Mini CPE ONE

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anubis_star
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Mini CPE ONE
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2011-11-28 22:23:37
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Mini CPE ONE
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Mini CPE 1
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  1. Gram stain procedure
    • heat fix - through flame 2-3 times
    • Crystal violet - sit for 1 min
    • rinse
    • Gram's iodine - sit for 1 min
    • rinse
    • Decolorizer - squirt over smear until color runs clear
    • rinse
    • Safranin - sit for 1 min
    • rinse
  2. Gram reactions
    G+ Holds crystal violet and remains purple

    G- decolorizes and only holds the pink safranin stain
  3. Aerobes
    grows in presence of O2
  4. Anaerobes
    Grows in absence of O2
  5. Facultative anaerobes
    Can grow with or without O2
  6. Microaerophiles
    Can grow in reduced O2 concentration
  7. Thioglycollate broth
    • Aerobes grow at top
    • Anaerobes at the bottom
    • Fac. anaerobes grow throughout but mostly at top
    • Microarophilics grow just below the surface
  8. Incubation period
    Time from initial infection until clinical signs appear

    • Most bact = 2-5 days
    • Most viruses = 3 days - 2 weeks
  9. Nosocomial infection
    Hospital acquired infection
  10. Vector
    An invertebrate insect that can transmit disease through it's bite

    Fleas, ticks, flies, mosquitoes
  11. Fomite
    Inanimate obhect contaminated with microorganisms, can transmit disease

    Doorknobs, tables
  12. Endemic
    when an organism prevails continuosly in a certain geographic location, is constantly present in that location
  13. Epidemic
    sudden outbreak or increase in number of disease cases, no one number defines an epidemic
  14. Pandemic
    an epidemic occurring over a very wide area, crossing international boundaries and usually affecting a large number of people, a global epidemic
  15. Reservoir
    in order for an organism to continmue to exist and be spread it has to have a permanent place to reside, could be human, animal, soil, water
  16. Carrier
    An infected individual who is a potential source of infection for others, may or may not be symptomatic
  17. 2 basic mechanisms of disease production
    • 1. tissue invasion
    • 2. toxin production
  18. 2 types of bacterial toxins
    • 1. endotoxins
    • 2. exotoxins
  19. Exotoxins
    • Produced within bacterial cells and released into environment
    • Are protein molecules
    • Toxic to the host
  20. Exotoxins that are neurotoxins
    • Clostridium tetani
    • Clostridium botulinum
  21. Endotoxins
    • Part of cell wall of G- bacteria
    • Released when G- bacteria die
    • *Endotoxemia
  22. Endotoxemia
    • causes production and release of inflammatory mediators that can cause:
    • fever
    • hypotension
    • hypoglycemia
    • shock
    • organ failure
    • DIC
    • coma
  23. DIC
    Disseminated Intravascular Disease
  24. 2 branches of immune response
    • Humoral immunity - B lymphs
    • Cellular immunity - T lymphs
  25. What must you do to a t-port before attaching it to an IVC
    Flush it with a heparin flush
  26. How can you identify a heparin flush syringe
    They are labeled "F"
  27. What color are oxygen tanks?
    • Green in America
    • White in Canada
  28. Generic name for gas sterilization
    Ethylene Oxide
  29. Brand name for gas sterilization
    Anprolene
  30. What 6 tests are included in a pre-anesthetic profile
    • BUN
    • Glucose
    • ALP
    • Total protein
    • ALT
    • Creatinine
  31. What does FeLV stand for?
    Feline Leukemia Virus
  32. What does SOAP stand for?
    • Subjective
    • Objective
    • Assesment
    • Plan
  33. When viewing an unstained slide the condenser should be __________
    down
  34. Normal CRT is
    < 2 sec
  35. Dentition for an adult dog
    2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42
  36. Dentition for an adult cat
    2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) - 30
  37. Medical term for "baby teeth"
    Deciduous teeth
  38. Medical term for tooth serface facing the cheek
    Buccal
  39. In a dog, which tooth is the upper carnasial tooth
    4th upper premolar
  40. By what age do most permanent teeth come in
    5-6 months
  41. By what age do puppies and kitten's eyes open?
    5-14 days
  42. Trichuris vulpis
    Dog whipworm
  43. Ancylostoma caninum
    Dog hookworm
  44. Toxocara canis
    Dog roundworm
  45. Dirofilaria immitus
    Heartworm
  46. Dipulidium caninum
    Cucumber tapeworm
  47. Paragonimus kellicoti
    Lung fluke
  48. Isispera/Eimeria (family name)
    Coccidia
  49. Strongylus vulgaris
    Blood worm
  50. oxyuris equi
    Pinworm
  51. Fasciola hepatica
    Liver fluke
  52. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
    Brown dog tick
  53. Cuterebra
    Fly bot
  54. Pregnant women should not clean litter boxes because of what parasite?
    Toxoplasma gondii
  55. VLM in people is caused by
    Roundworms
  56. CLM in people is caused by
    Hookworm larvae
  57. Most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats
    Microsporum canis
  58. Microsporum canis is a _____
    Mold
  59. Name of the light source used as an initial screen for dermatophytosis
    Wood's lamp
  60. Common names for the 3 most distal joints in an equine front leg
    • Coffin joint
    • Pastern joint
    • Fetlock joint
  61. Common name for distal phalynx in a horse
    Coffin bone
  62. What bones in dogs and c ats are immediately distal to the carpus
    Metacarpals
  63. List the order you would apply bandage materials from inner to outer
    • 1. primary dressing
    • 2. cotton/cast padding
    • 3. Kling/conforming gauze
    • 4. vet wrap/Elasticon
  64. A robert jones is used to _______
    Stabilize fractures distal to the elbow or stifle
  65. An Ehmer sling is used to ____________
    immobilize the hindlimb following reduction of a luxated hip
  66. The common yeast that causes otitis in dogs
    Malassezia
  67. The vector that transmits Lyme disease
    Ixodes
  68. Demodex is a _________ mite and diagnosed with ___________
    • burrowing
    • a deep skin scrape
  69. ELISA heartworm tests detect
    adult heartworm antigens
  70. FIV tests detect
    antibodies
  71. FeLV tests detect
    antigens
  72. Genus name of the common ear mite
    Otodectes
  73. FeLV and FIV are in the family
    Retroviridae
  74. FIV is a virus in the family
    Coronaviridae
  75. Feline Panleukopenia virus is in the family
    Parvoviridae
  76. FLUTD
    Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease
  77. tachycardia
    increased heart rate
  78. dyspnea
    trouble breathing
  79. hyperkalemia
    increased blood potassium
  80. hyponatreamia
    decrease sodium in blood
  81. sublingual
    under the tongue
  82. anasomosis
    surgical connection between two tube like structures
  83. intussusception
    a section of bowels slides into another
  84. entropiion
    inward rolling of the eyelids
  85. Strangles
    Streptococcus equi`
  86. circling disease
    Listeria monocytogenes
  87. lyme disease
    Borrelia burgdorferi
  88. tropical canine pancytopenia
    Ehrlichia canis
  89. tuberculosis
    Mycobacterium sp.
  90. CSD
    Bartonella henselae
  91. RMSF/tick fever
    Rickettsia rickettsii
  92. LTT
    EDTA
  93. GreenTT
    Heparin
  94. RTT
    nothing
  95. CBC tube
    LTT
  96. Serum test
    RTT
  97. Heparanized crit tubes
    red
  98. HCT
    PCV
  99. corrected WBC
    (WBC x 100)/(nRBC + 100) = WBC/ul
  100. order and times of the gram stain reagents
    • crystal violet 1 min
    • gram's iodine 1 min
    • decolorizer until it runs clear
    • safranin 1 min
  101. Gram + bact stain
    purple
  102. Gram - bacteria stain
    pink
  103. What do they do to a heifer when vaccinated for bangs disease
    at five months, the put an orange metal tag in the ear and tattoo it
  104. Psittacosis
    Chlamydophila
  105. Vector that transmits the plague
    Flea
  106. Coggins test is used to diagnose
    Equine inf. anemia
  107. Bordetella
    GNROD that causes infectious tracheobronchitis or kennel cough
  108. MacConkey's agar selects for the growth of _______ and differentiates between _____________ and _______________
    • GNRODS
    • Lactose Fermentors
    • Non-lactose fermentors
  109. 6-way canine vaccine`
    • Canine distemper
    • hepatitis
    • coronavirus
    • parainfluenza
    • parvovirus
    • Lepto
  110. Canine vaccine goes in the
    right forelimb
  111. rabies vaccine goes in the
    right rear limb
  112. 4-way feline vaccine
    • rhinotracheitis (herpes virus)
    • calicivirus
    • chamydophilia
    • panleukopenia (parvovirus)
  113. FeLV vaccine goes in the
    left rear limb
  114. PO
    by mouth
  115. CRF
    chronic renal failure
  116. PRN
    as needed
  117. PU/PD
    pulyuria/pulydypsea
  118. IVDD
    inter-vertebral disc disease
  119. AIHA
    autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  120. ACL
    anterior cruciate ligament
  121. THR
    total hip replacement
  122. PCV
    packed cell volume
  123. CRT
    capillary refill time
  124. NPO
    nothing by mouth
  125. DKA
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  126. OD
    right eye
  127. AS
    left ear
  128. CHF
    conestive heart failure
  129. MCT
    mast cell tumor
  130. IMHA
    immune mediated hemolytic anemia
  131. TPLO
    tibial plateau leveling (fixed cruciate ligament)
  132. GDV
    gastriv dilation volvulus
  133. PVC
    premature ventricular contraction
  134. PU
    perineal urethrostomy
  135. hypercapnia
    increase Co2 in blood
  136. nystagmus
    involuntary eye movement
  137. anisocoria
    unequal pupil sizes
  138. laparotomy
    abdominal exploration through an abdominal wall incision
  139. orchiectomy
    removal of the testicles
  140. onychetomy
    declawing
  141. cyanosis
    blue coloration
  142. ataxia
    lack of cordination
  143. gastropexy
    stomach is sutured to the abdominal wall to prevent GDV
  144. pyometra
    infection in the uterus of dogs and cats
  145. pruritis
    itching
  146. encephalomyelitis
    inflammation of the brain and spinal chord

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