QDL Spring 2011

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Author:
Woodchuck
ID:
108749
Filename:
QDL Spring 2011
Updated:
2011-10-13 15:25:50
Tags:
190
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Description:
E 190
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  1. You see a boxed "WSHEAR" displayed in the HUD, a red "WSHEAR" on the PFD, and you hear "Windshear, Windshear, Windshear!" What does thes indicate, and how should you respond?

    a. Windshear Alert- Continue approach
    b. Windshear advisory- Increasing performance (increasing headwind or decreasing tailwind). Monitor vertical speed fluctuations
    c. Windshear Caution- Monitor airspeed fluctuations for loss of performance, be prepared to go-around
    d. Windshear Warning- Decreasing performance (decreasing headwind or increasing tailwind). Execute the windshear Recovery maneuver
    d
  2. You see and unboxed "WSHEAR" displayed in the HUD, an amber "WSHEAR" on the PFD, and you hear "Caution, Windshear." What does this indicate, and how should you respond?

    a. Windshear Alert- Continue the approach if the field is in sight
    b. Windshear Advisor- Increasing performance (increasing headwind or decreasing tailwind). Monito vertical speed fluctuations
    c. Windshear Caution- Increasing performance (increasing headwind and updrafts.) Be prepared to Go Around based on existing conditions
    d. Windshear Warning- Decreasing performance (decreasing headwind or increasing tailwind). Execute the windshear Recovery maneuver
    c
  3. What actoins are required for a Windshear Reconvery?

    a. Apply Max Thrust, Press TOGA, Disconnect AP/ATs, pitch to 20 degrees, and retract speedbrakes
    b. Apply Max Thrust, Press TOGA, Disconnect AP/ATs, follow Flight Director Guedance, and retract Speedbrakes
    c. Turn the Autopilot OFF and follow the Flight Director
    d. Set Thrust to the TOGA detent, Disconnect AP/ATs, follow Flight Director Guedance, and retract Speedbrakes
    b
  4. When considering turbulence, what tools would be helpful in the pre-departure phase of flight?

    a. SIGMETS, AIRMETS
    b. Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
    c. Dispatch Release
    d. All of the above
    d
  5. What is the Turbulent Air Penetraton Speed at or above 10,000 feet?

    a. 270 KIAS/ .76 MACH
    b. 275 KIAS/ .76 MACH
    c. 250 KIAS/ .74 MACH
    d. 290 KIAS/ .78 MACH
    a
  6. Flight into areas of known volcanic ash is prohibited at all times

    a. True
    b. False
    a
  7. What are the linitation(s) if flight routing is planned within 50 NM horizontally of a know Volcanic Ash area during IMC or night operations?

    a. The routing shall be downwind of the ash
    b. The routing shall be upwind of the ash
    c. The routing shall be at a flight level well below the volcanic ash cloud
    d. There are no limitations during the planning stages
    b
  8. Enroute, if a flight crew is given a re-route through an area of forecast Volcanic Ash, shat are the linitations the crew has to comply with during day VMC?

    a. Fly above and / or upwind
    b. Fly upwind of the area
    c. Remain clear of clouds
    d. Remain more that 50 NM horizontally at all times
    c
  9. What indication(s) are not associated with a Volcanic Ash encounter?

    a. Weather Radar returns
    b. Airspeed indication fluctuations
    c. Odor similar to electrical smoke or fire
    d. Engine surge or flameour
    a
  10. What is the appropriate crew response during an encouter with Vocanic Ash?

    a. Immediatly climb out of the area
    b. Comply with the Volcanic Ash Encounter QRH
    c. Increase speed and turn in the shortest direction to exit area
    d. Use the radar and navigate through the areas with the lightest returns
    b
  11. How long of a delay would be apporpriate when departing behind a "heavy" aircraft to avoid Wake Turbulence?

    a. No delay needed. Wake Turbulance only affects small aircraft
    b. 30 second
    c. 2 minutes or 5 miles radar separatoin
    d. 1 minute
    c
  12. What actions are required for a Nose Low Unusual Attitide Recovery?

    a. Thrust as appropriate, AP disconnect, increase or maintaim bank angle to allow the nose to drop toward the horizon, roll wings level as the nose is approaching the horizon
    b. Thrust as appropriate, AP disconnect, roll toa wings level attitude, and pich to the horizon
    c. Pitch to 20 degrees and follow the Flight Director
    d. Reduce Thrust/ Speed Brakes as req, AP disconnect, roll towards bank indicator, raise nose toward horizon
    d
  13. In the event of an engine failure after takeoff, when must we fly the OPS Turn Note procedure?

    a. Always
    b. Only if ATC authorizes the modified departure
    c. If the engine failure occurs prior to the first turn
    d. If the engine fails after a turn on the SID is initiated
    c
  14. While running the Ditching QRH, the checklist states: "EVACUATION...INITIATE." At this point,

    a. The FO should transition over to the EVACUATION QRC and hold it for the Captain
    b. The Captain should call, "Easy Victor, Easy Victor"
    c. The crew whould grab their life vests and begin evaciuating
    d. The cabin team will begin to find the ELT's
    b
  15. In a water evacuation, the FO's first post ditching duty is to:

    a. Assist the Inflight Crew in the cabin to ensure that all custoners have been safely evacuated
    b. Review the checklist to ensure no important steps were skipped while executing the ditching procedure
    c. Exit the aircraft immediately and take charge outside until relieved be the Captain
    d. Assist the Inflight Crew with raft deployment
    c
  16. In a water evacuation, the Captain's first post ditching duty is to:

    a. Go to the cabin and take charge of the passenger evacuation
    b. Review the checklist to ensure no important steps were skipped while executing the ditching procedure
    c. Exit the aircraft immediatly and take the hand-held fire extinguisher to fight any possible fires
    d. Assist the Inflight Crew with raft deployment
    a
  17. In the event of a water evacuation, when should your life vest be inflated?

    a. Before leaving the cockpit
    b. Once the Cabin Team makes the command, "Inflate vests"
    c. Anytime it is convenient and not restrictive to the crewmember
    d. After exiting the aircraft or just prior to getting into the raft
    d
  18. If a life vest fails to inflate after pulling the red tabs, can the vest still be inflated?

    a. Yes; backup CO2 cartridges are installed in the liner of the vest
    b. No; the vest must be taken off and exchanged for a new one
    c. Yes; By blowing into the tubes located on the sides of the vest
    d. No; the vest is useless and you should try to get another one
    c
  19. After getting everyone into the life raft, and cutting the cord, the next appropreate step is to:

    a. Ensure all life vests are deflated to make more room
    b. Start collecting sea water for the onboard solar still
    c. Pull in the survival kit and reference the raft manual
    d. Find out if any of the survivors are good at fishing
    c
  20. When trying to determine the need to evacuate following an engine fire indication on the ground,

    a. The FO should focus on running the appropriate QRC/QRH
    b. The Captain should get additional information to help assess the sitation from ATC or CFR
    c. The Captaim should get additional information to help assess the situation form the Cabin Team
    d. All of these answers are correct
    d
  21. whick of the following evacuation-related commands is used be the Captain if an evacuation is deemed not necessary?

    a. "Remain Seated, Remain Seated"
    b. "Easy Victor, Easy Victor"
    c. "Remain in the Cabin"
    d. "Cabin Crew at Stations"
    a
  22. normal cabin door operation is something pilots don't do on a regular basis. What could you reference in order to safely operate the door on a ferry flight?

    a. The Ferry/ Charter Flight/ Ground Reposition QRH
    b. The placard located at every door
    c. FCOM Volume 1
    d. The FOM
    b
  23. To open the door normally, how can you confirm that you have successfully disarmed the escape slide?

    a. Confirm the Girt Bar indication is red
    b. Confirm that the "Vent Flaps" are open
    c. Confirm the door indicatiors are green
    d. Confirm the slide indication show "Disarmed" in green
    d
  24. The Severe Weather/Windshear decision aid may be found in

    a. The Flight Operation Manual convective weather section
    b. The weather section of hte Dispatch Release
    c. The Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)
    d. The approved Programs Manual (APM)
    C
  25. Which of the following conditions (within 15 miles of the airport) constitute a possible reason to review the Sever Weather/ windshear decision aid in the QRH?

    a. Localized Strong Winds
    b. Greater than/ equal to Moderate Turbulence
    c. LLWAS reported
    d. All of these conditions
    d
  26. A radar echo with a shadow behind it is indicative of severe weather

    a. True
    b. False
    a
  27. Use of the weather readar is either required or strongly advocated when:

    a. All of these are true
    b. Flying along routes or in areas where convective activity is forecast or exists (required)
    c. Operating in reduced visibility if connvective activity is possible (strongly advocated)
    d. At night if there is an expectation of convective buildups (required). or over water (strongly advocated)
    a
  28. How is the "Parked position" selected on the radar?

    a. The tilt should be set to 0 degrees and any significant weather should be on the radar display
    b. Adjust the tilt so that ground returns are painted on the outer 1/3 of the radar display
    c. Select ground mapping mode and avaoid all red areas
    d. Set the gain control to the parked position on the radar control panel
    b
  29. Strong radar echoes-those with sharply defined edges and/or contour indications of heavy precipitation- should be avided by at least:

    a. 10 miles
    b. 15 miles
    c. 20 miles
    d. 30 miles
    c
  30. A Microburst Alert has been issued for the runway you are being vectored to for approach, What action is required by the flight crew?

    a. No specific action required
    b. Delay approach unless able to maintain 3NM separation from severe weather while the aircraft is below 1000 feet
    c. Accept the approach clearance after a 10 minute delay
    d. Do not land until conditions improve
    d

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