Hematology Quiz: 7

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Anonymous
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Hematology Quiz: 7
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2011-10-16 18:25:29
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from BOC Hematology Pg 194 201
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Q & A from the BOC for Hematology. Pg. 194-201
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  1. Coagulation factors affected by warfarin (Coumadin) drugs are:
    a) VIII, IX, AND X
    b) I, II,V,AND VII
    c) II, VII, IX, and X
    d) II, V, AND VII
    c) II, VII, IX, and X
  2. Which one of the following statements concerning Vitamin K is not true?

    a) there are 2 sources of Vitamin K; Vegetabke and bacterial
    b) Vitamin K converts precursor molecule into functional coagulation factors
    c) Haperin inhibits the action of Vitamin K
    d) Vitamine K is fat soluble
    c) Haperin inhibits the action of Vitamin K
  3. Which of the following is Vitamin K dependent?
    a) Factor XII
    b) fibrinogen
    c) antithrombim III
    d) Factor VII
    d) Factor VII
  4. Which of the following factors is used only in the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
    a) II
    b) V
    c) VII
    d) VIII
    c) VII
  5. Hageman Factor (XII) is involved in each of the following reactions except:
    a) activation of C1 to C1 esterase
    b) activation of plaminogen
    c) activation of Factor XI
    d) transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin
    d) transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin
  6. Prothrombin is:
    a) a protein formed by the liver in the presence of Vitamin K
    b) an enzyme that converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads
    c) the end product of the reaction between fibrinogen and thrombin
    d) a protein released by platelets during coagulation
    a) a protein formed by the liver in the presence of Vitamin K.
  7. Which of the following coagulation factors is considered to be labile?
    a) II
    b) V
    c) VII
    d) X
    b) V
  8. The most potent plasminogen activator in the contact phase of coagulation is:
    a) kallikrein
    b) streptokinase
    c) HMWK
    d) fibrinogen
    a) kallikrein
  9. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no bleeding or only a minot bleeding tendency, even after trauma or surgery?
    a) Factor X
    b) Factor XII
    c) Factor XIII
    d) Factor V
    b) Factor XII
  10. Which of the following is a characteristic of Factor XII deficiency?
    a) negative bleeding history
    b) normal clotting times
    c) decreased rist of thrombosis
    d) epistaxis
    a) negative bleeding history
  11. The 2 factors that differentiate liver disease from Vitamin K deficeincy are:
    a) II and VII
    b) IX and VII
    c) VIII and IX
    d) V and VII
    d) V and VII
  12. Which one of the following factors typically shows an increase in liver disease?
    a) Factor VII
    b) Factor VIII
    c) Factor IX
    d) Factor X
    b) Factor VIII
  13. A patient has a normal prothrombin time and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) using a kaolin activator. The APTT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These results suggest that the patient has:
    a) hemophilia A ( Factor VIII deficeincy)
    b) Hageman Factor (XII) deficiency
    c) Fletcher Factor deficiency (prekallikrein)
    d) Factor V deficiency
    c) Fletcher Factor deficiency (prekallikrein)
  14. A hemophiliac make and a normal female can produce a:
    a) female carrier
    b) male carrier
    c) male hemophiliac
    d) normal female
    a) female carrier
  15. Hemophilia B is a sex-linked recessive disorder that presents with a decrease in Factor:
    a) VIII
    b) IX
    c) X
    d) XI
    b) IX
  16. Plasma from a patient with lupus coagulation inhibitor can show:
    a) a prolonged APTT and normal PT
    b) a prolonged thrombin time
    c) no change with platelet neutralization
    d) complete correction when incubated wtih normal plasma
    a) prolonged APTT and normal PT
  17. The activation of plaminogen to plasmin resulting in the degradation of fibrin occurs by:
    a) PAI-1
    b) alpha 2 antiplasmin
    c) tPA
    d) alpha 2 macroglobulin
    c) tPA
  18. A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following?
    a) prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
    b) decreased fibrogen level (<100 mg/dL [<1.0 g/L])
    c) increased risk of thrombosis
    d) spontaneous hemorrhage
    c) increased risk of thrombosis
  19. Biological assays for antithrombin III (AT III) are based on the inhibition of:
    a) Factor VIII
    b) heparin
    c) serine proteases
    d) anti-ATIII globulin
    c) serine proteases
  20. A patient present with a low Protein S activity, antigen and free antigen. The C4b binding protein is normal. This is classified as:
    a) no deficiency
    b) Type I
    c) Type II
    d) Type III
    b) Type I
  21. APC resistance is confirmed by the molecular test for:
    a) PAI 1 4G/5G
    b) MTHFR
    c) FVL
    d) G20210A
    c) FVL
  22. Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by:
    a) hypofibrinogenemia
    b) thrombocytosis
    c) negative D-dimer
    d) shortened thrombin time
    a) hypofibrinogenemia
  23. The prothrombine time test requires that the patient's citrated plasma be combined with:
    a) platelet lipids
    b) thromboplastin
    c) Ca++ and platelet lipids
    d) Ca++ and thromboplastin
    d) Ca++ and thromboplastin
  24. In the APTT test, the patient's plasma is mixed with:
    a) ADP and calcium
    b) tissue thromboplastin and collagen
    c) phospholipid and calcium
    d) tissue thromboplastin and calcium
    c) phospholipid and calcium
  25. The APTT:
    a) tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway
    b) monitors Coumadin therapy
    c) requires tissue thromboplastin
    d) monitors heparin therapy
    d) monitors heparin therapy
  26. Aliquots of plasma with a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT are mixed using various rations of patient plasma and normal plasma. All samples are incubated at 37 celcious and tested at 10-, 30-, and 60 minute intervals. The PT and APTT results on all of the mixtures are corrected. These results would indicate the presence of:
    a) circulating anticoagulant
    b) factor deficiency
    c) contaminated reagent
    d) antibodies
    c) factor deficiency
  27. A patient is taking 10 mg per day of Coumadin (warfarin). The results of which of the following lab tests will be most impacted?
    a) protein C level
    b) antithrombin III level
    c) Factor V Leiden mutation
    d) Factor VIII level
    a) protein C level
  28. A patient's thrombin time is 25.5 sec, and the control is 11.5 sec. The patient's plasma is mixed with an equal part of normal plasma. The thrombin time is rerun and is 28.0 sec with a control of 11.5 sec. These results indicate:
    a) fibrinogen deficiency
    b) thrombocyte antibodies present
    c) Factor VII deficiency
    d) circulating anticoagulant
    d) circulating anticoagulant
  29. A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase-R time are characteristic of:
    a) dysfibrinogenemia
    b) increased D-dimer
    c) fibrin monomer-split product complexes
    d) therapeutic heparinization
    d) therapeutic heparinization
  30. A 54-year old man was admitted with pulmonary embolism and given streptokinase. Which of the following would be most useful in monitoring this therapy?
    a) activated partial thromboplastin time
    b) bleeding time
    c) prothrombin time
    d) thrombin time
    d) thrombin time
  31. The best test to determin if a sample is contaminated with heparin is:
    a) fibrinogen
    b) thrombin time
    c) prothrombin time
    d) stypven time
    b) thrombin time
  32. In the Clauss fibrinogen method, the time to clot formation in plasma is measured after the addition of:
    a) calcium
    b) thrombin
    c) phospholipids
    d) kaolin
    b) thrombin
  33. If a patient presents with a prolonged APTT that does not correct upon mixing, the next performed should be:
    a) Factor II
    b) DRVVT
    c) Factor VIII
    d) platelet count
    b) DRVVT
  34. Excess D-dimer indicate that clots have been:
    a) converted to fibrin monomers
    b) released into circulation
    c) formed and are being excessively lysed
    d) stimulated to activate platelets
    d) formed and are being excessively lysed
  35. D-dimers are produced from:
    a) cross-linked and stabilized fibrin clot
    b) decreased fibrinogen and platelets
    c) plasminogen converting to plasmin
    d) generation of thrombin from enothelial cells
    a) cross-linked and stabilized fibrin clot
  36. Which of the following lab procedure is most helpful in differentiating severe liver disease and accompanying secondary fibrinolysis from disseminated intravascular coagulation?
    a) presence of fibrin split products
    b) increased APTT
    c) Factor VIII activity
    d) fibrinogen level
    c) Factor VIII activity
  37. A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the:
    a) activated clotting time
    b) stypven time
    c) reptilase time
    d) partial thromboplastin time
    a) activated clotting time
  38. Which of the following lab findings is associated with Factor XIII deficiency?
    a) prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time
    b) clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution
    c) prolonged thrombin time
    d) prolonged prothrombin time
    b) clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution
  39. Heparin acts by:
    a) precipitatin fibrinogen
    b) binding calcium
    c) activating plasmin
    d) inhibiting thrombin
    d) inhibiting thrombin
  40. Low molecular weight heparin is monitored by a:
    a) anti-Xa assay
    b) APTT
    c) PT
    d) anti- IIa assay
    d) anti- IIa assay

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