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  1. What squadrons form the MXG
    MOS, MXS, AMXS, and QA
  2. For whom does QA directly work?
    MXG commander
  3. How does QA identify negative trends and problem areas?
    Through evaluation and/or inspection
  4. The MOS is directly responsible to the MXG commander for which tasks to support the group production effort?
    The necessary administraion, analysis, training management, and programs and resources
  5. What is the main function of the MOC?
    To monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production, and execution of the flying and maintencance schedules, and maintain visibility of fleet health indicatiors
  6. What is crucial for the MOC to comply with reporting requirements and to identify potential problems?
    The exhange of detailed information between squadrons and the MOC
  7. The maintencance squadron may be divided into which two squadrons?
    CMS and EMS
  8. If you are assigned to the MXS or CMS/EMS, under which two flights might you be assigned?
    Propulsion flight (off-equipment maintenance) or the maintenance flight (phase inspections)
  9. What types of tasks does the propulsion flight perform?
    Engine/module/acessory disassembly, assembly, test, and repair
  10. If you are assigned to a specialist flight in the aircraft maintenance squadron, which engine tasks may you be required to accomplish?
    Troubleshooting engine malfunctions, component removal and replacement, compressor washes, performing inspections, and servicing
  11. What is the purpose of the CFETP?
    To provide career field managers, training managers, supervisors, and trainers with the framework to plan, develop, conduct, manage, and evaluate an effective, productive, and efficient career field-training program
  12. What does the fourth posistion of the AFSC 3A652 represent?
    Skill Level
  13. What is your title when you obtain the 5-skill level?
  14. What skill level would you possess when you obtain the title "Superintendent?"
  15. How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend ALS?
    48 months
  16. Why should you keep your CDC's after you've completed them?
    So you can study them when you prepare to test for SSgt.
  17. When you are promoted to the rank of TSgt, what school must you attend?
    Noncommissioned Officer Academy
  18. At what skill level is and airman expected to fill positions such as flight chief or producation supervisor?
    Superintendent (9-level)
  19. What is the purpose and goal of the AFOSH Program?
    To ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees; its ultimate goal is to protect them from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses.
  20. What series of AFOSH standards govern occupational safety?
    91-series of AF instructions.
  21. What office would you contact if you have questions regarding an unsafe condition?
    Safety Office
  22. What is the purpose of safety in the work area?
    To prevent personal injury and damage to equipment, and to save time and money
  23. How can most hazardous situations be avoided?
    By simply following procedures, asking for help when needed, and using personal protective equipment.
  24. List four good housekeeping practices
    • -wiping up spills
    • -Picking up oily rags and returning them to container
    • -picking up fod
    • -getting rid of clutter
  25. How should you lift a heavy or bulky object?
    Keep your back straight, squat down, and then use your leg and arm muscles to provide the lifting power
  26. How is quality maintenance defined?
    Meeting or exceeding aersoapce equpiment technical specifications and a customer's requirements through the effective integration of management; people; technical data; workplace; and equipment, supplies, and services
  27. On what aspects of performing maintencance must all levels of supervision place emphasis?
    Safety, quality, and timeliness
  28. What types of maintenance actions are prohibited?
    Shorctus or incomplete maintenance actions
  29. What does maintenance discipline require of maintenance personnel?
    To display integrity and comply with all written guidance.
  30. What will happen to personnel who fail to uphold maintenance discipline?
    they will be held accountable
  31. What two things should you check to ensure the aircraft is safe for you to perform maintenance?
    Check the aircraft forms and check with other personnel located around and onboard the aircraft
  32. Which aircraft forms should you check for entries that may prevent you from starting your assigned task?
    AFTO Forms 781H and 781A
  33. Why should you check with other people working inside or outside of the aircraft prior to starting maintenance?
    They might not have put the proper entries in the forms before starting their tasks
  34. What form is documented to identify an armed aircraft?
    AFTO Form 781H
  35. What are three types of equipment that produce radio frequency radiation?
    Hight frequency radio transmitters, radar, and electronic countermeasure devices
  36. What are the primary danger areas that exist around an operating engine?
    Propellers, engine intakes and exhausts, turbine wheel, and starter planes of rotation and high frequency noise
  37. When a propeller is running, what are its two most dangerous areas?
    the plane of rotation and the axis of rotation
  38. What causes the danger area in front of the intake of an operating engine
    the suction effect
  39. what is the minimum safe distance that should be established to avoid the effects of an exhaust blast?
    200 feet to the rear of the aircraft
  40. what is the best way to protect youself from noise levels that can cause permanent hearing loss?
    wear both earplugs and headsets
  41. why should personnel exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of a helicopter's main rotor blades?
    because they tend to droop at decreased speeds
  42. when approaching or leaving a helicopter with blades rotating, what two things should maintenance personnel remember?
    all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot or helicopter operator and keep in a crouched position
  43. what are the primary factors that create static electricity?
    differenct movements or motion
  44. what is effective grounding?
    providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point in the earth
  45. what is the purpose of bonding?
    to eliminate the differentials in electrical charges that exist or are generated between a component and the aircraft, or between two components
  46. at the locations where a bonding wire is attached, what surface requirements must be met?
    the surface must be clean and unpainted
  47. what should you do if the clothing you are wearing becomes soaked with fuel?
    remove you clothes and shower immediately with plenty of soap and water. allow the clothing to air dry, and then launder it with soap and water
  48. what conditions could result from excessive inhalation of fuel or chemicals?
    heachaches, dizziness, loss of muscular coordination, and unconsciousness
  49. why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD?
    the damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or in a worst-case scenario, someones's life
  50. what can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway?
    an aircraft engine can ingest them through its intake
  51. Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program?
    Maintenance group commander
  52. What must all worders account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action?
    their tools
  53. What should you wear when you are required to physically enter an intake or exhaust?
    pocketless coveralls (bunny suit)
  54. what should you do when you suspect that an item is lost on an aircraft and it is in an area where it can cause damage?
    immediately place a red X symbol in the AFTO 781A and an entry describing the situation. then search for it
  55. To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair?
    Base Airfield Manager
  56. Into what two categories are hazardous materials divided?
    Health Hazards and physical hazards
  57. What is the purose of the Hazard communication program?
    To reduce the occurrences of occupational illnesses and injuries by informing all personnel of the hazards associted with, and the proper preventitive measures to be taken, when they're using or handling hazardous materials
  58. Toxic materials are divided into what three general physcial classifications?
    Gases and vapors, liquids, and solids
  59. What type of gas are we frequently exposed to during test cell and flightline operations?
    Carbon Monoxide
  60. Which physcial form of hazardous material enters the body easily and can cause rapid toxic reactions?
    Gaseous forms
  61. What is the key factor in making the PPE program successful?
    your acceptance
  62. What is a critical factor in PPE maintenance?
    Inspecting the PPE before and after each use
  63. What is normally used to clean most protective equipment?
    Mild soap and water
  64. When you store PPE, from what are you protecting them?
    Sunlight, heat, extreme cold, and excessive moisture, and mechanical damage
  65. What should the design of a hazardous storage area allow for?
    Inspection of each container for leaks and deterioration, and for the transfer of container contents in case container damage occurs
  66. When removing spilled or leaking hazardous materials from the storage area, what should you never do
    never place incompatible types in the same container
  67. What information must hazard-warning labels include?
    Name and identiy of the chemical and all appropriate hazard warnings
  68. For stationary hazard containers, what can be sued in place of a label?
  69. An MSDS is required to be available for every type of material recorded on what document
    hazardous chemical inventory
  70. Where can you find the proper procedures for disposing of hazardous waste materials?
  71. What are the ways hazardous wastes can be disposed of properly?
    Chemical-physical treatment, biodegradation, incineration, land disposal, and off-site contract disposal
  72. What is the purpose of the maint. supply system?
    To procure, stock and issue millions of items to thousands of customers worldwide
  73. What areas of major weapon systems do RSSs manage?
    Aircraft, engines, communications, test stands, aerospace ground equipment, vehicles, and pods.
  74. What is the standard base supply system?
    An accounting system consisting of standardized computer equip. , programs, procedures, and supply policy
  75. What are the three primary points of contact within Base Supply?
    • Customer service
    • Demand processing
    • Euip. management
  76. What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
    DIFM assests
  77. What base supply function manages the repair cycle system?
  78. What is the purpose of the repair cycle system?
    To establish a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base-level or sent to a repair facility as soon as possible
  79. When does the repair cycle time of an item start and stop?
    It starts when the unserviceable item is removed from the engine and a demand is make on Base Supply for a replacement. It stops once its returned to supply
  80. When you route a part to be repaired through RCSS, which part of the AFTO form 350 do they need?
    The bottom portion, Part II
  81. What types of items generally require complete depot level overhaul?
    • A. items that time expired
    • B: items involved in a weapon system accient
    • C: items which have evidence of contamination
    • D: when the condition could not be determined
  82. List three of the important supply documents that you may uitlize?
    • DO4
    • D18
    • D23
    • M30
  83. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by supply?
  84. Which supply document provides data by which to mointor due-outs and their corresponding status?
  85. Why must base supply have a priority system in place?
    parts are shipped worldwide
  86. what two priority systems does supply use?
    • Delivery Priority System
    • UMMIPS
  87. What two factos determine the priority of an off-base requisition?
    The UJC and the FAD
  88. What factor is adversely affected by the misuse of priority designators?
    integrity of the supply system
  89. What is Part I of the form 350 known as and what is it used for
    Repair cycle processing tag; attached to items being forwarded
  90. What is part II of the 350 tag used for?
    production sheduling deocument
  91. Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the 350 tag?
    TO 00-20-2
  92. Where can you go to find detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries?
    AFMAN 23-110
  93. When are you required to enter the type, model, series, and serial number required on the AF IMT 2005?
    when the requirement is for an NMCS or PMCS reportable item
  94. which form should you submit if its determined that a first-time requiest part will become a recurring one and stock levels will need to be adjusted?
    AF IMT 1996
  95. where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
    TO 00-20-3
  96. What conditions warrant use of the DD Form 1575?
    When the part is awaiting maintenance or awaiting parts
  97. What is the purpose of the DD Form 1577?
    to identify an unserviceable, condemned item
  98. What is the purpose of DD Form 1577-2?
    used to identify defective items that can be repiared and made serviceable
  99. What is the difference between Type I and Type II items?
    • Type I is a non-extendible item
    • Type II is extendible
  100. For what can the information on DRs be used
    to increase operational capability and efficiency by correcting defects in design, material, quality, or maint. of equip. and to reflect the past performance history of a contractor
  101. what are some of the justifications for initiating a DR?
    • Safety
    • Part does not fit upon receipt
    • Part does not work upon receipt
    • The part failed before its expected life cycle
  102. you find a deficiency that, if uncorrected, would cause severe injury. under what category should you submit a DR?
    Category I
  103. Within what timefram must all category II DRs be forwarded?
    within three work days
  104. EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
  105. Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
    Equipment management element at Base Supply
  106. List the things you must accomplish if you serve as an equipment custodian
    • Ensure you attend the training;
    • Inventory every piece of equip. on the CA/CRL;
    • Conduct periodic inventory checks
  107. Why are techinical orders numbered?
    • To provide a sequence for filing
    • To categorize them by equipiment type
    • To assist in establishing a library
  108. In the first section of TO number 1F-16C-1, what does the 1 represent?
  109. In the first section of TO number 2J-F110-6-6, what does the J represent?
  110. In the TO number 2J-F110-6-14, what does the F110 represent?
    Engine model number
  111. How are index TO's identified?
    With a single "O" in the first section of the TO number
  112. What are abbreviated TOs?
    Excerpts from one or more basic TO's which organize and simplify instructions
  113. TCTOs are the authorized method for doing what?
    Directing and providing instructions for modifying miltary systems and comodidties and for performing or initially establishing one-time inspections
  114. Which technical manuals generally describe the overall aircraft and its installed systems subsystems?
    GE manuals
  115. What type of information do GS manuals provide?
    Detailed system and subsystem description, as well as theory of operation
  116. What type of technical manual contains operational fault identification procedures and reporting instructions that allow the flight crew to describe the conditions pertaining to a malfunction
    FR manuals
  117. Describe the process of troubleshooting equipment when using a FI manual?
    The parts of a system/function are tested in a logical sequence until a specific line replaceable unit failure, maladjustment, or a wiring fault is found
  118. In IETMS, what additional technical order data is provided beyonnd the basic technical manual?
    Op Supp, TCTOs, and RAC
  119. If you need to look up a part number, which two sections of the illustrated parts breakdown manual could you use?
    Group assembly parts list and or numerical index
  120. What type of instructions do TCTOs provide?
    modifying equpiment within a specified time and initiates 'one-time' inspections
  121. How can a TCTO be quickly identified?
    By the number 501 or higher in the third section of the TO number
  122. Why are interim TCTOs issued in an electronic message format?
    To speed delivery and implementation
  123. How are hard copy, immediate action TCTOs identified?
    with the words 'IMMEDIATE ACTION' printed at the top with red Xs around the permieter
  124. When must urgent action TCTO be completed
    within 10 days after receipt
  125. What are the ways, or formats, in which TOs are issued?
    Hard copy and IETMS
  126. Why is it important to ensure that you are using the most current TO for your particular job?
    working with outdated info could cause injury or equpiment damage
  127. The need for a TO revision is based on what factors?
    • Impact of changes
    • Urgency of need
    • Cost
    • Quantity of stock
  128. If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?
    With the preceding page number and a suffix
  129. What form is used to recommend improvements to TOs?
    AFTO IMT 22
  130. What is the next stopping point for an AFTO IMT 22 after being validated by the initiator's supervisor?
    Product improvement office for the organization to which the initiator is assigned
  131. What is RCM?
    Methodology used to identify preventative maint.
  132. What are th two classifications of failures?
    potential and functional
  133. What is the process of trying to match modules with approximately the same amount of time left on them?
    Module matching
  134. What is the ET and D program?
    an integration of hardware, software, maint, and diagnostic processes
  135. List the purposes of ET&D
    • Predict
    • Forecast
    • Reduce shop flow
    • Reduce life
    • Increase average
  136. What is the primary goal of the ET & D program?
    to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by predication or early detection
  137. How do flight line personnel use ET&D data?
    by collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base engine shop
  138. What is the ET&D program desinged to determine?
    If maint. must be preformed before the next flight and/or before the next scheduled engine change
  139. What is a CIRF?
    Centralized intermediate repair factilities
  140. What is a CRP?
    Centralized Rotatable Pool
  141. What is the benefit of a CRP?
    Reduces customer wait time
  142. How are CIRF assets accounted for and tracked?
    By using the AF Portal
  143. What is depot maint.?
    Maint. of items requiring overhaul
  144. From where does the AF obtain depot maint.?
    Organic Department of Defense facilities and private sectors contracting
  145. List the common forms of depot level assistance
    • CLSS
    • Depot Maint. support
    • Field Teams
    • Maint. assistance
  146. What is CEMS?
    Comprehensive Engine Management System
  147. What is the primary objective of CEMS?
    to obtain accurate info on the status, condition, and location of aircraft engines, gearboxes, and modules in the AF inventory
  148. What is used to collect and store information provided by different engine reporting systems?
  149. What are the various methods used to report engine status data to CEMS?
    • IMDS
    • DLR
    • REMIS
    • G081
    • Mail
  150. What section monitors engine removals and replacemnts and tracks components at the base level?
    Base level EM section
  151. What are the two categories of status reporting?
    • First category is for engines and modules;
    • secong category is for tracked components
  152. What is the purpose of the AFTO IMT 95?
    for maintaining a permanent history of significant maint. actions on end items of equipment
  153. What should you do if an automated data system is not available for engine status reporting?
    Use the AFTO IMT 95 to collect data manually
  154. What is the purpose of Lead the Fleet/ Pacer engine program?
    to determine actual distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
  155. What is Lead the Fleet/ Pacer program?
    An accelerated mission usage program that assists in maturing the engines, modules, LRUs, SRUs, and their subsystems
  156. What type of information does the Lead the Fleet/ Pacer program provide?
    Early intelligence on equip. integrity, reliability, and maint.
  157. How do participating units manage the pacer engines?
    At twice the normal flying rate until the items are two years ahead of the top 10% fleet engines
  158. What program does the Lead the Fleet/ Pacer program support?
  159. What should you check when inspecting your toolbox at the beginning of each shift?
    Missing, damaged, corroded, and dirty tools and any foreign objects that may have been left in the toolbox
  160. What should you use when your toolbox is not within arms reach?
  161. How is the torque value of a torque wrench expressed?
    Inch-pounds and Foot-pounds
  162. Whats the most common type of torgue wrench used in the AF?
    The breakaway
  163. How do you reduce the torque setting on a torque wrench?
    Turn the grip counterclockwise
  164. When using the thickness gauge to check the gap bwtween two surfaces, what important point regarding accuracy should you always remember?
    the accuracy of the gauge will depend on ones's ability to determine by feel when there is the correct tension or pressure on the blades
  165. What are the parts of an outside micrometer?
    Frame, anvil, spindle, barrel, lock, vernier scale, and thimble
  166. What are the three basic types of micrometers and their purposes?
    Outside, Inside, Depth
  167. What is the longest calibrated movement possible between the spindle and anvil of a 6-inch outside micrometer and what is this movement called?
    1 inch; the range
  168. Which other measuring tool can you use while practicing with a micrometer to aid you in becoming proficient in using the micrometer?
    Feeler gauge
  169. How many revolutions would you have to turn the thimble of a micrometer to read .025 inch?
    One complete revolution
  170. Which part of a micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?
    the barrel
  171. what measurement does the vernier scale on the micrometer provide?
    measurements accurate to ten-thousanths of an inch
  172. what type of device is a dial indicator?
    a mechanical motion-amplifying device
  173. what feature is comon to all dial indicators?
    the ability to amplify movement greatly
  174. on dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?
  175. what is the greatest single assurance against, excessive wear, breakage, and other damage to measuring tools?
    a careful user
  176. what element is the most prevalent cause of excessive wear of measuring tools?
  177. what should you apply to steel-measuring tools that are stored in a shop area having a high relative humidity?
    lubricating oil
  178. when cleaning measuring tools, what type of solvent should you use?
    one that leaves no film after evaportation
  179. which control switch on the Fluke multimeter is used to set the meter to check for alternating curret, direct current, and ohms?
    single function selector rotary switch
  180. which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit that's difficult to reach?
    hold pushbutton
  181. On what side of the circuit is the black test lead connected
    to the negative side of the circuit
  182. Where are measurement results displayed on the meter?
    on the digital display
  183. What do the letters OL indicate on the display?
    overload condition or an open circuit
  184. Whats the most important safety precaution to observe when using the ohms function of the multimeter?
    Do not hook an ohmmeter to a live circuit
  185. How is the multimeter connected to a component that is to be measured?
    Place the black test lead to the negative side and the red test lead to the positive side
  186. What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the decimal point is at 300 on the digital display?
    320 volts
  187. What is the purpose of the borescope inspection?
    to inspect internal cavities/components
  188. What are some limitations of the borescope?
    Access ports available, serviceability of equip. and experience of user
  189. What types of borescopes are used today?
    Rigid, flexible, and videoimage
  190. The rigid and flexible borescope control units are similar except for what?
    the rigid control unit doesnt have an angulation lever
  191. What types of views are available with the distal tip of the rigid borescope?
    you either have a direct view or a lateral view
  192. What factors determine whether or not someone is capable of becoming qualified to operate a borescope?
    experience, maturity, and rank
  193. What type of damage results from a pinched fiber bundle or light guide cable?
    damaged fibers cause a poor field of view and are very expensive to repair
  194. where are bolt markings located?
    on the bolt head
  195. Where is the diameter of a bold measured?
    on the grip
  196. Why are fine thread bolts stronger than coarse thread bolts
    they have a greater cross sectional area
  197. Into what general groups are nuts divided?
    Nonself-locking and self-locking
  198. What is the maximum safe working temperature for nonmetallic self-locking nuts?
    250 F
  199. Which screw is made from high tensil strength?
    Structural screw
  200. Which screw is used for general purpose
    Machine screw
  201. What are three types of machine-head screws?
    Any three of these; roundhead, flathead, fillister head, and socket-head
  202. How do lock washers secure bolts and screws?
    Spring action and sharp tempered edge prevents loosening
  203. In aircraft maint. what are the more commonly used pins?
    Tapered pins, flathead pins, cotter pins, roll pins, and quick-release pins
  204. What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    Tapered pin
  205. What type of pin is used in conjunction with a cotter pin?
    flathead pin
  206. How many times may you reuse a cotter pin
  207. What is the purpose of safetying devices?
    To maintain torque
  208. When lockwiring two bolts together, between what positions should the lockwire twists exit on the first bolt?
    3 and 6 o'clock
  209. How many twists should be left on the braid when cutting off excess lockwire
    enough to safely bend the pigtail end toward the bolt head
  210. What advantage does steel tubing have over aluminum tubing?
    it will with stand rough handling and high pressure
  211. Why are flexible hose assemblies used instead of metal tubing in some applications?
    for flexibility
  212. why should the bend radii on hoses be bent as large as possible
    to avoid kinking of the line
  213. what is used to identify hose and tubing systems after installation?
    color-coded bands
  214. what size fitting should be used for a piece of tubing that is 5/8th inch?
    Number 10
  215. What types of connectors can be used in any system no matter what the pressure is?
    flared, sleeve, or swage types
  216. what causes the most nicks and scratches on engine plumbing?
    careless handling of tools during maint.
  217. How should dust caps be installed on open lines?
    position dust cap over, rather than in the tube end
  218. What is the allowable limit for a dent in a straight line?
    less than 20% of the tubing diameter
  219. What is the maximum distance a hose can go without support?
    every 24 inches
  220. What is the purpose of leaving 1/2 in of slack in a hose that connects to an engine component?
    prevents a hose being pulled off due to engine movement
  221. An engine is sent to the engine shop with a known discrepancy. What should you do before you begin corrective action to correct the discrepency?
    • Review aircraft and engine forms
    • Perform FOD check of compressor
    • Remove main oil filter and inspect for contamination
  222. Why is it important to have a clean container to catch the oil when checking the main oil filter for contamination
    a dirty container could easily give a false indication
  223. Why should a preliminary inspection of the engine be performed prior to correcting a known discrepancy?
    to ensure an unknown discrepancy doesnt slip by while the engine is undergoing maint.
  224. How are hints on maint. procedures highlighted in manuals?
    In the form of captions such as notes, cautions, and warnings
  225. Whare are possible consequences of a dirty work area?
    Contamination and subsequent engine failures
  226. Why should you never stack engine parts with precision finishes on concrete floors?
    Marring and nicking would lead to cracks in the metal and leaks of exhaust gases
  227. Before you prepare an engine for air shipment, what precaution do you take for engine fuel and oil systems?
    Make sure all residual fluids are drained from the engine
  228. What precautions should be taken during air shipment of engines attached to trailers, trucks, stands, or in containers?
    Properly torque all bolts, capscrews, and nuts used in securing engines and check tire pressure
  229. What is used as the most common shipping container for components?
    Cardboard boxes
  230. A flexible environmental container can be used for what type of shipment?
    Air and surface transportation
  231. Why type of cover is opened by using a zipper?
    Prefabricated cover
  232. Which manual covers reporting ann engine that was improperly shipped?
    AFJMAN 24-204
  233. What types of inspections are performed on engines that are involved in mishaps or are dropped?
    Visual inspections and test cell operational checks
  234. An engine was dropped en route. An inspection revealed only minor damage to the engine. Which level of maint. would do the repair work?
    Intermediate maint.
  235. How is dehydration accomplished in a metal shipping container?
    By using Dessicant and pressurizing with dry nitrogen
  236. How does the flexible environmental container differ from metal container?
    they do not provide mechanical and physical protection
  237. Empty storage and shipping containers should be pressurized to what pressure?
    5 +/- 1 psig
  238. What warning is found on all engine and module storage and shipping containers?
    Release pressure before opening container
  239. Where is the filler valve located
    on the front end of the container
  240. What direction is th turn-lock fasteners turned when removing the lid?
  241. After the lid is removed from the container, where should it be placed?
    on wooden blocks
  242. Which end of the engine is placed over the front of the container
    AFT end
  243. Why is the serial number on both halves of the shipping container particularly important?
    Both halves must be kept together; they are a matched set
  244. What must you do before loosening the adjusting screws (shipping containers)
    release all pressure
  245. What secures an F100 core module's front and rear adapters to the container support
    4 pins
  246. What preservation treatment is required for engines that will not be operated for 48 hours?
    Seal the intake, exhaust, drain, and all air vent openings
  247. What fluid is used to preserve the oil system between 45 and 180 days?
    normal engine oil
  248. What type of fluid is used in the preservation of the fuel system?
    1010 oil
  249. What is the general engine depreservation procedure?
    service the oil resevoir, flush the system with fuel, and perform a ground check run to determine the condition of engine
  250. What are the depreservation steps for a fuel system
    Flush the system with fuel by rotating the engine rotor and energizing the main fuel system. then drain and clean fuel filters
  251. What are the two types of corrosion?
    Direct chemical corrosion and electrochemical corrosion
  252. Where does chemical corrosion start?
    It starts on the surface of the metal exposed to the corrosive environment
  253. What is the corrosion product of iron alloys?
    Red iron rust
  254. What is electrochemical corrosion?
    it is when two dissimilar metals are connected by an electrolyte
  255. What are two basic methods of corrosion prevention?
    an oil-like protective coating and the use of desiccants
  256. What TO gives the procedures for cleaning a jet engine?
  257. How are internal salt deposits removed from engines?
    by spraying clean fresh water into the inlet of the engine during coast-down
  258. What is the purpose of maint. stands?
    to provide a working platform
  259. What are the normal parts of a stand?
    base, hydraulic system, and platform
  260. What is the purpose of the safety lockpins that are installed in maint. stands?
    to prevent the platform from lowering while in use
  261. What are the five commonly used maint. platforms?
    C-1, B-1, B-2, B-4, B-5
  262. Which of the maint. platforms is non adjustable?
  263. What prevents movement of the B-4 maint. stand while in use?
    wheel brakes
  264. What are the height ranges of each of the five maint. platforms
    • C-1 4'
    • B-1 3-10'
    • B-2 13-20'
    • B-4 3-7'
    • B-5 7-12'
  265. What is the purpose of AFTO Form 245?
    AFTO form 245 is a continuation form for Part V of form 244
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Aerospace Propulsion Self-Test Vol. 1
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