RT 170 exam 2

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RT 170 exam 2
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  1. Outer renal tissue
    Cortex
  2. Filtrate derivative
    Urine
  3. Another term for suprarenal
    Adrenal
  4. Urine vessel from glomerular capsule
    Tubule
  5. Cup-shaped urine receivers
    Calyces
  6. Cone-shaped renal segments
    Pyramids
  7. Cluster of blood vessels
    Glomerulus
  8. Urinary reservoir
    Bladder
  9. Musculomembranous excretory duct
    Ureter
  10. Medial opening of a kidney
    Hilum
  11. Inner renal tissue
    Medulla
  12. Membranous cup; Bowman's ______
    Capsule
  13. Central renal cavity
    Sinus
  14. External excretory tube
    Urethra
  15. Male gland
    Prostate
  16. Glomerular fluid
    Filtrate
  17. Primary organ of urinary system
    Kidney
  18. The kidneys and ureters are part of the ____ system.
    urinary
  19. The organ that removes waste products from the blood is the ______
    kidney
  20. The gland that sits on the superior pole of each kidney is the ______ gland.
    suprarenal
  21. Blood vessels, nerves, and the ureter enter a kidney through an opening known as the ___
    hilum
  22. In the average (sthenic) person, the superior pole of the kidney is located at the ___ vertebral level.
    T12
  23. The microscopic functional unit of the kidney is the _____
    nephron
  24. Nephron units are found in the layer of renal tissue known as the ____
    cortex
  25. The proximal portion of a nephron consisting of a double-walled membranous cup is the ______ capsule.
    glomerular
  26. A glomerulus branches off the ____ artery.
    renal
  27. A cluster of blood capillaries surrounded by a Bowman capsule is a ________
    glomerulus
  28. The blood vessel entering a glomerular capsule is the ____ arteriole; the blood vessel leaving a glomerular capsule is the ____ arteriole.
    afferent; efferent
  29. The fluid that passes from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule is ____
    filtrate
  30. Urine from collecting ducts drains into minor ____
    calyces
  31. Major calyces unite to form the expanded, funnel-shaped renal ____
    pelvis
  32. The long tubes that transport urine from the kidneys are the _____
    ureters
  33. Ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the ______
    bladder
  34. The musculomembranous tube that conveys urine from the urinary bladder to outside the body is the ______
    urethra
  35. The gland that surrounds the proximal part of the male urethra is the ______
    prostate
  36. Which renal structure filters the blood?
    A. glomerulus
    B. efferent arteriole
    C. afferent arteriole
    D. major calyx
    A. glomerulus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which urinary excretory duct conveys urine from the bladder to outside the body?
    A. ureter
    B. urethra
    C. efferent arteriole
    D. afferent arteriole
    B. urethra
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which body organ filters blood and produces urine as a by-product of waste material?
    A. pancreas
    B. kidney
    C. liver
    D. spleen
    B. kidney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. At which vertebral level is the superior border of the kidneys usually found?
    A. T10
    B. T12
    C. L2
    D. L4
    B. T12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following is an excretory examination used to demonstrate the upper urinary tract?
    A. intravenous urography
    B. cystourethrography
    C. retrograde urography
    D. retrograde cystography
    A. intravenous urography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which examination has the ability to produce a radiographic image demonstrating renal cortical tissue well saturated with contrast medium?
    A. retrograde urography
    B. retrograde cystography
    C. cystourethrography
    D. intravenous urography
    D. intravenous urography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which projection best demonstrates the mobility of the kidneys?
    A. lateral projection with the patient lateral recumbent
    B. AP projection with the patient supine
    C. AP projection with the patient upright
    D. lateral projection with the patient in dorsal decubitus position
    C. AP projection with the patient upright
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. In intravenous urography, what is the purpose of applying compression pads over the distal ends of both ureters?
    A. to retard the flow of opacified urine from the bladder
    B. to retard the flow of opacified urine into the bladder
    C. to demonstrate ureteral reflux
    D. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    B. to retard the flow of opacified urine into the bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following is not a reason for obtaining a scout radiograph with the patient recumbent for excretory urography?
    A. to demonstrate urinary calculi
    B. to evaluate exposure factors
    C. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    D. to determine the location of the kidneys
    C. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. For excretory urography, what should an adult patient do just before getting on the examination table?
    A. empty the bladder
    B. drink 12oz of cold water
    C. remove all jewelry
    D. drink 12oz of a carbonated beverage
    A. empty the bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. What is the purpose of obtaining an AP projection radiograph of the kidneys 30 seconds after the bolus injection of a contrast medium in excretory urography?
    A. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    B. to demonstrate opacified renal cortex
    C. to demonstrate ureteral reflux
    D. to demonstrate opacified renal arteries
    B. to demonstrate opacified renal cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. What is the purpose of tilting the patient and table 15 to 20 degrees toward the Trendelenburg position for the AP projection during excretory urography?
    A. to demonstrate opacified renal cortex
    B. to demonstrate distal ureters
    C. to demonstrate the base of the bladder
    D. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    B. to demonstrate distal ureters
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. How many degrees should the patient be rotated for AP oblique projections, posterior oblique positions, during excretory urography?
    A. 15
    B. 45
    C. 30
    D. 60
    C. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. For intravenous urography of a child, what should the patient be given when the scout radiograph shows an excessive amount of intestinal gas overlying the kidneys?
    A. 12oz of a carbonated beverage
    B. 12oz of ice water
    C. a laxative
    D. a cleansing enema
    A. 12oz of a carbonated beverage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which examination requires that the patient be placed on a special urographic-radiographic examination table?
    A. Retrograde cystography
    B. Retrograde urography
    C. Intravenous urography
    D. Cystourethrography
    B. Retrograde urography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which renal structures are not demonstrated during retrograde urographic examinations?
    A. major calyces
    B. nephrons
    C. minor calyces
    D. ureters
    B. nephrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. In addition to the AP projection, which projection would most likely be included in the radiographs for retrograde urography?
    A. AP oblique projection
    B. AP projection, lateral decubitus position
    C. PA projection
    D. PA oblique projection
    A. AP oblique projection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What is the purpose of tilting the table 10 to 15 degrees toward the Trendelenburg position for retrograde urography?
    A. to produce a nephrogram effect in the kidneys
    B. to prevent a contrast medium from escaping the kidneys
    C. to demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys
    D. to demonstrate the ureters
    B. to prevent a contrast medium from escaping the kidneys
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. What is the purpose of raising the head of the table 35 to 40 degrees for retrograde urography?
    A. to position the patient for catheterization
    B. to prevent contrast medium from escaping the kidneys
    C. to demonstrate the ureters
    D. to produce a nephrogram effect in the kidneys
    C. to demonstrate the ureters
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which condition would most likely be demonstrated during a voiding cystography?
    A. ureteral reflux
    B. renal cyst
    C. hydronephrosis
    D. renal calculi
    A. ureteral reflux
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. For the AP axial projection of the bladder, how many
    degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed?
    A. 25 degrees caudal
    B. 15 degrees cephalic
    C. 25 degrees cephalic
    D. 15 degrees caudal
    D. 15 degrees caudal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. For retrograde cystography, which projection should be performed to demonstrate the anterior and posterior walls of the bladder?
    A. upright AP position
    B. AP projection, lateral decubitus position
    C. recumbent lateral projection
    D. recumbent AP projection
    C. recumbent lateral projection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. For cystourethrography with an adult male patient, to which level of the patient should the IR be centered?
    A. pubic symphysis
    B. L5 vertebra
    C. T12 vertebra
    D. L3 vertebra
    A. pubic symphysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. For cystourethrography with an adult male patient, which of the following should be used to obtain a radiograph while the patient is urinating?
    A. lateral decubitus position
    B. dorsal decubitus position
    C. recumbent PA projection
    D. recumbent AP oblique projection
    D. recumbent AP oblique projection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Write out the expanded form for VCUG
    Voiding Cystourethrogram
  61. Write out the expanded form for IVU
    Intravenous Urogram
  62. The radiographic investigation of the renal drainage system is accomplished by various procedures classified under the general term _____
    urography
  63. Which two terms refer to the excretory urogram examination?
    A. cystourethrography and intravenous pyelography
    B. intravenous urography and intravenous pyelography
    C. cystourethrography and retrograde urography
    D. intravenous urography and retrograde urography
    B. intravenous urography and intravenous pyelography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. How soon after the injection of a contrast medium are symtoms of a reaction most likely to occur?
    Immediately or within 20 minutes
  65. What are the preps for an IVU exam per Liz in lecture?
    • NPO 6 hours prior
    • Light bowel prep
  66. What identification data should be included on every post-injection radiograph?
    • Patient data
    • side marker
    • time interval
    • position indicator
  67. how long after the completion of the contrast medium injection does the contrast agent usually begin to appear in the renal pelvis?
    A. 15 to 20 minutes
    B. 2 to 8 minutes
    C. 10 to 14 minutes
    D. 30 seconds to 1 minute
    B. 2 to 8 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. How long after the injection of the contrast medium does the greatest concentration usually appear within the kidneys?
    A. 30 seconds to 1 minute
    B. 2 to 8 minutes
    C. 15 to 20 minutes
    D. 30 to 45 minutes
    C. 15 to 20 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A postvoiding radiograph is usually the last radiograph taken to demonstrate which structure(s)?
    A. bladder
    B. kidneys
    C. ureters
    A. bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. True or false. Preliminary (scout) radiographs are most often obtained with the patient supine?
    True
  71. Which procedure should be performed if the bladder is not seen in the AP projection to demonstrate the entire urinary system?
    A. direct the central ray 10 to 15 degrees cephalically
    B. tilt the table and patient 10 to 15 degrees toward the Trendelenburg position
    C. make a seperate AP projection radiograph of the bladder
    D. center the image receptor (IR) to the level of L3
    C. make a seperate AP projection radiograph of the bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Into which position should the patient be placed when beginning to position for either type of AP oblique projection?
    A. prone
    B. supine
    C. lateral recumbent
    B. supine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. When performing the AP oblique projection, right posterior oblique (RPO) position, which kidney will be parallel with the plane of the IR?
    a. left
    b. right
    a. left
  74. Approximately how many degrees should the patient be rotated from the supine position to an oblique position to demonstrate renal and urinary structures? (Pertaining to AP oblique projections)
    A. 30 degrees
    B. 40 degrees
    C. 20 degrees
    D. 10 degrees
    A. 30 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which structure should be centered to the grid for the AP oblique projection, left posterior oblique (LPO) position?
    A. right kidney
    B. left kidney
    C. vertebral column
    C. vertebral column
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. To which level of the patient should the IR be centered? (Pertaining to AP oblique projections)
    A. anterior superior iliac crests
    B. pubic symphysis
    C. iliac crests
    D. L3
    C. iliac crest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Where should the central ray enter the patient? (Pertaining to AP oblique projections)
    A. 2 inches (5 cm) lateral to the midline on the dependent side
    B. centered to the midline 2 inches (5 cm) below the iliac crest
    C. 2 inches (5 cm) lateral to the midline on the elevated side
    C. 2 inches (5 cm) lateral to the midline on the elevated side
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. True or false. Retrograde urography is performed on a regular x-ray table.
    False
  79. At the beginning of the retrograde urographic examination, the patient should be placed in the modified _____ position.
    A. upright
    B. prone
    C. Lithotomy
    D. Lateral recumbent
    C. Lithotomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Who should inject the contrast medium in a retrograde urographic exam?
    A. Radiologist
    B. Urologist
    C. Radiographer
    B. Urologist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. List the three AP projection radiogrpahs that usually comprise a retrograde urographic examination.
    • Preliminary radiograph showing catheter insertion
    • Pyelogram
    • Ureterogram
  82. Why might the head of the x-ray table be lowered 10 to 15 degrees during the retrograde pyelography procedure?
    To retard the excretion of the contrast medium from the kidney, the filling of the renal pelvis is enhanced
  83. Which retrograde urographic radiograph sometimes requires that the head of the table be elevated 35 to 40 degrees?
    A. Ureterogram
    B. Pyelogram
    C. Preliminary radiograph showing catheter insertion
    A. Ureterogram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. After necessary AP projections are made, which oblique positions are often used for oblique projections?
    A. RPO and LPO
    B. RPO and LAO
    C. RAO and LAO
    D. RAO and LPO
    A. RPO and LPO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which breathing instructions should be given to the patient?
    A. suspend breathing after inspiration
    B. suspend breathing after expiration
    C. breathe slowly
    B. suspend breathing after expiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. What are the 5 different radiographic procedures that we learned in lecture?
    • IVU-intravenous urogram
    • Cystogram
    • VCUG-voiding cystourethrogram
    • Urethrogram
    • Retrograde urogram
  87. List these from first to last if they were all ordered to be done (one is done in the OR):
    IVU-intravenous urogram
    Cystogram
    VCUG-voiding cystourethrogram
    Urethrogram
    Retrograde urogram
    • 1st-Urethrogram
    • 2nd-VCUG-voiding cystourethrogram
    • 3rd-Cystogram
    • Last-IVU-intravenous urogram
    • OR-Retrograde urogram
  88. What is the prep for a Cystogram? (Liz's lecture)
    Empty bladder
  89. What is the prep for a VCUG? (Liz's lecture)
    empty bladder
  90. What is the prep for a Urethrogram? (Liz's lecture)
    No prep
  91. Name the areas of interest for an IVU. (Liz's lecture)
    • Kidneys
    • Ureter
    • Bladder
  92. Name the area of interest for a Cystogram. (Liz's lecture)
    Bladder
  93. Name the areas of interest for a VCUG. (Liz's lecture)
    • Bladder
    • Urethra
  94. Name the area of interest for a Urethrogram. (Liz's lecture)
    Urethra
  95. Name a diagnosis for having an IVU? (Liz's lecture)
    • Obstruction (in the ureters)
    • Ureteral stenosis
  96. Name a diagnosis for having a Cystogram. (Liz's lecture)
    • urinary retention
    • reflux
  97. Name a diagnosis for having a VCUG. (Liz's lecture)
    • Urinary retention
    • Reflux
  98. Name a diagnosis for having a Urethrogram. (Liz's lecture)
    Stenosis (blockage)
  99. What is reflux? (Liz's lecture)
    When urine goes back up the ureters
  100. During a VCUG, does the patient void during the procedure or after the procedure? (Liz's lecture)
    During the procedure
  101. What are the 5 rights of drug administration? (Contrast Studies Article)
    • right drug
    • right amount/dosage
    • right patient
    • right time
    • right route
  102. What radiographic procedure always shows hardware? (Liz's lecture)
    Retrograde urogram
  103. List some Enteral routes. (Contrast Studies Article)
    • oral (easiet, safest)
    • rectal (primarily used for large intestine)
    • nasogastric tubes
    • ostomy sites
  104. List a Parenteral Routes. (Contrast Studies Article)
    Intravenous injection (most dangerous)
  105. Which of the following is not considered a right of drug administration?
    A. right drug
    B. right patient
    C. right time
    D. right administrator
    D. right administrator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. The radiologic technologist should read the medication label __ time(s) before the medication is administered to verify the right medication has been selected.
    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 3
    D. 2
    C. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which laboratory values should a technologist check before administering iodinated contrast?
    A. red blood cell count and BUN
    B. creatinine and BUN
    C. BUN and white blood cell count
    D. creatine and urine
    B. creatinine and BUN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Identifying a patient by ____ is not an acceptable practice for verifying patient identification.
    A. looking at the name above the patient bed
    B. using the patient's wrist band if they are unable to communicate
    C. asking a juvenile's parent or guardian to identify him/her
    D. asking the patient to state his/her name
    A. looking at the name above the patient bed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Enteral methods of contrast administration include:
    1. through ostomy sites
    2. rectal
    3. oral
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1 and 3
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. After receiving barium sulfate as part of a small bowel series, patient should be told to ____ and that their stools may be____.
    A. limit physical movement for 24 hours; loose
    B. increase fluid/fiber intake; white colored
    C. maintain a liquid diet; bloody
    D. limit fluid intake; irregular
    B. increase fluid/fiber intake; white colored
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Patients receiving contrast through a nasogastric (NG) tube should be placed in the ____ position.
    A. fowler
    B. trendelenburg
    C. supine
    D. sims
    A. fowler
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. _____ is the most frequently occuring serious complication of a barium enema.
    A. hemorrhoids
    B. fecal impaction
    C. rectal perforation
    D. insertion of the tip into the vagina
    C. rectal perforation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following patients are not at an increased risk for rectal perforation during a contrast enema study?
    A. those patients with diverticulosis
    B. those who have recently undergone a colon biopsy
    C. patients who have normal bowel functions
    D. patients who have inflammatory bowel disease
    C. patients who have normal bowel functions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. To aid the process of tip insertion, it is recommended to insert the enema tip during ____ when the patient's abdominal muscles relax.
    A. shallow breaths
    B. expiration
    C. slow deep breaths
    D. inspiration
    B. expiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. The retention balloon should only be inflated after the ____ has been inserted_____.
    A. cuff; beyond the anal sphincter
    B. tip; 2 cm
    C. cuff; to the anal sphincter
    D. tip; to the anal sphincter
    A. cuff; beyond the anal sphincter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. When performing a barium enema, the enema bag should be hung no higher than ___ inches above the table.
    A. 24 to 30
    B. 18 to 24
    C. 10 to 15
    D. 28 to 36
    A. 24 to 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Many imaging departments and hospitals carry a ____ for contrast administration through a patient's ostomy opening.
    A. regular barium enema retention balloon catheter
    B. pediatric enema catheter
    C. colostomy irrigation kit
    D. foley catheter
    C. colostomy irrigation kit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which method of contrast administration is the most dangerous parental route?
    A. intravenous route
    B. oral route
    C. through a stoma
    D. rectal route
    A. intravenous route
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Which of the following is true regarding both ionic and nonionic iodinated contrast?
    A. they both contain iodine
    B. they dissociate into separate ions in the blood
    C. they are called high-osmolar contrast media
    D. they both cause more severe reactions
    A. they both contain iodine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Which of the following questions is not a typical question to ask a patient to elicit the needed information to determine iodinated contrast risk?
    A. do you have a history of allergies?
    B. do you have any history of prior contrast reactions?
    C. are you a diabetic on insulin?
    D. do you have a family history of cancer?
    D. do you have a family history of cancer?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Patient reactions from IV contrast are most likely to occur ___ after injection of the contrast.
    A. within the first minute
    B. 3 to 5 minutes
    C. 10 minutes
    D. within 24 hours
    A. within the first minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Patient side effects associated with injected ionic contrasts include ____ and a warm, flushed feeling.
    A. sneezing, runny nose
    B. a metallic taste in the mouth
    C. tachycardia
    D. hives, coughing
    B. a metallic taste in the mouth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. What steps should a technologist take if a patient experiences a mild reaction after contrast injection?
    1. instruct patient to breathe slowly and relax
    2. monitor the patient for progression of symptoms
    3. provide a cool washcloth and reassuring words
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 1, 2 and 3
    C. 2 and 3
    D. 1 and 3
    B. 1, 2 and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Severe reactions that are considered life-threatening include convulsions, giant hives, cardiopulmonary arrest and severe bradycardia.
    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  125. Name some mild reactions to contrast.
    • nausea
    • vomiting
    • anxiety
    • lightheadedness
    • syncope
    • headache
    • itching
    • sneezing
  126. Name some moderate reactions to contrast.
    • hypertension or hypotension
    • dyspnea
    • giant or excessive hives
    • tachycardia
    • mild laryngeal edema
    • wheezing
  127. Name some severe reactions to contrast.
    • convulsions
    • arrhythmias
    • cardiopulmonary arrest
    • unresponsiveness
    • severe hypotension
    • severe bradycardia
  128. What are the functions of the kidneys?
    • Remove waste products from the blood
    • Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
    • Secrete substances that affect blood pressure and other important kidney functions
    • They also excrete urine, a life preserving function because homeostasis depends on it
    • Kidneys also influence blood pressure
  129. What is the function of the urinary system?
    The urinary system filters the blood and extracts from it the waste products carried in the circulatory system
  130. Where may pathology occur in the kidneys?
    • Structural breakdown in the glomerulus and capsule.
    • Physiologic failure of the cells of the tubules.
  131. The urinary system includes:
    • 2 kidneys
    • 2 ureters
    • 1 bladder
    • 1 urethra
  132. Which kidney is usually slighter lareger? The right one or the left one?
    Left kidney
  133. How much fluid can an adult bladder hold?
    500 mL
  134. What is narrowing or contraction of a passage?
    stenosis
  135. What is a condition preventing normal flow of urine through the urinary system?
    renal obstruction
  136. What is fusion of the kidneys, ususally at the lower poles?
    horseshoe kidney
  137. What allows the contrast medium to enter the kidneys in the normal direction of flow?
    Antegrade filling
  138. What allows the contrast medium to enter the kidneys in against the direction of flow?
    Retrograde filling
  139. List the criteria for an AP or PA projection for an IVU or urogram
    • Entire renal outlines
    • Bladder and pubic symphysis
    • No motion
    • Short scale of radiographic contrast clearly showing contrast medium in the renal area, ureters, and bladder
    • Compression device, if used, centered over the upper sacrum and resulting in good renal filling
    • Vertebral column centered on the radiograph
    • No artifacts from the elastic in the patient's underclothing
    • Prostatic region inferior to the pubic sumphysis on older male patients
    • Time marker
    • PA projection showing the lower kidneys and entire ureters
    • Superimposing intestinal gas in the AP projection moved for the PA projection
  140. List the criteria for an AP oblique projection RPO and LPO position for an IVU or urogram
    • Evidence of proper collimation
    • Patient rotated approximately 30 degrees
    • No superimposition of the kidney remote from the IR on the vertebrae
    • Entire down-side kidney
    • Bladder and lower ureters on 14x17 IR if patient's size permits
    • Time marker
  141. List the criteria for a Lateral projection for an IVU or urogram
    • Evidence of proper collimation
    • Entire urinary system
    • Bladder and pubic symphysis
    • Short scale of contrast clearly showing contrast medium in the renal area, ureters, and bladder
    • No rotation of the patient (check pelvis and lumbar vertebrae)
    • Time marker

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