
    • osteoblast function stimulated
    • kidneys increase calcium secretion
    • intestines slow absorption of calcium
  45. List the four physiological responses to parathyroid hormone discussed in class.
    • osteoclast function stimulated
    • osteoblast function inhibited
    • kidneys decrease calcium absorption
    • intestines increase rate of calcium absorption
  46. List the three methods of bone fracture classification discussed in class.
    • external appearance
    • nature of the break
    • location
  47. A bone fracture in which the broken ends of bone do not break through the skin surface is known as a:
    simple or closed fracture
  48. A bone fracture in which the broken ends of bone break through the skin surface is called an:
    open or compound fracture
  49. When a fracture breaks the shaft of a long bone, perpendicular to the long axis, it is classified as a:
    transverse fracture
  50. A comminuted fracture is commonly described as a:
    shattering fracture
  51. Which type of fracture will usually require screws, plates, and rods to repair?
    comminuted fracture
  52. When one side of a bone is fracture while the other side is only bent, it is classified as what type of fracture?
    greenstick or partial fracture
  53. Bone fractures at an angle due to twisting forces are known as:
    spiral fractures
  54. List two common causes of spiral fractures.
    • twisted ankles
    • child abuse
  55. A Colles fracture is a break in the _______ _______ commonly associated with bracing oneself for a fall.
    distal radius
  56. A Potts fracture is a break in the _______ _______ that often affects the neighboring bone as well.
    distal fibia
  57. An epiphyseal fracture commonly occurs at which bone feature?
    epiphyseal plate or line
  58. True or False: Transverse fracture at the epiphyseal plate rarely heal well.
    False - Transverse fractures at the epiphyseal plate often heal well
  59. List the four steps of fracture repair discussed in class.
    • formation of a hematoma
    • hyaline cartilage forms a callus at the site of the break\
    • callus is ossified into spongy bone
    • spongy bone is remodeled into compact bone
  60. What could happen if a fracture between the epiphysis and epiphyseal plate is poorly treated?
    it could halt bone growth

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