FFS

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Author:
ttfire
ID:
110933
Filename:
FFS
Updated:
2011-10-22 01:09:01
Tags:
Volume five
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Description:
Volume five
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  1. When shall each work location take a physical inventory of all fixed assets equipment and portable assets equipment and complete forms 250A and 250B
    September,
  2. Property completed forms (250A and 250B) shall be submitted to Pacoima Warehouse Property Inventory Unit by ___________
    October 1st
  3. Every October work locations shall take a complete inventory of equipment items under the standard inventory list for apparatus. This inventory shall be completed by ________________
    November 1st
  4. The standard inventory denotes the minimal required fire fighting and rescue equipment to be carried on specified apparatus. Additional equipment that is desirable for specific type of apparatus requires approval of the ________________
    Deputy Fire Chief
  5. The Department Property Inventory Unit, through Materials Management Division, monitors and maintains all department inventories
    True
  6. In the event that a designated work location has an item that is lost, stolen, is beyond repair, or has become obsolete, the ______, form ___, must be filled out.
    Survey request, Form 41
  7. The "Transfer of Property and Material", form 47, must be completed to transfer ________ or _______ property to the Pacoima Warehouse Property Inventory Unit.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Irreparable or obsolete
      B. Lost or stolen
      C. Missing or lost
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  8. If an item is stolen by a member of the Los Angeles County Fire Department the employee's supervisor is responsible for contacting the Department's ______ and submitting a report. (through channels)
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Risk Management Division
      B. Compliance Officer
      C. Human Resource Department
      D.
    • Personnel Division
    • B
  9. Which of the following is correct concerning the distribution of Form 47, Transfer of Property and Material
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Canary - Retain by receiver
      B. Pink - Retained by driver
      C. Goldenrod - To originator of transfer
      D.
    • All of the above are correct
    • D
  10. Which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Pike poles, plaster hooks, and mechanical axes shall be inspected and cleaned weekly
      B. Axes, sledges, and shovels shall be kept well oiled with glyptol
      C. Both A and B are correct
      D.
    • Neither A or B is correct
    • D
  11. Axes shall be sent to the _______ at the Pacoima Warehouse for sharpening.
    Welding shop
  12. Which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Bold cutters shall be checked daily for nicks or cracks in the blade
      B. Mechanical axe shall be checked daily for integrity of the blades
      C. Dry powder type extinguisher shall be inspected daily, turned upside down and shaken
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • D
  13. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers shall be carefully inspected _____ for a weak hose or other evidence of wear
    weekly
  14. When shall Carbon Dioxide extinguishers shall be recharged
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. After every use
      B. When the arrow indicates the extinguisher needs to be recharged
      C. Whenever the weight of the cylinder indicates that extinguisher is not fully charged
      D.
    • Either A or C
    • D
  15. Safety belts or life belts shall be used by all members when
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. operating ladder pipes
      B. when in the basket of an aerial platform
      C. working on hose towers
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  16. Wet water proportioner shall be checked _______.
    weekly
  17. Wet water proportioner when in need of repair should be sent to __________.
    Pacoima warehouse, small engine repair
  18. Which of the following is correct concerning Water Extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. H20 extinguishers contain 2 gallons of extinguishing agent and are used to control and extinguish Class B fires
      B. Water Extinguishers shall be charged to 100 psi
      C. Water extinguishers shall be inspected monthly
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • B
  19. Department Water extinguishers weigh approximately __ pounds
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 25
      B. 27
      C. 30
      D.
    • 32
    • B
  20. Which of the following is incorrect concerning Dry Chemical (ABC) extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Dry chemical (ABC) extinguishers contain a combination of ABC Dry Chemical, Ammonium Phosphate, or a Sodium Bicarbonate agent
      B. Dry Chemical (ABC) extinguishers weigh approximately 37 pounds
      C. The 20-A: 120-B-C Dry Chemical (ABC) is the most common fire extinguisher found on fire department apparatus
      D.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • D
  21. Dry chemical (BC) extinguishers weigh approximately 20 pounds, and contain a combination of BC Dry Chemical and Sodium Bicarbonate agent
    False
  22. Which of the following is correct concerning Carbon Dioxide (C02) extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Carbon dioxide (C02) extinguishers are used to control and extinguish Class A and/or D fires
      B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers contain pressurized Nitrogen gas
      C. Carbon dioxide (C02) extinguishers generally come in two sizes, one weighing approximately 25 pounds and the other approximately 37 pounds
      D.
    • The 10-B:C Carbon Dioxide (C02) is the most common fire extinguisher found on Fire Department apparatus
    • D
  23. Which of the following is incorrect concerning Dry Powder extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Dry Powder-Class D fire Extinguishers are used to control and extinguish only Class D fires
      B. Sodium chloride and copper blended powders are just a few of the extinguishing agents found in Dry Power extinguishers
      C. The most common agent used in a Class D extinguisher is Metal X
      D.
    • Dry power extinguishers weigh approximately 37 pounds, and they contain a 10-C classification rating
    • D
  24. Water Extinguishers, Dry Chemical, Carbon Dioxide, and Dry Power shall be inspected ____, ensuring they are charged, without damage to the cylinder, all components are connected according to the manufacturer's instructions, and that they are affixed securely to the apparatus
    Daily
  25. Recharging water extinguishers has to be performed at the Fire Extinguisher Shops.
    False
  26. Which of the following is correct concerning Dry Chemical Extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Dry Chemical extinguishers shall be inspected monthly
      B. Dry Chemical extinguishers shall be turned upside down and shaken to prevent caking daily
      C. Upon use, partial discharge, or a reduction in pressure the extinguisher shall be tagged and sent to the Pacoima Warehouse
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • D
  27. Which of the following is correct concerning Carbon dioxide Extinguishers
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Carbon dioxide (C02) extinguishers shall be weighed every 6 months with all components attached
      B. When the C02 extinguisher falls below 24 pounds the extinguisher shall be reserviced
      C. C02 extinguisher maintenance weight requirements are stamped on each extinguisher Cylinder
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • D
  28. How often shall Dry Powder extinguishers be turned upside down and shaken to prevent caking
    weekly
  29. After ___ business days if the extinguisher has not been returned, contact the Fire Extinguisher Shops
    14
  30. Water, Dry Chemical, and Dry Powered extinguishers shall be inspected _____, ensuring the hose and nozzle have not sustained any fraying or cracking, are unobstructed, and that the extinguisher is properly pressurized with the safety pin and lock seal intact.
    weekly
  31. How often shall Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers be weighed to determine if the extinguisher is fully charged
    Every 6 months
  32. Which of the following extinguishers shall be turned upside down and shaken vigorously to prevent caking and packing of the agent in the cylinder.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Dry Powder (Class D)
      B. Dry Chemical (ABC)
      C. Dry Chemical (BC)
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  33. Class "A" Foam Concentrate is added at a rate of .025 gallons for each 2.5 gallon water extinguisher. This additive achieves a 1.0% Foam Solution when the extinguisher is activated.
    True
  34. Which of the following statements is correct concerning extinguishers weights
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Dry powder extinguishers weigh approximately 30 pounds
      B. Water extinguishers weigh approximately 27 pounds
      C. Dry chemical (ABC) extinguishers weigh approximately 37 pounds
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  35. Wet Chemical - Class K Fire Extinguishers are used to control and extinguish only Class ___ Fires.
    K
  36. Portable electric smoke ejectors, ground fault interrupters, submersible water pumps, and water vacuums are sent to ________ at Pacoima for repair.
    Electric shop
  37. What is abrasive disk #700-100 used for cutting
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Wood
      B. Masonry
      C. Glass
      D. Metals
      E.
    • Both C and D
    • E
  38. Low voltage lines are those not exceeding ____ volts and are usually found in residential structures
    480(question on last test)
  39. High voltage lines are those exceeding ___volts and are usually found in commercial structures
    600(question on last test)
  40. _______ shall be assigned the Safety Officer position for all cutting of electrical power lines.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Company Officer
      B.Any FD personnel
      C.Edison Personnel
      D.
    • Any of the above
    • A
  41. Trained department personnel responding to electrical emergencies are limited to cutting low voltage residential electrical lines less than ___ volts.
    480
  42. Qualified personnel involved in the cutting of low voltage electrical lines must wear Protective Personal Equipment (PPE's) consisting of all the following except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.full turnouts
      B.hood and helmet
      C.eye protection
      D.white safety-line gloves with leather protectors
      E.
    • None of the above are exceptions
    • E
  43. Which of the following mechanical Axe Specifications is incorrect:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Tested to 5,000 volts
      B.Burn tested (self-extinguishes)
      C.Halyard has an eight-inch insulator bar attached in-line
      D.The pulley system has a 20 to1 mechanical advantage
      E.
    • All of the above are correct
    • A
  44. How often shall Mechanical Axes be inspected
    weekly
  45. If the mechanical axe cutting blade is damaged a new blade may be obtained from the ______________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.

























































    A. Small Engine Repair Shop
    B. Breathing Apparatus Shop in Pacoima
    C. Hose Shop
    D.
  46. Welding Shop
  47. B


  48. Where shall the Mechanical axe be sent for repairs
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Small Engine Repair Shop
      B.Breathing Apparatus Shop in Pacoima
      C.Hose Shop
      D.
    • Welding Shop
    • B
  49. Inspect Electrical Line Rubber Gloves and leather protectors _____ and after each use. If gloves are damaged, complete a Form 47 and send to the Breathing Apparatus Shop in Pacoima.
    Daily
  50. All electrical rubber gloves shall be tested and certified every ____
    6 months
  51. Whenever the mechanical axe is used to cut electrical wires, a ___ foot safety zone, using fire line tape, shall be secured
    30
  52. Department personnel shall not move, nor cut, low voltage/residential lines (pole to house) that have not been de-energized, unless
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.a life threatening situation exists
      B.qualified personnel are available to mitigate the hazard
      C.proper tools and PPE's are used
      D.
    • all of the above
    • D
  53. Triplex Cables - Three wires, two insulated, are formerly known as _______
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Guide Wires
      B.Romex
      C.Service Drops
      D.Drip Loops
      E.
    • Either C or D
    • E
  54. Equipment operators must be able to compute required engine pressure within (+) or (-) _____ psi for any given hose lays.
    5
  55. Gallons of water per minute (GPM) and friction loss (FL) are two facts that must be obtained to initiate fireground hydraulics
    True
  56. When pumping over 100 gpm the formula used to determine friction loss in pounds per hundred feet of 2 1/2 inch is
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. FL = 2Q + Q (Q = gallons in hundreds)
      B. FL = 2Q + 1/2Q (Q = gallons in hundreds)
      C.
    • FL = (29.7 )/Q (Q = GPM)
    • A
  57. _____ pounds has been established as the desired nozzle pressure (NP) for handline operations with smooth bore nozzles on 2 1/2 inch hose.
    50
  58. Which of the following standard handlines nozzle pressures is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Tip size 1" = NP 35
      B. Tip size 1 1/8" = NP 50
      C. Tip size 1 1/4" = NP 75
      D.
    • Tip size 1 1/2" = NP 50
    • B
  59. Which of the following friction loss per hundred feet of 2 1/2 inch hose is incorrect using the LA Co friction loss formula
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. GPM-250 = FL 15
      B. GPM-300 = FL 20
      C. GPM-325 = FL 25
      D.
    • GPM-350 = FL 28
    • B
  60. What is the gallons per minutes flowing through a 1 1/8" standard nozzle pumping at a standard nozzle pressure
    250
  61. The four standard nozzles that have been adopted for use on 2 1/2 inch handlines include all the following except for:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1"
      B. 1 1/8"
      C. 1 1/2"
      D.
    • Fog
    • C
  62. What is the engine pressure for an engine company pumping through 500 feet of single 2 1/2" inch hose with a 1 1/8 inch nozzle at 50 pounds nozzle pressure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 110
      C. 125
      D.
    • 135
    • C
  63. For pumping operations any fog nozzle on 1, 1 1/2, 1 3/4, or 2 1/2 inch hose lines use ___ pounds nozzle pressure when determining engine pressure.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 50
      B. 75
      C. 68
      D.
    • 100
    • D
  64. Smooth bore nozzles for heavy stream appliances range from ___ to ___ inches.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1 to 2
      B. 1 1/8 to 2
      C. 1 1/4 to 2
      D.
    • 1 1/2 to 2
    • C
  65. ____ psi has been established as the standard pressure for heavy streams smooth bore nozzles.
    80
  66. The discharge of heavy stream appliances will be from ___ to ___ gpm.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 250 to 1000
      B. 375 to 1000
      C. 400 to 1000
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  67. Which of the following is the correct GPM for Heavy Stream smooth bore nozzles pumped at 80 psi
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1 1/4" nozzles the gpm is 425
      B. 1 5/8" nozzles the gpm is 600
      C. 1 3/4" nozzles the gpm is 600
      D.
    • 1 7/8" nozzles the gpm is 900
    • D
  68. At 80 pounds nozzle pressure, each increase of 1/8-inch nozzle size increases the gallons per minute by ___ gallons.
    100
  69. Through practical test, ___ psi has been established as being the average loss by friction of water pressure entering a heavy stream appliance, such as a monitor, deluge set, cellar pipes, and ladder pipes
    15
  70. When multiple lines are used to supply large volumes of water to heavy stream appliances, the engineer must know which of the following
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. the total number of lines supplying the appliance
      B. the length of the lines being pumped
      C. the size and/or type of tip being used
      D. All the above
      E.
    • A and B only
    • D
  71. Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through 300 feet of dual 2 1/2 inch hoses into a monitor using a 1 1/2 inch smooth bore nozzle.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 150
      B. 158
      C. 160
      D.
    • 200
    • B
  72. A 1000 gpm pumper can supply only ___ GPM at 200 pounds engine pressure while at draft with a 10 foot lift
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.

























































    A. 500
    B. 700
    C. 750
    D.
  73. 1000
  74. B


  75. For fast mental calculations in planning hose lays, the addition of a third line will cut the friction loss _____ thus allowing the pumper to supply the problem from ____ the distance
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. One quarter, twice
      B. In half, twice
      C. In half, three times
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  76. The ability of a centrifugal pump to provide its rated GPM is directly related to the pressure in the pump. Up until ___ PSI, the pump maintains its rated capacity
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 150
      C. 200
      D.
    • 250
    • B
  77. Which of the following is incorrect concerning pump pressures and the rated pump capacity
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 150 psi the pump rated capacity is 100%
      B. 200 psi the pump rated capacity is 75%
      C. 250 psi the pump rated capacity is 50%
      D.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • B
  78. Calculate the pump pressure for one 2 1/2" line, 1000' long, to a 1 1/8" nozzle
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 174
      B. 190
      C. 200
      D.
    • 210
    • C
  79. A standard of ___ pounds friction loss in a Siamese and wye has been established.
    10
  80. Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through two lines of 2 1/2", 400 feet in length, connected by a Siamese and continued with 100 feet of 2 1/2" hose to a 1 1/4" smooth bore tip.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 95
      B. 113
      C. 120
      D.
    • 125
    • B
  81. When vertical distance, either above or below pumping equipment is involved, add or subtract ___ psi per foot for head pressure.
    1/2
  82. When water is pumped above or below grade in structures, add or subtract ___ psi for each story above or below the first floor.
    5
  83. What is the friction loss for a standpipe when calculating engine pressure
    25
  84. Determine the E.P. for an Engine pumping through a single 2 1/2" line 100' in length, into a standpipe; 100' of 2 1/2" line has been connected to the standpipe outlet on the 5th floor and advanced up the stairway to the 6th floor. A 1 1/8 inch nozzle is being used.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 110
      B. 125
      C. 130
      D.
    • 150
    • C
  85. When two or more lines are connected to the standpipe outlet above ground, determine which line requires the _________ pressure and pump to that line.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. lowest
      B.
    • highest
    • B
  86. Which of the following is a reasonable GPM limit for the following inch hose:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1 3/4" hose 200 gpm
      B. 1 1/2" hose 175 gpm
      C. 1" hose 75 gpm
      D.
    • 3/4" hose 50 gpm
    • A
  87. Which of the following is a reasonable GPM limit for the following inch hose:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 4" hose - 1500 gpm
      B. 3 1/2" hose - 1000 gpm
      C. 3" hose - 700 gpm
      D. 2 1/2" hose - 360 gpm
      E.
    • All the above
    • E
  88. 4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is ___.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 0.2
      B. 0.4
      C. 0.5
      D.
    • 2
    • A
  89. 1,000 gpm are being delivered through 4" hose. The equivalent gallons per minute in 2 1/2" hose will then be ____
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 200 gpm
      B. 250 gpm
      C. 300 gpm
      D.
    • 500 gpm
    • A
  90. Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through 400 feet of 4" hose wyed into two 2 1/2" hose lines 300 feet each with an 1 1/8" smooth bore nozzle
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 99
      B. 105
      C. 117
      D.
    • 125
    • C
  91. Concerning hose conversion factors which of the following is incorrect
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 3 1/2 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is 0.4
      B. 3-inch hose to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is 0.5
      C. 1 3/4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is 2
      D.
    • 1-inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is 11
    • B
  92. Determine the EP for an engine pumping through 1000 feet of 1 inch hose with a barrel nozzle flowing 10 gpm
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 105
      B. 110
      C. 125
      D.
    • 135
    • D
  93. Concerning pumping operations the 3/4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is ___.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 11
      B. 12
      C. 24
      D.
    • 36
    • C
  94. A pump is rated on its ability to discharge its rated capacity operating at draft with a vertical lift of not over ten feet, at a net discharge pressure of ___ psi.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 150
      C. 200
    • D.
    • B
  95. The pump must discharge 70 percent of the rated capacity at ___ psi, and 50 percent of the rated capacity of ___ psi.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 150; 200
      B. 200; 250
      C. 250; 300
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  96. During pumping operations the maximum working pressure of ____ pounds has been established by the Department. A reserve of ___ psi is desirable for changes in elevation or other provisions, therefore, ___ psi should be considered as the maximum working pressure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 200, 25, 175
      B. 225, 50, 175
      C. 250, 50, 200
      D.
    • 300, 35, 265
    • C
  97. When establishing relay pumping operations all the following items must be considered with the exception of
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. GPM needed at the fireground
      B. Distance water must travel from the source
      C. Size of the hose, Number of pumpers, Topography
      D. Maximum distance one pumper can deliver the gallons per minute
      E.
    • None of the above are exceptions
    • E
  98. During relay pumping operations the largest capacity pumper should be placed at the source of the supply and ensuing pumpers should be placed so that the _______ capacity pump will be at the fire.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. largest
      B. smallest
    • C.
    • B
  99. During relay pumping operations the maximum distance that water can be delivered is accomplished in all the following except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. increasing the size of the hose
      B. provide additional lines
      C. using additional pumpers
      D.
    • increasing the pressure be decreasing hose size
    • D
  100. During relay pumping operations the maximum distance that water can be delivered is accomplished in three ways. Which of the following should be used last
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. increasing the size of the hose
      B. provide additional lines
      C.
    • using additional pumpers
    • C
  101. When calculating engine pressure to be pumped to a relay pumper or supply reservoir, a "Intake Pressure" of ___ pounds should be used.
    25
  102. 1000 gpm are needed to supply a 1,000 gpm fog nozzle on a Stang Monitor 4,200 feet from the source of supply. Using a single 4" line for relaying, we have a friction loss of 10 pounds per 100 feet, or a total of 420 pounds (10*42). This, plus a nozzle pressure of 100 pounds, equals 520 pounds pressure. Determine the number of pumpers needed
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 3
      B. 4
      C. 5
      D.
    • 6
    • A
  103. When determining the engine pressure using "other than the standard nozzle pressures" any increase or decrease will be in increments of 5 pounds
    True
  104. When determining the engine pressure using "other than the standard nozzle pressures" any increase or decrease will be in increments of 5 pounds and limited to 15 pounds above or below the standard nozzle pressure
    False
  105. What is the pressured required at the base of an aerial ladder at 60 feet elevation, 100 feet of 4" hose, a master stream appliance, a Siamese or wye at the base, and pumping through a 2" straight bore nozzle
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 145
      B. 155
      C. 165
      D.
    • 175
    • A

  106. What is the pressured required at the base of an aerial ladder at 60 feet elevation, 100 feet of 3" hose, a master stream appliance, a Siamese or wye at the base, and pumping through a fog nozzle at 500 gpm
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 150
      B. 155
      C. 166
      D.
    • 176
    • D
  107. Available flow is calculated on the fireground by testing and noting the ___ pressure (water at rest) and the ______ pressure (water in motion) of fire hydrants.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Static; residual.
      B. Residual; static
      C. Hammer; residual
      D.
    • Normal; residual
    • A
  108. When estimating the available flow from a hydrant, the rule is to determine the percentage drop in pressure from static to residual. A drop of 10 percent or less indicates
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. No more like volumes are available
      B. One or more like volumes are available
      C. Two or more like volumes are available
      D.
    • Three or more like volumes are available
    • D
  109. When estimating the available flow form a hydrant, the rule is to determine the percentage drop in pressure from static to residual. A drop of 15 percent or less indicates
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. No more volumes are available
      B. One or more like volumes are available
      C. Two or more like volumes are available
      D.
    • Three or more like volumes are available
    • C
  110. The Static pressure is 60 psi. The engineer then opens the discharge supplying a 250 GPM fog nozzle. The residual pressure now showing on the compound gauge is 51 psi, a drop of nine pounds. This is a 15 percent drop in pressure and means that the hydrant can supply an additional ____ gallons per minute
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 500
      B. 550
      C. 600
      D.
    • 750
    • A
  111. When using an automatic sprinkler system, an engine company shall lay a minimum of one 2 1/2 inch hose line to the sprinkler connection inlet and maintain an engine pressure of ___ pounds.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 150
      C. 200
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  112. The minimum allowance for efficient coverage by a sprinkler head is __ GPM. The minimum acceptable efficient range is __ to ___ GPM.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 10, 10 to 25
      B. 15, 15 to 25
      C. 20, 20 to 35
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  113. A 1000 GPM pumper will need more than __ lines if located more than 200 feet away from the sprinkler connection since it can supply approximately 50 heads.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 3
      B. 4
      C.
    • 5
    • A
  114. A 1000 GPM pumper will need more than 3 lines if located more than ____ feet away from the sprinkler connection since it can supply approximately 50 heads.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 50
      B. 100
      C. 150
      D.
    • 200
    • D
  115. A standard fire stream of 250 gallons per minute represents approximately (in weight) ___ of water per minute being delivered into a building
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.

























































    A. Quarter ton
    B. Half ton
    C. One ton
    D.
  116. Two tons
  117. C



  118. Which of the following is correct concerning the ton(s) of water a 1 5/8" tip will deliver per minute when flowing
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1 Ton
      B. 2 Tons
      C. 3 Tons
      D.
    • 4 Tons
    • C
  119. An 2" Nozzle delivering 1000 gpm represents approximately (in weight) ___ of water per minute delivered into a building.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1 ton
      B. 2 ton
      C. 3 ton
      D.
    • 4 tons
    • D
  120. A tank 20 feet in diameter has 5 feet of water in the tank. Determine the gallons of water in the tank.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 12,000 gallons
      B. 15,000 gallons
      C. 20,000 gallons
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  121. When the flow of water is suddenly stopped by shutting down a hose line, a pressure wave is created. This pressure wave is commonly referred to as a __________
    water hammer
  122. Which of the following is incorrect
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.

























































    A. Cubic foot of water = 7.481 US Gallons
    B. Cubic foot of water = 62.4 Pounds
    C. US Gallon of Water = 8.335 Pounds
    D.
  123. US Gallon of Water = 200 Cubic inches
  124. D


  125. During structure fires what percent represents the loss actually consumed by the fire. The remaining loss is due to extinguishment and other causes.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 25%
      B. 50%
      C. 60%
      D. 75%
  126. The standard size of a salvage cover is ___ x ___.
    12'x18'
  127. The 12 x 18 foot salvage covers shall have ______, brass grommets
    24
  128. Salvage covers found to be in need of repair shall be sent to the ________ with a Form 47 attached
    camp 9
  129. _______ is the search for, and extinguishment of hidden fire, determining the cause of the fire, and recognizing and preserving any evidence of arson.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Overhaul
      B. Salvage
      C. Fire Attack
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  130. Overhaul is functionally related to ___________.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Salvage
      B. Fire extinguishment
      C. Cause Investigation
      D.
    • All the above
    • B
  131. During overhaul the formula for the amount of water to be used is (cubic feet involved/100= GPM flow)
    True
  132. During overhaul when the fire area is left with an even ceiling temperature of _______ degrees conditions will be ideal for natural ventilation and easy efficient overhaul.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 200 degrees
      B. 300 degrees
      C. 360 degrees
      D.
    • 400 degrees
    • B
  133. Which of the following would not upset the thermal balance and the orderly flow of clean air into a building during overhaul
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Doors or windows broken on the windward side of a building with a strong wind
      B. Spectators or firefighters blocking openings
      C. Nozzleman using fog patterns
      D.
    • All of the above would upset the thermal balance during overhaul
    • D
  134. During overhaul all nozzles should be operated with relatively short bursts and on a fog pattern
    False
  135. Which of the following is an objective of salvage operations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.To effect entry with forethought and use of proper tools to avoid the indiscriminate damage of property
      B.To prevent unnecessary damage during ventilation
      C.To prevent unnecessary damage to structure and contents during overhauling operations by systematic investigation of premises, careful opening and use of water, and protecting contents from further damage
      D.
    • All of the above are salvage objectives
    • D
  136. When does Salvage size-up begin?
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Upon receipt of the alarm
      B.Upon arrival on scene
      C.After knockdown is announced
      D.
    • After overhaul is started
    • A
  137. When removing water from buildings (dewatering), the most practical means of draining water from upper floors is by:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.using chutes constructed on floors below the water and draining through windows or doors
      B.cutting holes from to floor to remove water
      C.channeling water into vertical shafts or elevators
      D.
    • Either B or C
    • A
  138. Water removal may be coordinated by which of the following
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Single Resource
      B.Salvage Group Supervisor
      C.Systems Group Supervisor
      D.
    • All of the above
    • D
  139. Personnel shall inspect salvage covers _____ and after each use for signs of wear, perforations, or other damage
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Weekly
      B.Monthly
      C.Quarterly
      D.
    • Semi Annually
    • C
  140. Which of the following is an disadvantage of plastic sheeting
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Prone to mechanical damage, such as rips and tears
      B.Prone to melting
      C.Prone to holes from burning embers
      D.
    • All of the above
    • D
  141. Concerning radiological recognition and safety, which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alphas are heavy radioactive particles that quickly lose energy and travel only a few inches through air
      B.Betas are short-range radioactive particles that travel about 10-15 feet
      C.Gamma radiation is rays of pure electromagnetic radiation similar to light and x-rays
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • D
  142. Concerning radiological recognition and safety, which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha radiation has limited penetrating power and can be stopped by a piece of paper
      B.Beta radiation can be stopped by materials such as thin sheet metals, plastic, and glass
      C.Gamma radiation can be reduced by heavy, dense material such as steel, concrete, earth, or lead
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • D
  143. Concerning radiological recognition and safety, which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Gammas are heavy radioactive particles that quickly lose energy and travel only a few inches through air
      B.Betas are short-range radioactive particles that travel about 10-15 feet
      C.Alpha radiation is similar to light and x-rays and travel hundreds of meters
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • B
  144. Concerning radiological recognition and safety which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha radiation is considered an external hazard
      B.Beta radiation is considered both an internal and external hazard
      C.Gamma rays are considered an internal hazard
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • B
  145. Concerning radiological recognition and safety which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The RAD is a special unit to measure radiation exposure in a quantity of air
      B.The amount of energy deposited on any material by ionizing radiation is the Roentgen
      C.The REM is a unit that measures the effects of ionizing radiation on humans
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • C
  146. All living things are exposed to radiation from natural sources on earth and from space. An average person in the U.S. is exposed to an effective dose equivalent of about _____mrem (whole-body exposure) per year from all sources.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.200
      B.360
      C.450
      D.
    • 500
    • B
  147. What type of radiation accidents are the most likely incidents that firefighters will encounter.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Transportation
      B.Manufacturing
      C.Nuclear
      D.
    • Terrorism
    • A
  148. ____________ is caused by a massive overdose of gamma radiation to the whole body or a substantial portion of the body. This is referred to as Acute Radiation Syndrome or ARS.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Poisoning
      B.Radiation Injury
      C.Radiation Sickness
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  149. Which of the following best describes excessive amounts of alpha or beta types of radioactive material (usually in the form of fine dust, liquids, or gases) that when introduced into the body by inhalation, ingestion, or absorption can cause diseases such as anemia and cancer.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Poisoning
      B.Radiation Injury
      C.Radiation Sickness
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  150. The EPA's, Protective Action Guides for Radiation Exposure, limits the dose to workers under emergency conditions to ___ REM for a 24 hour period.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.10 REM
      B.20 REM
      C.25 REM
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  151. All radiation exposures to emergency response personnel shall be reported to the County of Los Angeles Office of Environmental Health within _____ hours of an exposure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.12
      B.24
      C.36
      D.
    • 48
    • D
  152. All radiation exposures to emergency response personnel shall be reported to the ____________ within 48 hours of exposure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.County of Los Angeles Office of Environmental Health
      B.FEMA Office of Radiological Management
      C.OES Office of Radiological Management
      D.
    • All the above
    • A
  153. All radiation exposures to emergency response personnel shall be reported to the County of Los Angeles Office of Environmental Health. The time, date of notification, and the name of the person notified shall be logged into
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Business Journal
      B.NFIRS
      C.OES Log
      D.
    • All the above
    • B
  154. Dose is the quantity of radiation exposure measured in terms of ionizations (Roentgens) or energy absorbed, termed
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.RAD
      B.REM
      C.RAM
      D.
    • Either A or B
    • D
  155. If a firefighter spends nine minutes in a radiation field that reads a dose rate of 100 mR/hr, then the calculated dose is ___ millirem
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.5
      B.9
      C.15
      D.
    • 30
    • C

  156. ______ is a term associated with allowable time firefighters may remain in a radiation area before accumulating their permissible dose according to the EPA's Protective Action Guides
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Stay-time
      B.Cumulative time
      C.Safety time
      D.
    • Exposure time
    • A

  157. The intensity of radiation decreases with the increased distance from the source of radiation. This intensity-distance relationship can be calculated mathematically and is known as the ______________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Inverse Square Law
      B.Square law
      C.Radiological Square Law
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  158. Which of the following best describes "Level A" PPE for radiological incidents
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Encapsulated suit with SCBA, inner and outer gloves, and rubber boots
      B.Air purifying respirator (APR), double glove and rubber boot protection
      C.Turn-outs, air purifying respirator (APR), double glove and rubber boot protection
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  159. Which of the following best describes a neutral to negative pressure mask that utilizes a canister filter and is limited to an atmospheres with (19.5%) oxygen and the absence of any contaminants
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Positive-pressure SCBA
      B.Supplied Air Breathing Apparatus (SABA)
      C.Air Purifying Respirator (APR)
      D.
    • Powered Air Purifying Respirator (PAPR)
    • C
  160. Which types of radiation does the Department's survey meters have the ability to detect.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha
      B.Beta
      C.Gamma
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  161. Which of the following is correct concerning radiological zones
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The exclusion zone line shall be established at 2 mR/hr (millirem per hour)
      B.The contamination reduction zone (CRZ) shall be monitored for readings of 2 mR/hr or less
      C.The support zone shall be monitored for readings of background radiation no more than 2 mR/hr
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  162. The Department has issued personal radiation monitors (PRMs) and personal electronic dosimeters (PEDs) as part of the Department's personal protective equipment (PPE). These PRMs and PEDs detect and measure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha radiation
      B.Beta radiation
      C.Gamma radiation
      D.
    • All the above
    • C
  163. Which of the following best describes a serious illness caused by a radiation dose greater than 50 rad of penetrating radiation to the body in a short period of time (usually minutes).
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Trauma
      B.Radiation Injury
      C.Radiation Poisoning
      D.
    • Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)
    • D
  164. Which of the following best describes heavy radioactive particles that quickly lose energy and travel only a few inches through air. They have limited penetrating power and can be stopped by clothing or a piece of paper.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha Radiation
      B.Beta Radiation
      C.Delta Radiation
      D.
    • Gamma Radiation
    • A
  165. Which of the following best describes one of three zones created on a terrorist incident that provides a transition between the contaminated area and the clean area
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Decon Zone
      B.Clean Zone
      C.Access Control Zone
      D.
    • Contamination Reduction Zone
    • D
  166. Which of the following best describes the controlled area, within the contamination reduction zone (CRZ), where the decontamination process takes place.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Control Zone
      B.Decontamination Corridor
      C.Control Decon Zone
      D.
    • Access Control Area
    • B
  167. Which of the following is correct concerning radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The Dose is the quantity of radiation energy absorbed by a body
      B.The Dose Rate is the dose absorbed in a unit of time
      C.The Cumulative Dose is the total dose resulting from repeated or continuous exposure to ionizing radiation
      D.A Dosimeter is a radiation detection instrument which measures radiation dose and/or dose rate
      E.
    • All the above
    • E
  168. Which of the following best describes the innermost of the three zones created at terrorist incidents. The zone is created to isolate the contaminant from people and to keep unauthorized people away from the contaminant.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Safe Refuge
      B.Exclusion Zone
      C.Support Zone
      D.
    • Safe Zone
    • B
  169. Which of the following best describes rays of pure electromagnetic radiation similar to light and x-rays that can travel hundreds of meters and can penetrate most material.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha Radiation
      B.Beta Radiation
      C.Delta Radiation
      D.
    • Gamma Radiation
    • D
  170. Which of the following best describes a dissemination device that deliberately spreads radioactive material, covertly, so as to expose unknowing persons to a radioactive source or contaminate in the environment with radioactive particles.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Dirty Bomb
      B.Improved Nuclear Device (IND)
      C.Simple Radiological Devise (SRD)
      D.
    • Radiological Dispersal Devise (RDD)
    • C
  171. Which of the following best describes an explosive device wrapped or impregnated with radioactive material so as to contaminate an area or population with radioactivity on top of any injuries sustained from the explosive device.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Dirty Bomb
      B.Improved Nuclear Device (IND)
      C.Simple Radiological Devise (SRD)
      D.
    • Radiological Dispersal Devise (RDD)
    • A
  172. Which of the following best describes employing a water stream from a ladder pipe, monitor, or hand line to provide a flushing technique for victims to self-decon in water for two to five minutes.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Gross decontamination
      B.Emergency Decontamination
      C.Medical Decontamination
      D.
    • Both A and B are correct
    • D
  173. Which of the following best describes a thin paddle like probe used in conjunction with a radiological survey meter to detect alpha, beta, and gamma radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Flat Probe
      B.Pancake Probe
      C.Red Probe
      D.
    • Circle Probe
    • B
  174. A Radiation Area is any area with radiation levels greater than ___ mrem in one hour at 30 cm from the source
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.2
      B.3
      C.4
      D.
    • 5
    • D
  175. Which of the following best describes illness caused by a massive overdose of gamma radiation to the whole body or a substantial portion of the body
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Injury
      B.Radioactivity Poisoning
      C.Radiation Sickness
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  176. Which of the following is not one of the colors used for displaying a Radiation Warning Symbol prescribed by the Code of Federal Regulations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Magenta
      B.Black trefoil
      C.Yellow
      D.
    • Green
    • D
  177. Which of the following best describes dangerous amounts of radioactive materials, considered internal hazards. The material is commonly fine dusts or liquids that are introduced into the body by inhalation, ingestion, and absorption
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Injury
      B.Radioactivity Poisoning
      C.Radiation Sickness
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  178. The international unit of radiation dose equivalent is best know as
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiation Absorbed Dose (RAD)
      B.The Roentgen Equivalent to Man (REM)
      C.Roentgen (R)
      D.
    • Sievert (Sv)
    • D
  179. Time, Distance, and Shielding (TDS) are three protective measures commonly associated with _______ emergencies
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radiological
      B.Biological
      C.Chemical
      D.
    • All the above
    • A
  180. What instruments are assigned as personal protective equipment (PPE) for radiological detection
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Canberra UltraRadiac, personal radiation monitor (PRM)
      B.SAIC personal electronic dosimeters (PEDs)
      C.Both A and B
      D.
    • Neither A or B
    • C
  181. The personal radiation monitor (PRM) and the personal electronic dosimeters (PED) each detect and measure
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.alpha radiation
      B.beta radiation
      C.gamma radiation
      D.
    • All the above
    • C
  182. The personal radiation monitor (PRM), lower limit, radiation RATE alarm pre-set levels is _______
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.500 uR/hr (micro-Rem per hour)
      B.1.00 mR/hr (milli-Rem)
      C.2.00 R/hr (Rem per hour)
      D.
    • 5.00 mR/hr (milli-Rem)
    • A
  183. The personal electronic dosimeters (PEDs), lower limit, radiation DOSE alarm pre-set level is ________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.1.00 mR/hr (milli-Rem)
      B.5.00 mR/hr (milli-Rem)
      C.10 R (Rem)
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  184. The personal radiation monitor (PRM) and the personal electronic dosimeters (PED) units measure dose rate from background to _____R/h
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.200
      B.300
      C.400
      D.
    • 500
    • D
  185. Which of the following incidents would alert personnel to utilize a dosimeter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Multi-casualty incident (MCI) with no apparent origin or cause
      B.Any hazardous material (HazMat) incident
      C.Any incident involving an explosion or a bomb threat
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  186. When replacing the personal radiation monitor (PRM) due to loss, theft, or damage a memo explaining the circumstances shall be generated through channels to the ____________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Chief Deputy Operations
      B.Chief Deputy Administration
      C.Deputy Chief Operations
      D.
    • Deputy Chief of Special Operations
    • D
  187. Canberra's personal radiation monitor (PRM) DOSE alarm sounds (at ____m/R, or higher)
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.200
      B.300
      C.400
      D.
    • 500
    • D
  188. Which of the following is correct concerning radiation rate alarms
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.A RATE alarm of greater than 2 mR/hr but less than 10 mR/hr it is considered an unusual event
      B.A RATE alarm of 10 mR/hr or more, but less then 100 mR/hr, is considered a significant event
      C.A Rate alarm of 100 mR/hr or more, but less than 1R/hr is considered a high level event
      D.A Rate alarm of 1R/hr is considered a extreme event
      E.
    • All of the above are correct
    • E
  189. A personal radiation monitor (PRM) RATE alarm of 10 mR/hr or more, but less then 100 mR/hr, is considered a _______event.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.unusual
      B.significant
      C.high level
      D.extreme
      E.
    • none of the above are correct
    • B
  190. A personal radiation monitor RATE alarm of 1R/hr or more is considered a/an _______event
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.unusual
      B.significant
      C.high level
      D.extreme
      E.
    • none of the above are correct
    • D
  191. A personal radiation monitor (PRM) rate alarm of 1R/hr or more is considered an extreme level event and personnel shall complete all the following except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Retreat to an area that measures a dose rate of 1 mR/hr or less.
      B.Respond the nearest truck company to survey the area with Ludlum radiological survey meters.
      C.Set the exclusion zone at 2 mR/hr.
      D.
    • Request a Hazmat Taskforce response with a HHMD officer
    • A
  192. A personal radiation monitor (PRM) alarm of __R/hr or more is considered an extreme level event and Fire Department Personnel shall order an immediate full scale evacuation of the public in the adjacent areas
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.1
      B.2
      C.3
      D.
    • 4
    • A
  193. Which of the following is incorrect concerning the personal radiation monitor (PRM) and the personal electronic dosimeters (PED)
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The PRM and PED only detect gamma and x-ray radiation
      B.The PRM and PED are subject to interference by high levels of radio frequency
      C.The PRM and PED are intrinsically safe and can be worn in flammable atmospheres
      D.The PRM and PED are not waterproof
      E.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • C
  194. How often shall personnel inspect the personal electronic dosimeters (PEDs) unit.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.daily
      B.weekly
      C.bi monthly
      D.
    • monthly
    • A
  195. The personal radiation monitor (PRM) offers a minimal battery life of 150 hours of continual use. It is recommended to check the battery(ies) ______ to avoid corrosion.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.daily
      B.weekly
      C.monthly
      D.
    • yearly
    • B
  196. When the personal radiation monitor (PRM) or the personal electronic dosimeter (PEDs) does not function correctly, or the alarms are not set correctly, immediately report the problem to the ____________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Homeland Security Section Chief
      B.Training Services Section
      C.Breathing Apparatus Shop
      D.
    • Operations Deputy Chief
    • A
  197. All internal maintenance for the personal radiation monitor (PRM) and the personal electronic dosimeters (PED) shall be handled by __________ or their designee.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Homeland Security Section Chief
      B.Training Services Section
      C.Breathing Apparatus Shop
      D.
    • Regional Training and Safety Officer
    • D
  198. For prompt replacement of the personal radiation monitor (PRM) and the personal electronic dosimeters (PED), administrative site supervisors shall complete a memo describing the circumstances necessitating a replacement request, through channels, to the _______________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Homeland Security Section Chief
      B.Training Services Section
      C.Breathing Apparatus Shop
      D.Regional Training and Safety Officer
      E.
    • Deputy Chief of Special Operations
    • E
  199. The Department utilizes three types of Ludlum radiological meters for the first responder to use on radiological incidents. Which one of the following radiological survey meters does the department not currently use
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.2240
      B.2241
      C.2241-2
      D.
    • 2242
    • A
  200. The Ludlum 2241 and 2241-2 survey meters are designed to measure ionizing radiation and detect all the following except for:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.alpha
      B.beta
      C.delta
      D.
    • gamma
    • C
  201. The Ludlum 2242 survey meter is designed to measure _______ radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.alpha
      B.beta
      C.gamma
      D.
    • All of the above
    • C
  202. The appropriate deployment of all radiological survey meters shall be determined by
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Company officers
      B.Incident commanders
      C.Health HazMat division (HHMD) personnel
      D.Special operations staff at scene
      E.
    • Any of the above
    • E
  203. Which of the following incidents would alert personnel to utilize a radiological survey meter:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Multi-casualty incident (MCI) with no apparent origin or cause
      B.Any hazardous material (HazMat) incident, known or suspected, including transportation accidents
      C.Any incident involving an explosion or a bomb threat
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  204. Which of the following shall the administrative site supervisors ensure concerning the Ludlum Radiation Survey Meter:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The unit is carried in a compartment free from heat and UV rays
      B.The units serial number is added to Form 250B, Annual Inventory - Portable Assets
      C.Calibration documents are kept at the administrative site
      D.The unit is accounted for at each shift change
      E.
    • All of the above
    • E
  205. Which of the following is the fundamental use for the Ludlum 2241 Survey Meter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.locating alpha, beta, gamma sources of radiation
      B.locating contamination on people and equipment
      C.establishing control zone boundaries
      D.
    • all of the above
    • D
  206. Utilizing the 44-9 pancake probe, the Ludlum model 2241 survey meter detects ______ radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha
      B.Beta
      C.Gamma
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  207. Which of the following is correct concerning the 44-9 pancake probe utilized with the Ludlum model 2241 survey meter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The probe is designed to scan victims, equipment, and set perimeters within the above range for alpha (with the red cap on)
      B.The probe (without the red cap) is designed to scan victims, equipment, and set perimeters within the above range for beta
      C.Both A and B are correct
      D.
    • Neither A or B are correct
    • C
  208. Which of the following is correct when surveying with the 44-9 pancake probe utilized with the Ludlum model 2241 survey meter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha radiation can be surveyed at a distance of 1 to 1.5 inches
      B.Beta radiation can be surveyed at a distance of three feet or less
      C.Both A and B are correct
      D.
    • Neither A or B are correct
    • C
  209. The Ludlum model 2241-2, 44-2 gamma scintillator has a range of 1 mR/hr to 50 mR/hr and measures _____ radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha
      B.Beta
      C.Gamma
      D.
    • Delta
    • C
  210. The Ludlum model 2241-2, 44-2 gamma scintillator has a range of 1 mR/hr to ____ mR/hr and measures gamma radiation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.50
      B.75
      C.100
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  211. The Ludlum radiological survey meters are powered by two standard "D" alkaline size batteries. Never store the instrument over ___ days without removing the batteries.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.14
      B.30
      C.60
      D.
    • 90
    • B
  212. In order to determine whether or not radiological contamination is present use ___ times the background measurement
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.1
      B.2
      C.3
      D.
    • 4
    • C
  213. Which of the following is correct concerning radiological incidents and establishing the three operational area zones
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.The exclusion zone line shall be established at 2 mR/hr (millirem per hour)
      B.The contamination reduction zone (CRZ) area shall be monitored for readings of 1mR/hr or less
      C.The support zone shall be monitored for readings of background radiation or slightly higher but no more than 1 mR/hr
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • A
  214. Concerning radiological incidents the exclusion zone line shall be established at ___mR/hr (millirem per hour)
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.1
      B.2
      C.3
      D.
    • 4
    • B
  215. Which of the following is incorrect concerning the maintenance of the Ludlum Survey Meters used for radiological incidents?
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Daily inspection will consist of inspecting the conditions of the unit, cable, probe, and the batteries
      B.Meters are to be calibrated on a bi annual basis, in accordance with Federal regulations
      C.Every three months, the battery compartment and contacts should be cleaned of any corrosion
      D.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • D
  216. How often shall the Ludlum Survey Meters used for radiological incidents be calibrated, in accordance with Federal regulations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Monthly
      B.Bi Annually
      C.Annually
      D.
    • Every three years
    • B
  217. The Ludlum 2242 Survey Meter is a portable microprocessor-based digital Ratemeter designed for detection and measurements of _______ radiation only
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Alpha
      B.Beta
      C.Delta
      D.
    • Gamma
    • D
  218. When Surveying with the Ludlum 2242 Survey Meter, how often shall the Contamination Reduction Zone and Support Zone be surveyed
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Every 15 minutes
      B.Every 30 minutes
      C.Every 45 minutes
      D.
    • Every hour
    • A
  219. Which one of the following is a radiological recognition clue
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Package labels (Department of Transportation - D.O.T.)
      B.Transportation placards (D.O.T.)
      C.NFPA 704 Diamond with the trefoil symbol (fixed facilities)
      D.
    • All of the above
    • D
  220. Radiological packages where the level of radiation on the outside of the package is at or below ____mR/hr are labeled with a 4"x4" Radioactive White-I Label
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.0.5
      B.5
      C.50
      D.
    • 500
    • A
  221. Radiological packages where the level of radiation on the surface of the package is up to 50 mR/hr, or up to 1 mR/hr at one meter will have a Radioactive ______ label
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.White-I
      B.Yellow-II
      C.Yellow-III
      D.
    • Yellow-IV
    • B
  222. Radiological packages where the level of radiation on the surface of the package is up to 200 mR/hr, or up to10 mR/hr at one meter, will have a Radioactive _______ label
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.White-I
      B.Yellow-II
      C.Yellow-III
      D.
    • Yellow-IV
    • C
  223. The U.S. Department of Transportation regulates vehicles transporting radioactive materials, and has a U.N. Hazard Class of ___.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.3
      B.6
      C.7
      D.
    • 8
    • C
  224. When radioactive materials are present at fixed facilities, responders shall be alerted of that fact by the _____ diamond posted on the property's structures where the radiological material will be found
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Radioactive Label I
      B.NFPA 704
      C.NFPA 701
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  225. Victims of radiological exposure with traumatic injuries that are not life-threatening and/or second and third degree burns less than 25% of body surface area (BSA) are triage as ________.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Immediate (red tag)
      B.Delayed (yellow tag)
      C.Minor Minor (black tag)
      D.
    • Deceased/Expectant
    • B
  226. Victims of radiological exposure that received short-term ionizing radiation of 100-150 rad (radioactive absorb dose) are triaged as _______.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Immediate (red tag)
      B.Delayed (yellow tag)
      C.Minor (green tag)
      D.
    • Deceased/Expectant (black tag)
    • C
  227. The Department encourages the use of _____ decontamination at radiological incidents.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.wet
      B.dry
      C.foam
      D.
    • light water
    • B
  228. Which of the following is not a type of radiation decontamination
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Individual decontamination
      B.Responder decontamination
      C.MCMD decontamination
      D.
    • Public decontaminatioin
    • D
  229. A radiological contamination reduction zone (CRZ) shall be established at background readings (usually 11 to 25 uR/hr), but no higher than ___ mR/hr.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A..5
      B.1
      C.2
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  230. A radiological support zone shall be established at background readings (11 to 25 uR/hr), but in no case, higher than ___ mR/hr.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. .5
      B.1
      C.2
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  231. During Radiological Incidents a designated Safe Refuge Area shall be established within the outer perimeter of the ______ zone
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Support
      B.Contamination Reduction Zone
      C.Exclusion Zone
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  232. Radiological background readings usually range from 11 R/hr to 25 uR/hr or ___to ___cpm (counts per minute) but can be somewhat higher depending on the area use.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.10, 20
      B.20, 30
      C.40, 60
      D.
    • 50, 100
    • C
  233. An area may be considered contaminated by radiation when the survey meter readings reach or exceed ___ times the background reading.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.one
      B.two
      C.three
      D.
    • All the above
    • C
  234. Which of the following may be considered contaminated when the survey meter readings reach or exceed two times the background reading.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Individuals
      B.Areas
      C.Both A and B
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  235. Where shall containers and bags of radiological contaminated articles be kept to decrease the overall dose rate in the decon corridors
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Exclusion zone
      B.Decon Safe Refuge Area
      C.Access control zone
      D.
    • Support zone
    • A
  236. Radiological exposure reports shall be written and communicated to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) through the Los Angeles County, ______________, Radiation Management.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Haz Mat Task Force
      B.Department of Health Services
      C.Department of Terrorism
      D.
    • All the above
    • B
  237. Custodial responsibilities of clothing and personal items for radiological incidents are under the control of the Los Angeles County ______________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Haz Mat Task Force
      B.Department of Health Services, Radiation Management
      C.Department of Terrorism, Radiation Management
      D.
    • All the above
    • B
  238. When shall individuals be monitored during radiological incidents
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Prior to the beginning of decontamination
      B.During completed phases of decontamination
      C.As a final survey of decontamination effectiveness
      D.
    • All of the above
    • D
  239. During radiological decontamination individuals should methodically remove their valuables and outer clothing from the top down, this will remove approximately ____% of the contaminants
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.10-20
      B.50-60
      C.70-80
      D.
    • 90-100
    • C
  240. During radiological decontamination in dusty conditions, the use of ______ spray in limited amounts, will help to reduce the spread of radioactive dusts as individuals disrobe.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.light water
      B.medium water
      C.heavy water
      D.
    • All of the above
    • A
  241. During radiation decontamination individual's second layer of clothing, hands, feet, and head area shall be monitored for contamination. Any areas of radiation found above __ times the established background, needs to be decontaminated
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.1
      B.2
      C.3
      D.
    • 4
    • B
  242. Where shall individuals be directed during radiological decontamination, when no radiation contamination is found or after the individuals are considered clean
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Medical area in the support zone
      B.Casualty collection point
      C.Contamination safe refuge zone
      D.Any of the above
      E.
    • Either A or B
    • E
  243. Whenever possible, all radiation responder decontamination shall be separate from the public for which of the following reasons:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Personnel accountability
      B.Health issues
      C.Documentation of exposure
      D.Debriefing
      E.
    • All of the above
    • E
  244. A MCMD condition requires responders to quickly assess and decontaminate multiple victims (___or more) at a radiological terrorism event
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.5
      B.7
      C.10
      D.
    • 11
    • D
  245. Emergency decontamination is an interim measure of decontamination of victims and is usually conducted in the ______ by the first arriving company
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Support Zone
      B.Contamination Reduction Zone
      C.Contamination Reduction Corridor
      D.
    • Exclusion zone
    • D
  246. Which of the following is correct concerning medical decontamination
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Medical decon is a systematic head to toe washing with soap and water.
      B.Medical decon includes monitoring for contamination.
      C.Medical decon is a process requiring numerous resources and is very time consuming.
      D.
    • All of the above.
    • D
  247. A personal radiation monitor (PRM) RATE alarm greater than 2 mR/hr but less than 10 mR/hr is considered an unusual event, but not necessarily an emergency. The investigation to locate the source shall be undertaken by the HazMat Taskforce (HMTF) in cooperation with the HHMD.
    True
  248. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) are required documentation at a work site that handle radiological material
    True
  249. Skin Bronzing is a sign of an acute radiation dose of 50R or greater at a radiological incident.
    False
  250. The radiological decontamination process shall take precedence over life-threatening conditions.
    False
  251. The radiological decontamination process must be completed properly, and it shall take precedence over life-threatening conditions. Urgent medical care shall be delayed in favor of decontamination.
    False
  252. The Ludlum Survey Meter model 2241 may rupture above 8,000 feet altitude pressure due to compressed gases inside the pancake probe, rendering it useless.
    True
  253. The half-life of a radioisotope is the period of time required for the quantity (activity) of radioactivity to be reduced to one half of its original value.
    True
  254. The EPA's, Protective Action Guides, informs state and local authorities at what projected dose they should take action to protect people from exposure to unplanned releases of radioactive material.
    True
  255. Who is responsible for assigning the position of helispot safety on all rescue incidents involving air squad participation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional Captain
      B. Paramedic Radio Man
      C. Incident Commander
      D.
    • Pilot
    • C
  256. Who is responsible for the overall operation and safety of the helispot
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Helispot manager
      B. Takeoff and Landing Controller
      C. Jurisdictional Captain
      D.
    • Pilot
    • A
  257. Helispot Safety is responsible for making a thorough safety inspection of the rescue helispot for wires and other flight hazards within a minimum of _____ feet of the helispot.
    200
  258. The Helispot (or helibase) airspace is defined as that airspace within a _______ mile radius and _____ feet above the helispot elevation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1/2 mile, 1000 ft
      B. 1 mile, 1000 ft.
      C. 1 mile, 500 ft
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  259. The position of ______ shall be assigned at all rescue incidents involving helicopter operations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Helibase manager
      B. Helispot manager
      C. Helispot safety
      D.
    • Either A or B
    • C

  260. A qualified Air Operations Crewmember shall be assigned to the position of Take off and Landing Controller (T.O.L.C) at any helispot where more than ___ helicopters are operating
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. One
      B. Two
      C. Three
      D.
    • Four
    • B
  261. During Helicopter Operations authorized personnel and vehicles should keep at least ___ feet clear of the helicopter at all times, unless specific assignment dictates otherwise.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 50 feet
      B. 100 feet
      C. 150 feet
      D.
    • 200 feet
    • B
  262. Concerning Helicopter Operations spectators must be kept at least 200 feet away, and there will be no smoking within 200 feet of any helicopter
    True
  263. Which of the following is correct concerning Rescue Helispot Site Selection
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The landing area should be approximately 90 feet in diameter
      B. The landing pad should be approximately 20' x 20'
      C. The tail rotor area shall be clear to the ground except for light grass and weeds no taller than 3 feet
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • D
  264. Concerning night rescue helispot site selection which of the following is correct
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The landing area shall be 200' in diameter
      B. The accident rate in the helicopter industry is 4 times as high during nighttime EMS operations
      C. Car headlights on low beam placed at the four corners of the landing area can be helpful in marking the site
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  265. Concerning Helicopter Operations the Los Angeles County weather minimums are a ___ foot ceiling (cloud base) and ___ mile visibility at the point of departure, enroute, and at the destination.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 500, 3
      B. 500, 1
      C. 1000, 1
      D.
    • 1000, 3
    • A
  266. All aircraft sightings should include all the following except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Left or right side of helicopter
      B. O'clock position
      C. High, level, or low
      D.
    • Approximate distance
    • A
  267. If caught in a helicopter drop zone, lie down with your feet in the direction of the oncoming aircraft, helmet on and chinstrap in place.
    False
  268. Which of the following is correct concerning the transportation of crews or passengers in LACo Helicopters
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The crew or passengers should be located at least 35 feet from the touchdown pad
      B. The crew or passenger should be located toward the front of the touchdown pad, downhill side, and in full view of the pilot
      C. The crew or passenger should be position about 90 degrees off the nose of the helicopter
      D.
    • None of the above are correct
    • B
  269. Concerning helicopter water supply operations who shall be the Helispot Manager and shall be in charge of firefighting helispot operations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Air Operations Crewmember
      B. EST Personnel
      C. Engine Company Crew
      D.
    • Any of the above
    • A
  270. LA Co FD Helispot Managers are responsible for all the following except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Logistical support
      B. Helispot personnel and vehicle movements
      C. Dust abatement
      D. Helispot evacuation plans
      E.
    • None of the above are exceptions
    • E
  271. During helipsot water source operations a _________ fire extinguisher is to be placed at the wye and remain there during the time the helispot is in operation.
    Dry Chemical
  272. The Company Officer of the engine assigned to the helispot shall transmit the following information to the pilot except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Wind direction and velocity
      B. Wire Hazards
      C. Location of other aircraft
      D. Other Flight Hazards
      E.
    • None of the above are exceptions
    • E
  273. Which of the following is incorrect concerning Helispot Water Supply Operations
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The landing pad(s) shall be located in the downwind two third of the available landing area
      B. The helicopter fill hose will arrive with the helicopter and consists of a 15 foot section of rubber hose
      C. The water supply has an open butt 50 foot section of 2 1/2" inch hose connected to wye
      D.
    • The filling operation requires two positions on each landing pad, a Shut off man and Kan lok man
    • A
  274. The engine assigned to supply water to the helicopters should be positioned at the _________ after laying an 2 1/2 inch hose line to each landing pad on the helispot. ______ lays work best whenever possible
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Helispot pad, Reverse
      B. Helispot pad, Straight
      C. Water source, Reverse
      D.
    • Water source, Straight
    • C
  275. During Helispot Water Supply Operations _____ feet of 1 3/4 inch hose with a fog nozzle is connected to the wye and is charged.
    200
  276. Concerning Helicopter Water Supply operations additional protector lines will be required if the operations expands beyond _____ pads
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 2
      B. 3
    • C.
    • A
  277. During Helispot Water Supply Operations the desired flow of _____ gpm at the Kam-Lok may be obtained by pumping ____ psi per 100 feet of 2 1/2 inch hose line plus ______psi for the wye.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 300, 30, 30
      B. 360, 30; 30
      C. 360, 30; 60
      D.
    • 360, 60, 30
    • B
  278. During Helispot Water Supply Operations the ______________ is responsible for the accurate timing of the helicopter tank filling operation
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Shut off man
      B. Kam lok man
      C. Helibase manager
      D.
    • Pilot
    • A
  279. During Helispot Water Supply Operations pumping ten seconds too long will result in a significant overload of about ______ pounds
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 200
      C. 300
      D.
    • 500
    • D
  280. During Helispot Water Supply Operations the minimum clearance between helicopter pads (center to center) is ___ feet
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 50
      B. 100
      C. 150
      D.
    • 200
    • C
  281. Every ______ each Station Captain shall inspect all preplanned helispots within their jurisdiction for physical changes or required maintenance, and make the necessary arrangement for corrective work.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. March
      B. April
      C. May
      D.
    • June
    • B
  282. The Los Angeles County, medium class helicopters, drop tanks are capable of delivering _____ gallons per hour, per aircraft.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 4,000 gallons
      B. 5,000 gallons
      C. 6,000 gallons
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  283. During Helicopter Water Supply Operations hose lays should not exceed ____ feet, if possible.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 250
      B. 300
      C. 400
      D.
    • 500
    • D
  284. State law prohibits Helicopter landings within ____ feet of schools (Grades K-12) without prior approval.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 1000
      B. 2000
      C. 3000
      D.
    • 5000
    • A
  285. Night Helispot landing areas shall be ______ feet in diameter and clear of lightweight materials, debris, and obstructions such as trees, poles, and wires
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 100
      B. 150
      C. 200
      D.
    • 300
    • C
  286. Rescue Helispots during daylight hours should be approximately ____ feet in diameter. The landing pad should be approximately ____ x ____ feet.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 90, 20 x 20
      B. 100, 10 x 10
      C. 200, 20 x 20
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  287. Helispot inspections shall be made of all preplanned helispots and helibases at least _______.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Monthly
      B. Bi annually
      C. Annually
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  288. The jurisdictional _________ shall be the point of contact between the Department and the city or unincorporated area in which the Fire Control 3 structure fire training is being conducted
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Captain
      B. Battalion Chief
      C. Assistant fire chief
      D.
    • Director of Training
    • C
  289. Who shall coordinate the live fire training project with the jurisdictional station fire captains, Fire Control 3 Coordinator and the assigned Fire Control 3 Senior Instructor(s)
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Jurisdictional AC
      C. Director of Training
      D.
    • Deputy Chief
    • A
  290. Prior to the Fire Control 3 scheduled live fire training project all resources shall be requested and approved through the jurisdictional __________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Captain
      B. Battalion Chief
      C. Assistant fire chief
      D.
    • Deputy Chief
    • C
  291. All units assigned to the Fire Control 3 live fire training project shall be considered out of service and shall check in at least ____ minutes prior to the scheduled operations briefing
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 15
      B. 20
      C. 30
      D.
    • 60
    • C
  292. Requests from outside agencies for the use of the Los Angeles County Fire Department resources for live fire training shall be in writing from the requesting agency to the _______
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Director of Training
      B. Jurisdictional Battalion Chief
      C. Assistant Chief
      D.
    • Fire Chief
    • D
  293. Department personnel shall not participate in live fire training with outside agencies without the prior approval of the
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Affected Battalion Chief
      B. Fire Chief
      C. Affected Assistant Chief
      D. Affected Operations Deputy Chief
      E.
    • B or D
    • E

  294. Who shall conduct an operations briefing, including a review of the Training Action Plan (TAP), prior to commencement of the Fire Control 3 live fire training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Senior Fire Control Instructor
      C. Jurisdictional Captain
      D.
    • Both A and B
    • D
  295. Once a jurisdictional fire captain has been offered a building for the Fire Control 3 live structure fire training program they must survey the building. The Fire Captain then will contact _________ through the jurisdictional BC
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Senior Fire Control 4 Coordinator
      B. Training Services Section
      C. Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • Both A and B
    • B
  296. The Fire Control 3 Coordinator and the Senior Fire Control 3 Instructor assigned to the live fire training project shall meet with the jurisdictional battalion chief, station fire captain and the property owner to review the proposed training site. Who shall the results be forwarded to for approval
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Department's Director of Training
      B. Assistant fire chief
      C. Deputy Chief
      D. All the above
      E.
    • Both A and B
    • E
  297. Fire Control 3 live fire training projects approval shall be affirmed by the ________ and the _________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Jurisdictional Assistant fire chief
      C. Director or Training
      D. Fire Control 3 Senior Advisor
      E.
    • Both B and C
    • E
  298. Who shall prepare the Training Action Plan (TAP) for the Fire Control 3 live structure fire training
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. BC
      B. Fire Control 3 Coordinator
      C. Senior Fire Control 3 Instructor
      D.
    • All the above
    • D
  299. During Fire Control 3 Live Fire Structure Training the jurisdictional BC shall be assigned to the position of _________ and shall be "out of service" during the live fire training
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Operations Section Chief
      B. Incident commander
      C. Safety Officer
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  300. During Fire Control 3 Live Fire Structure Training the jurisdictional station fire captain shall be assigned the position of __________. Unless otherwise defined by the IC
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Operations section chief
      B. Incident Commander
      C. Safety Officer
      D.
    • Group/Division Supervisor
    • A
  301. Concerning Fire Control 3 Live Fire Structure Training it shall be the responsibility of the Fire Control 3 Coordinator and the jurisdictional _______ to ensure that all proper notifications are made to the Department and any assisting or cooperating agencies
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Captain
      B. Battalion chief
      C. Assistant Chief
      D.
    • Deputy Chief
    • B
  302. During the demobilization of Fire Control 3 Live Fire Structure Training the ________ shall be responsible for the extinguishments, overhaul, and fire watch
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional engine company
      B. Jurisdictional BC
      C. Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • Fire Control 3 Coordinator
    • A
  303. The Fire Control Program Coordinator shall be an Operations Bureau Battalion Chief assigned by the _______ of the Special Operations Bureau
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Deputy Chief
      B. Chief Deputy
      C. Assistant Chief
      D.
    • Director of Training
    • A
  304. The Committee Chair of the Fire Control 3 Peer Review Committee (FC3PRC) shall be the ___________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Fire Control 3 Program Coordinator
      B. Jurisdictional Operations BC
      C. Primary Fire Control 3 Instructor
      D.
    • Department's Director of Training
    • D
  305. Department personnel applying to become a Fire Control 3 Instructor Trainee shall submit a memo through their BC to the Fire Control Peer Review Committee, Training Services Section
    True
  306. Fire Control 3 Instructor Trainees shall complete the minimum following requirements except for
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. A minimum of two training burn projects
      B. A minimum of 16 hours of building and site preparation
      C. Completion of all components contained in the Instructor Trainee Task Book - Module 1
      D.
    • None of the above are exceptions
    • D
  307. Which of the following is incorrect concerning the Fire Control 3 Primary Instructor
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Shall have a minimum three year's subject matter experience and training
      B. Applicants shall submit a memo through their battalion chief to the Fire Control 3 Peer Review Committee
      C. Fire Control 3 Primary Instructor Trainees shall complete a minimum of 40 hours of training
      D. Fire Control 3 Primary Instructors must register with the California State Fire Marshal's Office
      E.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • A
  308. Fire Control 3 Senior Instructor shall hold the position of at least _______
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Fire Fighter
      B. Fire Fighter Specialist
      C. Fire Captain
      D.
    • Battalion Chief
    • C
  309. Who shall approve the training action plan (TAP) for the Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids and gases training project with the jurisdictional station captain(s), Senior Fire Control 4 Coordinator, and the assigned Fire Control 4 Senior Instructors
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Jurisdictional AC
      C. Chief Deputy
      D.
    • Director of Training
    • A
  310. The Jurisdictional station captains shall contact the ___________ requesting ANY in service Fire Control 4 training for flammable liquids, combustible liquids, and/or flammable gas live fire training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional Battalion chief
      B. Jurisdictional Assistant Chief
      C. Training Services Section
      D.
    • None of the above
    • A
  311. The Jurisdictional battalion chief shall contact the ___________ requesting in service Fire Control 4 training for flammable liquids, combustible liquids, and/or flammable gas live fire training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional AC
      B. Senior Fire Control 4 Officer
      C. Training Services Section
      D.
    • Deputy Chief
    • C
  312. Who shall conduct an operations briefing reviewing all components of the training action plan (TAP) prior to a live Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids, and gases training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional battalion chief
      B. Senior Fire Control 4 Instructor
      C. Director of Training
      D.
    • Both A and B
    • D
  313. Who shall be the point of contact between all personnel and agencies involved in the live Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids, and gases training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Director of Training
      C. Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • Fire Control 4 Coordinator
    • D
  314. Once the training project location for the Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids, and gases training project has been properly prepared and the training action plan (TAP) approved, it shall be the responsibility of the _____________________ to complete a final walk through of the training project location
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional AC
      B. Director of Training
      C. Fire Control 4 Instructor
      D.
    • Jurisdictional Battalion Chief
    • D
  315. Who shall ensure that all proper notifications are made to the Department and any assisting or cooperating agencies concerning the Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids, and gases training project
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Director of Training and Jurisdictional battalion chiefs
      B. Jurisdictional AC and Jurisdictional battalion chiefs
      C. Fire Control 4 Coordinator and Jurisdictional battalion chiefs
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  316. Which of the following is correct concerning the Fire Control 4 flammable, combustible liquids, and gases training
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. All request for the use of Department resources for live fire training shall be made by written request from the requesting agency to the Region Operations Bureau Deputy Chief
      B. Department personnel shall not participate in live fire control training with outside agencies without the prior approval of the Fire Chief or affected Region Operations Bureau Deputy Chief
      C. Both A and B are correct
      D.
    • Neither A or B are correct
    • B
  317. Department personnel applying to become a Fire Control 4 Instructor Trainee shall have a minimum __ years subject matter experience and training. Personnel shall submit a memo through their BC to the Fire Control 4 peer review committee
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. 2
      B. 3
      C.
    • 5
    • A
  318. Which of the following is correct concerning the Department personnel applying to become a Fire Control 4 Primary Instructor
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Applicants shall have a minimum 5 years subject matter experience and training
      B. Applicants shall submit a memo through their BC to the Fire Control 4 Peer Review Committee
      C. Resumes shall not be dated more than 30 days from the date of receipt by the FC4PRC
      D.
    • All the above are correct
    • D
  319. Fire Control 4 Senior Instructors shall hold the rank of at least Fire Captain
    True
  320. Who shall assign the (FETT) - Forcible Entry Training Trailer, certify and qualify FETT Senior Instructors, Primary Instructors, and Instructor Trainees as required
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The Jurisdictional BC
      B. The Training Services Section
      C. The Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • Both A and B
    • B
  321. Who shall be the point of contact between the (FETT) - Forcible Entry Training Trailer Coordinator and their respective regional administrative site
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Battalion Training Officers (BTOs)
      C. Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • Any of the above
    • B
  322. Which of the following is incorrect concerning the (FETT) - Forcible Entry Training Trailer
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. The Los Angeles Training Center (LAO), Training Captain shall be assigned as the FETT coordinator
      B. The FETT shall only be utilized in the presence of at least one FETT Senior Instructor and one FETT Primary Instructor
      C. The jurisdictional BC requesting the FETT shall develop the (TAP) Training Action Plan
      D.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • C
  323. All request for the (FETT) - Forcible Entry Training Trailer shall be directed to the local _____
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. Jurisdictional BC
      B. Battalion Training Officer
      C. Jurisdictional AC
      D.
    • LAO Training Captain
    • B

  324. Who shall qualify and certify FETT Senior Instructors, Primary Instructors, and Instructor Trainees as required
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.

























































    A. Training Services Section (Training)
    B. Equipment Development Committee
    C. FETT Committee
    D.
  325. AC Services Division
  326. A



  327. Personnel requesting to become a FETT Instructor Trainee shall provide a memo through their jurisdictional BC's office to the _______ verifying training and experience
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. FETT Committee BC
      B. Director of Trainees
      C. AC Services Division
      D.
    • Equipment Development Committee BC
    • B
  328. Personnel requesting to become FETT Senior Instructor shall provide a memo through their jurisdictional BC to the ____________
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A. FETT Committee
      B. Jurisdictional AC
      C. Director of Training
      D.
    • All the above
    • C

  329. During fire season, May 1 to December 31, personnel shall inspect their fire shelters every ___ days
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.3
      B.7
      C.14
      D.
    • 30
    • C
  330. How often shall personnel inspect fire shelters during non fire season, January 1 to April 30.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.weekly
      B.every 14 days
      C.as needed
      D.
    • first of each month
    • D
  331. The fire shelter shall be worn ______ if carried on the side of the body or ______ if worn in the small of the back.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.vertically, vertically
      B.horizontally, vertically
      C.vertically, horizontally
      D.
    • horizontally, horizontally
    • C
  332. Signs indicating a fire shelter should be removed from service include which of the following:
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.More than 2 holes in the poly vinyl bag or any hole or tear greater than 1/4" in length
      B.Dark gray aluminum dust material is visual inside the poly vinyl bag and you cannot read the packing label
      C.Both A and B
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B
  333. All safety personnel, and those civilian personnel that may be required to work within the operational area of a wildland fire, shall train _______ (at a minimum) on the deployment and use of a fire shelter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Monthly
      B.Quarterly
      C.Semi Annually
      D.
    • Annually
    • D

  334. The new generation fire shelter protects primarily by reflecting. The outer layer of foil reflects about ___ percent of the radiant heat
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.


    • A.5
      B.50
      C.75
      D.95
    • D
  335. When the fire shelter material reaches about ___ degrees the glue that bonds the layers begins to break down
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.350
      B.375
      C.400
      D.
    • 500
    • D
  336. When deploying a fire shelter you can move up to ___ percent faster without your gear.
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.30
      B.35
      C.40
      D.
    • 50
    • A
  337. When deploying a fire shelter try to pick natural firebreaks such as wet meadows, wide streambeds, swampy areas, saddles on ridgetops, and rockslides.
    False
  338. When deploying a fire shelter clear the deployment site to an area ___ by ___ feet down to mineral soil
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.4, 4
      B.4, 5
      C.4, 6
      D.
    • 4, 8
    • D
  339. When deploying a fire shelter which of the following is incorrect
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Lie face down so your feet are toward the oncoming flames
      B.Keep your nose and mouth on the ground
      C.The optimal survival zone with or without a fire shelter is within two feet of the ground
      D.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • C
  340. When deploying a fire shelter which of the following is incorrect
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Breathing through a dry bandanna or a shroud will help reduce the heat and smoke you inhale
      B.Once you are entrapped, your highest priority is to protect your lungs and airway
      C.The best way to use your water is to drink it
      D.Use your excess available water to wet your clothing or your bandanna inside the fire shelter
      E.
    • None of the above are incorrect
    • D
  341. When sharing a fire shelter your head should be by the other occupant's ______
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Head
      B.Feet
      C.Gear Pack
      D.
    • Legs
    • A
  342. Typical fire shelter entrapments last from ___ to longer than ___ minutes
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.5, 60
      B.10, 90
      C.10, 120
      D.
    • None of the above
    • B

  343. Practice should allow you to deploy the new fire shelter in ___ to ___ seconds
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.10, 15
      B.10, 30
      C.15, 20
      D.
    • None of the above
    • C
  344. What is the most common damage to a fire shelter and can be spotted through the plastic bag
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Heat
      B.Abrasion
      C.Water
      D.
    • Corrosion
    • B
  345. Remove fire shelters from service when tears are longer than 1/4 inch
    True
  346. Large shelter provides better protection for larger individuals by
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Reducing body contact with the hot shelter material during deployment
      B.Providing more insulating air space between the shelter material and the occupant
      C.Preventing the shelter form being damaged when a larger person stretches out inside the shelter material
      D.
    • All of the above
    • D
  347. Any firefighter whose girth is larger than ___ inches at any point should carry the large fire shelter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.48
      B.50
      C.52
      D.
    • 53
    • D
  348. Any firefighter taller than ______ should carry the large fire shelter
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.5 feet 6 inches
      B.5 feet 7 inches
      C.6 feet
      D.
    • 6 feet 1 inch
    • D
  349. What is a fire shelters shelf life
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.One year
      B.Three years
      C.Five years
      D.
    • Fire shelters do not have a specified shelf life; their serviceability depends on their condition
    • D
  350. Which of the following signs show wear on the PVC bag pointing to excessive fire shelter wear
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.dark gray bag
      B.holes in the bag
      C.water in the bag
      D.
    • all of the above
    • D
  351. Which of the following fire shelters should be taken out of service
    • Click in the circle next to your answer choice.
    • A.Shelters that show evidence of moisture inside the bag
      B.Shelters with so much aluminum rubbed off that the paper label inside the bag is not readable
      C.Shelters with aluminum rubbed off and the paper label inside the bag is readable
      D.All the above
      E.
    • Only A and B
    • E

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