OB practice questions

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Author:
plbernal
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108755
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OB practice questions
Updated:
2011-10-16 17:11:00
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nclex OB female reproductive system assessment labor delivery etc
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NCLEX questions over maternity nursing
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  1. A nursing student is preparing a prenatal class on the process of fetal circulation. The nursing instructor asks the student specifically to describe the process through the umbilical cord. Which of the following statements from the student is correct?

    A) "The one artery carries freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placenta to the fetus."
    B) "The two arteries in the umbilical cord carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta."
    C) "The two veins in the umbilical cord carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste products away from the fetus to the placenta."
    D) "The two arteries carry freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placenta to the fetus."
    B) "The two arteries in the umbilical cord carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta."

    Rationale: Blood pumped by the embryo's heart leaves the embryo through two umbilical arteries. When oxygenated, the blood is returned by one umbilical vein. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus, and veins carry oxygenated blood and provide oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A nursing student is assigned to care for a client in labor. A nursing instructor asks the student to describe the fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. The nursing instructor determines that the student understands fetal ciurculation if the student states that the ductus venosus:

    A) Connects the pulmonary artery tot he aorta.
    B) Is an opening between the right and left atria.
    C) Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
    D) Connects the unbilical artery to the inferior vena cava.
    C) Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.

    Rationale: The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the sex of her baby as soon as it can be determained. The nurse understands that the client should be able to find out at 12 weeks' gestation because by the end of the twelth week:

    A) The sex of the fetus can be determined because the internal differences in males and females become apparent.
    B) The sex of the fetus can be determined because the testes are descended int o the scrotal sac.
    C) The sex of the fetus can be determained by the appearance of the external genitalia.
    D) The sex of the fetus can be determined because the external genitalia begins to differentiate.
    C) The sex of the fetus can be determained by the appearance of the external genitalia.

    Rationale: By the end of the twelfth week, the external genitalia of the fetus have developed to such a degree that the sex of the fetus can be determined visually.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A nurse is performing an assessement on a client who is at 38 weeks' gestation and notes that the fetal heart rate is 174 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, the appropriate nursing action is to:

    A) Notify the physician.
    B) Document the finding.
    C) Check the mother's heart rate.
    D) Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal.
    A) Notify the physician.

    Rationale: The fetal heart rate depends on gestational age and ranges from 160 to 170 beats/min in the first trimester, but slows the fetal growth to 120 to 160 beats/min near or at term.At or near term, if FHR is less than 120 beats/min or more than160 beats/min with the uterus at rest, the fetus may be in distress. Because the FHR is increased from the reference range, the nurse should notify the physician.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The nurse is conduction a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a client in the class asks why the fertilized egg stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days, the nurse responds that the reason for this is that it:

    A) Promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus.
    B) Promotes the fertilized ovum's chances of survival.
    C) Promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to estrogen and progesterone.
    D) Promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.
    A) Promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion of the uterus.

    Rationale: The tubal isthmus remains contracted until 3 days after conception to allow the fertilized ovum to develop within the tube. This initial growth of the fertilized ovum promotes its normal implantation in the fundal portion of the uterine corpus. Estrogen is a hormone produced by the ovariuan follicles, corpus luteum, ordrenal cortex,a nd placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary, adrenal glands and placenta during pregnancy. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are excreted by the anterior pituitary gland. the survival of the fertilized ovum does not depend on its staying in the fallopian tube for 3 days.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A nursing instructor is reviewing the menstrual cycle with a nursing student who will be conducting a prenatal teaching session. The instructor asks the student to describe the follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinzing hormone (LH). The student accurately responds by stating that:

    A) FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
    B) FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy.
    C) FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands.
    D) FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary.
    A) FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.

    Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle,a nd production of progesterone.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A couple comes to the family planning clinic and asks about sterilization procedures. Whish question by the nurse would determine if this nethod of family planning would be appropriate?

    A) "Does either of you have diabetes mellitus?"
    B) "Has either of you ever had surgery?"
    C) "Do you plan to have any other children?"
    D) "Does either of you have problems with high blood pressure?"
    C) "Do you plan to have any other children?"

    Rationale: Sterilization is a method of contraception for couples who have completed their families. It should be considered a permanent end to fertility because reversal surgery is not always successful.the nurse should ask the couple about their plans for having children in the future.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A nurse should explain which of the following to a pregnant client found to have a gyencoid pelvis?

    A) That she will need a cesarean section because this type of pelvis is not favorable for a normal labor and vaginal delivery.
    B) That her type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but has a short diameter.
    C) That her type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch.
    D) That her type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth.
    D) That her type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth.

    Rationale: A gynecoid pelvis is a normal female pelvis and is the most favorable for successful labor and birth. An android pelvis resembles a male pelvis and would be unfavorable for labor because of the narrow pelvic planes. An anthropoid pelvis has an outlet that is adequate, with a normal or moderately narrow pubic arch. a platypelloid pelvis is flat and has a wide transverse diameter, but the anteroposterior diameter is short, making the outlet inadequate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A nurse explains some of the purposes of the placenta to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse determines that the client understands some of these purposes when the client states that the placenta:

    A) Maintains the temperature of the baby.
    B) Cushions and protects the baby.
    C) Prevents all antibodies and viruses from passing to the baby.
    D) Is the way the baby gets food and oxygen.
    D) Is the way the baby gets food and oxygen.

    Rationale: The placenta provides an exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and the fetus. The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus and maintains the body temperature of the fetus. Nutrients, drugs, antibodies, and viruses can pass through the placenta.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to list the functions of the amniotic fluid. The student responds correctly by stating that which of the following are functions of amniotic fluid? Select all that apply.

    A) Allows for fetal movement.
    B) Is a measure of kidney function.
    C) Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus.
    D) Maintains the body temperature of the fetus.
    E) Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus.
    F) Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.
    • A) Allows for fetal movement.
    • B) Is a measure of kidney function.
    • C) Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus.
    • D) Maintains the body temperature of the fetus.

    Rationale: The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus. It allows the fetus to move freely, maintains the body temperature of the fetus, and helps assess kidney function because it contains urine from the fetus. the placena prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus and provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.
  11. A nurse is performing an assessment of a pregnant client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse measures the fundal height in centimeters and expects the finding to be which of the following?

    A. 22cm
    B. 30cm
    C. 36cm
    D. 40cm
    • B. 30cm
  12. A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a healthy 5-year old child who was delivered at 38 weeks and tells the nurse that she does not have a history of any type of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would document the GTPAL for this client as

    A) G=3, T=2, P=0, A=0, L=1
    B) G=2, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
    C) G=1, T=1, P=1, A=0, L=1
    D) G=2, T=0, P=0, A=0, L=1
    • B) G=2, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
  13. A pregnant client is seen in a health care clinic for a regular prenatal visit. the client tells the nurse that she is experiencing irregular contractions, and the nurse determines that she is experiencing Braxton Hicks contractions. Based on this finding which nursing actions is appropriate?

    A) Instruct the client to maintain bedrest for the remainder of the pregnancy.
    B) Contact the physician.
    C) Inform the client that these contractions are common and may occur throughout the pregnancy.
    D) Call the maternity unit and inform them that the client will be admitted in a prelabor condition.
    C) Inform the client that these contractions are common and may occur throughout the pregnancy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A single young-adult woman received instructions from the nurse regarding the use of an oral contraceptive. The woman demonstrates a need for further instructions if she:

    A) Stops asking her sexual partners to use condoms for spermicide.
    B) Takes a pill every morning.
    C) States her menstrual periods should be shorter with less blood loss.
    D) Uses a barrier method of birth control if she misses two or more pills.
    A) Stops asking her sexual partners to use condoms for spermicide.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Oral contraception in the form of a combination of low-dose estrogen and progesterone:

    A) Is 90% effective in preventing pregnancy when used correctly.
    B) Prevents the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
    C) Reduces the pH of cervical mucus, thereby destroying sperm.
    D) Protects against iron deficiency anemia by reducing menstrual blood loss.
    D) Protects against iron deficiency anemia by reducing menstrual blood loss.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. For some women the most distressing side effect of prgestin-only contraception is:

    A) Nausea
    B) Headache
    C) Nervousness
    D) Irregular vaginal bleeding.
    D) Irregular vaginal bleeding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. A 36-year old woman has chosen depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA, Depo-provera) as the method of contraception most suitable for her lifestyle. Which statement made by the woman indicates the lack of understanding and a need for further instructions by the nurse?

    A) "This method will result in a smaller amount of thicker cervical mucus."
    B) "I am going to watch my diet and exercise, because weight gain is common."
    C) "If I plan to continue with the Depo-Provera, I should have my bone density assessed."
    D) "I will need to receive another injection every 4 weeks."
    D) "I will need to receive another injection every 4 weeks."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A woman with an intrauterine device (IUD) should confirm its placement by checking the IUD's string:

    A) At the time of ovulation
    B) During menstrual bleeding
    C) After each menstrual period
    D) After intercourse
    C) After each menstrual period
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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