Western Physiology 1
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What kinds of molecules are necessary for something to be considered organic?
What are the 5 stages of life, in order?
- Tissue (has a specific function)
What is the average pH level of the human body?
7.4 (+/- 0.05)
What are the essential organic molecules?
- Nucleic Acids
What are the three basic units that we can absorb from food?
- Amino Acids
What type of chemical bonding has a complete transfer of electrons?
Ionic (these have a tendency to be polar and water-soluble)
What type of chemical bonding has an equal sharing of electron pairs?
Covalent (these have a tendency to be non-polar and fat/lipid soluble)
What type of chemical bonding has an electrostatic attraction?
What type of chemical bonding has characteristics between ionic and covalent bonding?
Name the major membranes in our body.
What pathological conditions are associated with the pleura?
- Pnuemothorax - air entering pleural space
- Pleural Effusion (Edema) - water entering pleural space
Prevents blood clots
Has breast and colon cancer protection
reduces ADD (attention deficit disorder)
Prothrombotic (blood clot forming)
What is the most abundant protein in the blood? Which organ produces it?
What is the only cell in the body that does not have a nucleus
RBC (red blood cell)
Contains ribosomes, involved in protein production
Powerhouse of the cell. Produces energy. What cells contain the most of these?
Vesicle which contains digestive enzymes. What type of cells are associated with this organelle?
- White Blood Cells
Which type of cell contains the most ribosomes?
What is the difference between a Passive Process and an Active Process?
- Passive - occurs naturally, no energy required
- Active - movement of molecules that required energy (ATP)
Movement of molecules from High concentration to Low concentration.
Movement of molecules from Low Solute to High Solute concentration.
Movement of molecules from high to low concentration with assistance of a carrier molecule (i.e. insulin)
Movement of molecules from low to high concentration requiring energy (ATP)
Primary Active Transport (i.e. Na+ / K+ ATPase Pump)
What is the most abundant extracellular ion?
What is the most abundant intracellular ion?
What type of structure is DNA? What type of bond?
- Helix structure
- Hydrogen Bond
What is the largest organ in the human body?
What are the functions of skin?
- Protective Barrier
- Temperature Control (Liberating heat through sweat)
- Excretion (sweating)
- Absorption (taking in sunlight to produce vitamin D)
The skin is primarily composed of the epidermis and dermis. Which section contains blood vessels? nerve fibers?
- Dermis layer contain both blood vessels and nerve fibers
- Epidermis does not contian either
What types of dermatophytes (fungus') are associated with skin? Give location and term.
- Head/Scalp - Tinea Capitis (Dandruff (seborrhea))
- Body/Torso - Tinea Corpis (Ringworm)
- Genitals - Tinea Cruris (Jock Itch)
- Feet - Tinea Pedis (Athletes Foot)
The point at which muscle attaches to a bone. It is not moved by the contraction of the muscle.
The point at which a muscle attaches to the skin, a bone, or another muscle. The insertion attaches to the structure that will be moved by the contraction of the muscle.
A tough band of fibrous connective tissue that usually connects muscle to bone.
A fibrous tissue that connects bones to other bones.
A muscle that acts in opposition to the specific movement generated.
Antagonist (i.e. bicep / tricep, flexing / extending)
*Agonist is the term equal and opposite of antagonist
Assists in performing the same set of joint motion as the agonists.
What types of ions are needed for muscle contraction?
- Ca2+ - Calcium
- K+ - Potassium
*ATP is also needed for muscle contraction
process used by muscles to contract
- Sliding Filament Theory
What are the five types of tissue?
What are the three types of muscle?
- Skeletal - Voluntary movement - more Exterior
- Smooth - Involuntary movement - more Interior (lines Fu organs) - Regulated by Autonomic Nervous System
- Cardiac - Looks like Skeletal, acts like Smooth - Regulated by Autonomic Nervous System
Which muscle / tendon is most commonly affected in the SITS muscle region?
How many bones does the adult body contain?
What is the hormone and bone cell pair for bone demineralization? What happens to bone when demineralization occurs?
- PTH (Parathyroid Hormone)
- Calcium is released into the blood stream
What is the hormone and bone cell pair for bone mineralization?
- Calcium is driven into bone strengthening it.
What are the functions of bone?
- Mineral Storage (mineralization / demineralization)
- Producing blood cells (WBC, RBC, platlets)
Which type of bone contains marrow?
Long Bones (i.e. Humerus, Tibia, Femur)
Identify the following
- 1. Right Atrium - filling chamber
- 2. Tricuspid Valve
- 3. Right Ventricle - emptying chamber
- 4. Left Atrium - filling chamber
- 5. Mitral Valve
- 6. Left Ventricle - emptying chamber
- 7. Septum - prevents blood mixing between left and right hearts
What are the three muscle layers of the heart?
- Pericardium - outer most
- Myocardium - middle
- Endocardium - inner most
Carries oxygen-depleted blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart.
Carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
Delivers oxygen-rich blood to the myocardium.
What are the function of these three?
- 1. Nourishes Lateral Wall
- 2. Nourishes Anterior Inferior Wall
- 3. Nourishes Posterior Inferior Wall
What is another term for myocardial infarction?
- Heart Attack
- Unstable angina
What is another term of stenosis?
A collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium of the heart. It delivers deoxygenated blood to the Right atrium in conjunction with the superior and inferior vena cava.
- Coronary Sinus
Identify the following
- 1. Sinoatrial node - natural pacemaker
- 2. Atrioventricular node - block irregular signals, lets "normal" signals through
- 3. Bundle of His
- 4. Left bundle branch
- 5. Right bundle branch
This takes a picture of the heart
What are the two common types of arrhythmia's (irregular heart beat)? Which of the two are more common?
- Atrial Fibrillation 90%
- Atrial Flutter 10%
What part of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) speeds up heart rate? What part slows down?
- Sympathetic NS speeds up
- Parasympathetic NS slows down
What is the difference between AFIB and AFLUTTER?
- AFIB - Rapid irregular rhythm (Heart Rate 100 --> 150 bpm)
- AFLUTTER - super rapid but regular rhythm (HR 200-300 bpm)
Which coronary vessel has blockage which causes irregular heart rhythm?
If the septum is damages what else is also damaged?
What is the term for pathologically added heart sounds?
What is another term for left ventricle contraction?
Systole - S1
What is another term for left ventricle relaxation?
Diastole - S2
Which valve closes during systole (S1)?
Which valve closes during diastole (S2)?
A disease of the heart valves in which the opening of the aortic valve is narrowed. Who does it commonly affect?
- Aortic Stenosis
- Affects elderly mostly
A disease of the heart valves in which the mitral valve is weakened. Who does it commonly affect?
- Mitral Valve Prolapse
- Affect young women mostly
Why do arteries have very thick smooth muscles layers?
Blood flows at high pressure
Why do veins have valves?
The blood flows against gravity
Why do capillaries have no smooth muscle layer?
Gas exchange occurs on this level
What are the functions of vasoconstriction / vasodilation?
- 1. Regulate blood pressure
- 2. Regulate body temperature
- 3. Regulate fluid levels
What are some signs of early shock? signs of late shock?
- Early - vasoconstriction immediately, cold and dry skin, low blood pressure, tachycardia
- Late - vasodilation automatically (due to exhaustion of ATP and can't vasoconstrict), cold clammy skin
What muscles attach to Achilles tendon (calcaneal tendon)?
- (Achilles tendon attaches to a bone called the calcaneus)
What are the 2 components of blood? What are the contents of each?
- Liquid - plasma (proteins (albumins), electrolytes (Na+, K+), clotting factors)
- Solid - cells (RBC, WBC, platelets)
How much of blood is solid? liquid?
What does it mean to have "thick blood"? Who is it typically found in?
- More solid components (RBC)
- Men (due to more intake of meat)
What does it mean to have "thin" blood? Who is it typically found in?
- Not enough RBC (anemic)
- Women (due to menstrual cycle)
What are the two vitamins that help maintains RBC's biconcave shape?
- B9 (follate)
- B12 (cyanocobalamin)
What is the lifespan of RBC's?
What is the function of RBC's?
- Carry O2 to tissues (systemic circulation)
- Carry CO2 to lungs (pulmonary circulation)
What is the RBC mostly composed of?
Hemoglobin (Hb or Hgb) 75-80% - complexed / conjugated with iron (Fe) which also gives it its red color
How does one measure the "thickness" of blood?
- 1. estimate Hemoglobin (Hgb), if small in size then there is a lack of Hgb and iron (Fe), looks paler than the "normal" red color
- 2. Hematocrit (Hct) measures solid portion (~33%), females 30-36%, males 36-42%
When a cell gets "old" what happens to it?
When it makes it to the spleen it is phagocytisized (devoured / destroyed) and the Hemoglobin and Iron are recycled in the Liver
What is another term for Erythrocyte?
Red Blood Cell
What is another term for Leukocyte?
White Blood Cell
What is another term for Thrombocyte?
What is another term for Thrombosis?
Formation of a blood clot (excess of platelets)
What is another term for erthrocytopenia?
Anemia (deficiency of red blood cells)
What does the suffix "-osis" mean?
What does the suffix "-penia" mean?
What are the 3 types of anemia?
- Macrocytic / Megaloblastic - large sized RBC
- Microcytic - small sized RBC
- Normocytic - normal sized RBC
Vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract alone. What else does it need for absorption?
Intrinsic factor - produced by cells of the stomach
Microcytic (not enough hemoglobin or iron in RBC, making them paler)
Typically occurs in young menstrating women
Iron (Fe) deficient anemia
Gastrointestinal problems leading to inability to absorb vitamin B12
Condition where bone marrow does not produce sufficient new cells to replenish blood cells (RBC, WBC, platelets)
Typically affects cancer patients on chemotherapy
Crescent shaped RBC (1/4 or 1/8 moon shape)
These malformed cells clump together in blood vessels
Mostly affect Sub-Saharan Africans
Sickle Cell anemia
Which anemia results from poor control of other medical conditions?
Anemia of Chronic disease
If you are type A blood who can you give blood to? receive blood from? antibodies against which blood type(s)?
- Can give to: A, AB
- Can receive from: A, O
- Antibodies against: B
If you are type B blood who can you give blood to? receive blood from? antibodies against which blood type(s)?
- Can give to: B, AB
- Can receive from: B, O
- Antibodies against: A
If you are type O blood who can you give blood to? receive blood from? antibodies against which blood type(s)?
- Can give to: A, B, AB, O
- Can receive from: O
- Antibodies against: A, B
If you are type AB blood who can you give blood to? receive blood from? antibodies against which blood type(s)?
- Can give to: AB
- Can receive from: A, B, AB, O
- Antibodies against: None
Plasma minus clotting factors
This does not affect women's health except during pregnancy.
Rh factors - if father is Rh+ and mother is Rh- this can cause the mother to create antibodies against the Rh factor, thus treating an Rh positive baby like an intruder in her body by attacking fetal RBC's
RhoGAM injections in a Rh- pregnant mother is given when?
24 weeks of pregnancy and at birth
Major function is defense and immune function
White Blood Cell
Mainly responsible for foreign matter destruction (phagocytosis). Elevated levels of these usually means a bacterial infection.
Neutrophils - also referred as PMN (55-70% of WBC's are of this type)
Mainly responsible for foreign matter destruction (phagocytosis). Elevated levels of these usually means a non-bacterial infection (viral).
Lymphocytes - also referred as B and T cells (15-20% of WBC's are of this type)
When there is an increase in White Blood Cells present, what may that be due to?
- Infection - 12K-15K present (slight elevation)
- Inflammation - 12K-15K present
- Bone marrow cancer (leukemia) - 60K-100K present (overwhelming elevation)
- Normal range is 9K-10K present
What are conditions that can cause leukopenia (deficiency of WBC's)?
- HIV / AIDS
- people taking Steroids
Stimulates activation of new platelets as well as increases platelet aggregation
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
What is not involved in the process of coagulation?
a. clotting factors
d. medium sized blood vessels
This mechanism works on small vessels (capillaries)
Vessel wall breaks, plasma leaks out (RBC's too big to pass)
Platelets stop up the opening
Takes seconds to form
Edema doesn't occur due to the speed of "plugging"
- Primary Hemostasis or "Platelet Plug Formation"
What is the function of Aspirin (ASA)?
- To prevent platelet aggregation
- It is not the plaque that blocks the vessels in a heart attack but the platelets that accumulate to patch up the rupture that blocks the vessel
This mechanism works on larger vessels (veins)
Vessel wall breaks, plasma and RBC's leak out
Platelets too small to stop up opening by itself
This material acts like platelets to stop up the opening
- Secondary Hemostasis or "Fibrin Plug"
What are the ABC's of CPR?
What is the function of the Lymphatic System?
- 1. Returns tissue fluid back to the heart
- 2. Immune function - lymph nodes are checkpoints so pathogens don't go into blood
Identify the following
- 1. Supraclavicular lymph nodes
- 2. Axillary lymph nodes
- 3. Inguinal lymph nodes
- 4. Right lymphatic duct (where drainage occurs - only in blue portion of body)
- 5. Thoracic duct (where drainage occurs - only in non-blue portion of the body)
Name the lymph organs
- Lymph nodes - 3 major clusters (supraclavicular, axillary, inguinal)
- Thymus - contains loads of B&T lymphocytes
- Spleen - contains loads of B&T lymphocytes
Why are axillary lymph nodes also removed in woman who have had surgery for breast cancer?
The cancer metastasizes (spreads) exclusively via lymph channels
What is the term for lymph node enlargement?
lymphadenopathy (possibly cancerous (non-tender))
What is the term for lymph node infection / inflammation?
lymphadenitis (tender / painful)
What portion of the GI Tract is food (glucose and amino acids) absorbed?
Are triglycerides directly absorbed by the small intestine?
No, unlike glucose and amino acids which go directly into the liver, triglycerides go through the submucosal layer of the small intestine that then move on to specialized lymphatic channels (lacteals) that then move on to the heart
What is the one pathological condition, aside from cancer, that affects the lymphatic system?
What is the term for edema of the perotineal (abdominal) cavity?
What are the two sub-systems that make up the digestive system?
- GI Tract - approx. 30 foot long tubing from mouth to anus
- Biliary Tract - accesory organs of digestion (i.e. liver, pancreas, gallbladder)
What are the steps of the Digestion Process?
- 1. Mechanical Breakdown - makes food to smaller pieces
- 2. Chemical Breakdown - smaller pieces are further processed with digestive enzymes to breakdown to basic units of food (glucose, amino acids, triglycerides)
- 3. Absorption - basic units of food are absorbed
What is the function of the mouth?
- 1. Mechanical Breakdown (teeth, chewing / mastication)
- 2. Saliva ("adhesive" - the broken down food is made into clump / pocket called food bolus)
- Swallowing is voluntary
Identify the following
- 1. Esophagus - upper 2/3 is skeletal (voluntary) muscle, lower 1/3 is smooth (involuntary) muscles (peristalsis occurs in this portion)
- 2. Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) - a valvular sphincter muscle found between esophagus and stomach, prevents backward flow of food / acid to the esophagus
What is this condition called when there is a backward flow of food and acid back to the esophagus due to defective LES (lower esophageal sphincter)?
- GERD (gatsroesophageal reflux disease)
Chronic repetitive inflammation of digestive organs eventually will lead to what?
Identify the following
- 1. Cardia
- 2. Fundus - hiatal hernia happen in this region
- 3. Antrum
- 4. Pylorus
What is the function of stomach?
- 1. Acid production ("activates" digestive enzymes that are coming from biliary tract that are in an "inactive form"; acid production also has some breakdown ability (proteolytic enzyme activity) but not it's major function)
- 2. Mucus production (lines the interior of the stomach so the actions from the first function don't irritate the physical stomach)
- 3. Intrinsic Factor production (protein produced by distal stomach, binds to vitamin B12)
What is the cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?
H. Pylori (Helicobacter Pylori) - causes 99.8% of PUD cases
What is the condition called when one has a problem with producing B12?
Atrophic gastritis (which leads to Intrinsic Factor deficiency and then leads Pernicious Anemia)
Identify the following and their functions
- 1. Duodenum - responsible for chemical breakdown (digestive enzymes come from biliary tract (i.e. liver, gallbladder, pancreas - amylase breaks down carbs to disaccharides; lipase breaks down fats / lipids))
- 2. Jejunum - responsible for absorption
- 3. Ileum - responsible for absorption
What is the function of the terminal ileum?
Responsible for the absorption of vitamins and minerals (folate, iron, calcium, B12-IF)
What is the major pathological condition associated with the small intestine? Name some examples.
- Malabsorption - failure to absorb food
- Lactose intolerance (milk)
- Celiacs disease (gluten - wheat, rye, barley)
Nutrient are absorbed via small intestine. Where do they travel to?
Ulitmately the Liver, via Portal Circulation
What is the function of the large intestine?
- 1. Water absorption
- 2. Electrolyte absorption (Na (sodium), K (potassium)
When blood glucose is high (esp after a meal), liver enzymes convert glucose to glycogen (its storage form)
When blood glucose is low (esp during fasting), liver enzymes convert glycogen into glucose for instant energy utilization by the body
Liver enzymes convert amino acids into carbohydrate molecules for energy usage when carbohydrates stores in the body are low
What are the 3 P's of Diabetes?
- Polyuria - excessive amount of urine
- Polydipsia - excessive thrist
- Polyphagia - excessive hunger
What are some pathological conditions of the mouth?
- Aphthous ulcer (canker sores)
- Caries / Cavities
- HSV oral ulcers (Herpes Simplex Virus)
What are some pathological conditions of the stomach?
- Gastritis due to Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)
- Gastric ulcers due to H. Pylori
- Hiatal hernia - cardia portion of stomach herniates through the diaphram
What 3 common diseases that slow down peristalsis?
- Multiple Sclerosis
What are some pathological conditions of the small intestine?
- Peptic Ulcer Disease
- Small bowel obstruction - scar tissue formation due to multiple abdominal surgeries that cause twisting and curling of bowels which lead to obstruction
- Malabsorption Syndrome (i.e. lactose intolerance, Celiac disease)
- Ileus - temporary slowing down of peristalsis (due to trauma, drugs, viruses)
What are some pathological conditions of the large intestine?
- IBS (irritable bowel syndrome) - alternating periods of diarrhea and constipation
- Colitis (i.e. C. Difficile colitis due to excessive use of anitbiotics which result in malabsorption therefore, diarrhea)
What are some pathological diseases of the liver?
What are some pathologcial conditions of the pancreas?
What are the 4 steps, in order, for glucose to be converted to chemical energy (ATP)?
- 1. Glycolysis
- 2. TCA / Krebs Cycle
- 3. ETS (Electron Transport System)
- 4. Chemiosmosis
- (last 3 steps occur in the mitochondria)
The major source of energy produced during glucose and fat metabolism is carried by what?
NAD and FAD Molecules
What is the reason one takes vitamins and supplements?
They super charge biochemical functions
Can one only take vitamins to survive?
No, one need the basic units of food (glucose, amino acids, triglycerides)
In the process of carbohydrate metabolism if 1 glucose molecule enters this process, how many ATP's come out?
LDL + HDL + VLDL =?
TC (Total Cholesterol)
Fat metabolism involves all of the following except
B. Krebs cycle
C. ETS (electron transport system)
What is the primary source from food? secondary? tertiary?
- Primary: Glucose
- Seconday: Fats
- Tertiary: Proteins
What is the difference between absorptive state and postabsorptive state?
- Absorptive State - occurs after a meal, insulin shuttle glucose to liver and either uses it or stores it for later (glycogen)
- Postabsorptive State - during a fasting state (such as during sleep) to help maintain levels of glucose, glucagon releases glucose from storage to maintain body functions
Chopping down two carbon molecules at a time converting fatty acid to ATP's is a process called?
Fatty acid oxidation / metabolism
What is a by-product of fatty acid metabolism?
Ketones / Ketone bodies
A protein that speeds up (catalyzes) a biochemical reaction
Vitamins are separated in two categories, water-soluble and fat-soluble. Which vitamins are in each category?
- Water-soluble - All B vitamins and vitamin C (toxicity CAN occur when overtaking B's)
- Fat-soluble - A,D,E,K (toxicity CAN occur when overtaking any of these, hypervitaminosis syndrome)
Deficient in this vitamin can cause beriberi that affects the peripheral nervous system (1st signs: tingling / numbness, burning sensation at night, complete loss of sensation; 2nd signs: weakness, paralysis, atrophy)
Deficient in this vitamin can cause skin disease, GI disease, nerve disease, blood disease
Helps form NAD molecules
Deficiency of this vitamin can cause dermatitis (Pellagra), diarrhea, dementia
Persons with high cholesterol should take this
Lowers all types of bad cholesterol (LDL, VLDL)
Main side-effect is flushing (redness)
Excess amounts of this can cause Hypervitaminosis and abnormal liver enzyme test (hepatotoxicity)
Therapeutically used to prevent peripheral neuropathy in persons taking antituberculosis medication (INH)
Functions in maintianing RBC's bi-concave shape
Deficiency of this vitamin causes Pernicious Anemia
One of its functions is the maintain RBC's bi-concave shape
Deficiency of this vitamin can cause Megaloblastic Anemia
Pregnant women taking this can prevent neural tube defect (nerve disease)
Found in citrus fruits
Deficiency of this vitamin can cause a condition called Scurvy (defective / soft bone and other connective tissue)
Vitamin C Ascorbic Acid
Function to help vision
Deficiency of this vitamin can cause "night blindness"
Therapeutic benefits are to help with acne
Side effect of this is dry skin
*birth defects if pregnancy occurs
Vitamin A Transretinoic Acid
Functions to increase small intestine absorption of calcium
Deficiency of this vitamin will cause decrease absorption of calcium and a condition called Rickets (deficiency of bone growth / development)
Vitamin D Calciferol
One of its functions is aiding RBC formation
Excess amount of this vitamin can cause hemolytic anemia (RBC destruction)
Vitamin E α-tocopherol
Has a function in assisting clotting
Deficiency of this vitamin can cause a defective clotting mechanism
Vitamin K Medadione
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