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  1. What contamination level would we select for the "Runway Condition" in OPS with the following ATIS? "P" 010/10 KT 4SM -RA OVC 017 04/M01 A29.92 Depg 4L

    a. 1/4 inch slush
    b. 1/2 inch water
    c. 1/4 inch water
    d. Wet
  2. How do we know that we are in Non-Radar, Oceanic (Class II) Airspace?

    a. During and operation outside the useable range of standard navigational facilities (VORs) when ATC states, "Radar Services Terminated"
    b. Anytime ATC states "Radar Services Terminated"
    c. When your VOR receiver is deferred
    d. All of the answers are correct
  3. Flight Crews are required to comply with the Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP) during operations in WATRS Airspace when radar contact is terminated

    a. True
    b. False
  4. Which of the choices below is a true statement regarding proper logbook write=ups?

    a. A Post Flight Report can be substituted for a logbook entry
    b. You are not required to fill out a discrepancy in the logbook as long as you call maintenance control
    c. Logbook entries should be as descritive as possible
    d. Entering only the EICAS message into the logbook is usually enough information for Tech Ops
  5. When are we authorized to turn below 400' AFE on takeoff?

    a. When the turn is required by an airport specific takeoff procedure
    b. Doring ever normal departure
    c. Anytime, as long as it is discussed during the Departure Brief
    d. We are not authorized to turn below 400' AFE
  6. Upon receiving an aircraft, we find that the batteries are turned off, but the AC power is turned on. What should we do in this situation?

    a. Turn the batteries ON and proceed with the Receiving Checklist
    b. Do a complete Power Down and Power Up
    c. Nothing, this is the normal configuration at gate
    d. Disconnect the AC Power and wait for 2 minutes before proceeding with the receiving checklist
  7. During a descending RA, ATC gives you a clearance to climb for comflicting traffic. What should you do?

    a. Turn away from traffic in the shortest direction to avoid conflict
    b. Always follow RA commands
    c. Any option would suffice for traffic avoidance
    d. Always follow ATC instructions, regardless of RA commands
  8. When would you be required to execute the EGPWS escape maneuver during night or IMC conditions/

    a. When you hear "Sink Rate-Don't Sink"
    b. You are never required to perform the escaple maneuver
    c. when you herar "Glideslope"
    d. When you hear "Pull Up"
  9. When nust the Low Visibility Takeoff checklist in the QRH be referenced?

    a. When the takeoff visibility is sower thatn the Captain's Cat 1 landing minimums
    b. When the takeoff visibility is lower than published on the Jeppesen Airport (-9A) chart
    c. When the takeoff visibility is less than 5000 RVR or 1 mile
    d. When the Captain is on High Minimums
  10. While holking short of the active runway during SMGCS operations, a line up and wait clearance is issued by ATC. What action should be taken if the red Stop Bar is still illuminated?

    a. Below 1200 RVR, the Stop Bars remain on all the time. The clearance was issued, so proceed ontothe runway
    b. Taxi forward slowly, the Stop Bar should extinguish and the green Lead On lights will illuminate
    c. Continue holding short. Query ATC about the clearance and inform the controller that the Stop Bar is still illuminated
  11. When must we have two alternates listed on the dispatch release?

    a. When the forecast reports marginal wx (less than 600 and 2) at the destination and first alternate
    b. When we are dispatched under exemption 3585
    c. Both answers are correct
  12. If an airport has two standard CAT 1 ILS approaches available (each with minimums of 200 and 1/2), what is the lowest allowable reported weather which would qualify that airport as a legal alternate?

    a. Ceiling 600 and visibility 2 sm
    b. Ceiling 600 and visibility 1 1/2 sm
    c. Ceiling 400 and visibility 1 sm
    d. Ceiling 200 and visibility 1 sm
  13. If an airport has only one approach available (a standard CAT 1 ILS with minimums of 200 and 1/2) what is the lowest allowable reported weather which would qualify that airport as a legal alternate?

    a. Ceiling 600 and visibility 2 sm
    b. Ceiling 600 and visibility 1 1/2 sm
    c. Ceiling 400 and visibility 1 sm
    d. Ceiling 200 and visibility 1 sm
  14. Assuming a standard CAT 1 ILS approach (200 and 1/2) what destination forecast below requires the flight to be dispatched under Exemption 3583?

    a. KJFK TAF VRB03KT 1/4SM FG VV001 TEMPO 1316 1/2SM FG
    b. KJFK TAF VRB03KT 1/2SM FG VV001 TEMPO 1316 1/4M FG
    c. KJFK TAF VRB03KT 1/2SM FG VV001 BECMG 1316 1SM BR
    d. KJFK TAF VRB03KT 1SM BR OVC002 BECMG 1316 1/2SM FG
  15. While holding short of the active runway, the crew receives a "line up and wait" clearance. Prior to crossing the hold short line, the crew must:

    a. Complete the Before Takeoff Below the Line Checklist
    b. Complete the Before Takeoff Below the Line Flow
    c. Verity the assigned runway and verbally confirm clearance onto the active runway
    d. review the OPS turn note
  16. Does it matter who flies a PRM approach at JetBlue?

    A. Yes, the FO should act as PF so the CA can manage the situation
    b. Yes, the CA always acts as PF when flying a PRM approach
    C. No, either the CA or the FO may act as PF for a PRM approach
  17. During a PRM approach, you receive breakout instructions from ATC. The breakout maneuver must be flowm with Autopilot OFF

    a. True
    b. False
  18. During a PRM Approach, you hear the comtroller issue you the following clearance: "Traffic Alert-JetBlue 1234 turn right heading 300, descend and maintain 1600" At the same time your TCAS issues an RA warning of "Climb, Climb." What action should you take?

    a. Turn right to 300 and descend to 1600, following the ATC clearance
    b. Ignore ATC and climb straight ahead, following the TCAS RA only
    c. Turn right to 300 (per ATC) and climb (per the RA)
    d. Turn right to 300 but maintain current altitude, since the RA and ATC instructinos were opposite, they cancel each other out
  19. During the receiving checklist, you check the flight deck emergency equipment. Whem you check the PBE, what are you looking for to determene its serviceability?

    a. The freshness seal is smooth and unbroken
    b. The external white tape is intact, or the yellow serviceability indicator is visible through the window
    c. the yellow serviceability window illuminates when the TEST button is pressed
    d. The duct tape holding the case in a stwed position is not yellow
  20. The first memory item for Codkpit/cabin Smoke/Fumes is Oxygen Masks...ON, EMER, then 100%, What is the prupose of selecting the EMER setting?

    a. To purge the mask of smoke/Fumes
    b. To supply 100% recycled cabin air for oxygen conservation
    c. To allow for communication in the masks microphone
    d. To supply a mixture of cabin air and oxygen
  21. A quick way to locate Smoke/Fire checklists in the QRH is to...

    a. Look in the table of contents
    b. Look on the inside back cover
    c. All smoke/fire checklists are in the QRC, just go to the QRC
    d. Look for the red tab
  22. If a fire develops in a laptop computer in flight, the best method for fighting a lithium ion battery fire is:

    a. You should only use a non-halon fire extiguesher
    b. Put the smoking laptop inn am isolated area nd put ice on the computer to smother the fire and cool the batteries
    c. Use a halon fire extinguisher and then pour water on the computer to cool the batteries
    d. Cover the laptop with a blanket and put it in the lavatory to shield the passengers
  23. Why is it important to communicate with your inflight crew during a fire siruation?

    a. They can be helpful i assessing what's really going on
    b. They need time to complete their tasks
    c. You njeed to make sure that everyone is on the same page (use the TEST brief for this)
    d. All answers are correct
Card Set:
2011-10-13 01:16:30

E 190
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