Stage 16

Card Set Information

Stage 16
2010-03-19 22:26:48
Basic instrument

Flashcards for Course 244 Stage 16, Basic Attitude Instrument training.
Show Answers:

  1. What are the primary instruments in straight and level flight?
    • Pitch - Altimeter
    • Power- Airspeed Indicator
    • Bank- Heading Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  2. What are the primary instruments when changing airspeed?
    • Pitch- Vertical Speed Indicator
    • Power- Torque Meter
    • Bank- Heading Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  3. What are the primary instruments for constant airspeed climbs/descents?
    • Pitch- Attitude Indicator, then Airspeed Indicator
    • Power- Torque Meter
    • Bank- Heading Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  4. What are the primary instruments for constant rate climbs/descents?
    • Pitch- Vertical Speed Indicator
    • Power- Airspeed Indicator
    • Bank- Heading Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  5. What are the primary instruments in normal and steep turns?
    • Pitch- Altimeter
    • Power- Airspeed Indicator
    • Bank- Attitude Indicator / Turn Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  6. What are the primary instruments in timed turns to magnetic compass headings?
    • Pitch- Altimeter
    • Power- Airspeed Indicator
    • Bank- Turn Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  7. What are the primary instruments in unusual attitude recovery?
    • Pitch- Attitude Indicator / Altimeter
    • Power- Torque Meter
    • Bank- Attitude Indicator / Heading Indicator
    • Trim- Slip Indicator
  8. Which instruments run on the Pitot Static System?
    • Airspeed Indicator
    • Altimeter
    • Vertical Speed Indicator
  9. As ram air pressure into the pitot tube increases...
    the diaphragm in the instrument expands, showing an increase in airspeed on the display.
  10. When does the airspeed indicator needle freeze?
    If pitot tube, water drain, and static port are plugged.
  11. What happens if the static port is open and pitot tube is plugged?
    The Airspeed indicator acts like an altimeter. Increase in altitude will display an increase in airspeed.
  12. Pitot tube stopped up, water drain and static port open.
    Pressure is equal in diaphragm and around the diaphragm, so needle shows zero.
  13. Pitot tube and water drain open, static port stopped up.
    Pressure in diaphragm can vary, but the pressure surrounding the diaphragm fixed, therefore the indicator will work, but it will have some errors.

    Climb - pressure surrounding the diaphragm is supposed to decrease, but does not, diaphragm does not expand as much as it should, so the airspeed is lower than it should be.

    Descent - pressure surrounding the diaphragm is supposed to increase, but does not, diaphragm expands more than it should, so the airspeed is higher than it should be.
  14. What is the VSI connected to?
    Static port only.
  15. On the VSI, where does air enter/exit rapidly, and where is it controlled by a calibrated leak?
    • Rapidly- Internal diaphragm
    • Calibrated leak- Case
  16. What actions can be taken when the static ports are blocked?
    Break the glass on the VSI.
  17. When the glass on the VSI is broken, it will read...
    opposite. Descending will cause the needle to show a climb, and vice versa.
  18. True altitude is typically considered...
  19. What pressure is given to pilots by ATC and FSS?
    Current pressure adjusted to sea level.
  20. If you change the pressure in the Kollsman window, the altimeter will show...
    an increase in altitude with an increase in pressure or a decrease in altitude with a decrease in pressure.
  21. The turn and slip indicator works off of the gyroscopic principle of __________________ and shows aircraft movement about the ________________ axis.
    • Precession
    • Vertical
  22. Which two gyro instruments use the principle of rigidity in space?
    Attitude and heading indicator.
  23. What errors are associated with a magnetic compass?
    • Variation
    • Deviation
    • Magnetic Dip- Northerly Turning Error, Acceleration/Deceleration Error
    • Oscillation Error
  24. The line where there is no angular difference between magnetic north and true north is...
    an Agonic Line.
  25. What causes magnetic dip?
    The magnetic flux lines that dip towards the surface of the Earth at the poles.
  26. How can a pilot avoid the Northerly Turning Error associated with the magnetic compass?
    UNOS: Undershoot north, overshoot south
  27. Which heading(s) is the Northerly Turning Error no factor?
    • East 090
    • West 270
  28. What is Oscillation Error in reference to the magnetic compass?
    Erratic movement of thecompass due to turbulence.
  29. What steps are taken when checking navigation equipment?
    • Tune
    • Identify
    • Test
    • Set
  30. The VOR check must be performed how often?
    Every 30 days.
  31. What is a compass locator?
    An NDB that is used in conjunction with an Instrument Landing System.
  32. How can you tell an NDB or VOR is unable to transmit voice?
    It will have a "W" to designate "without voice."
  33. What can affect the reception of an NDB?
    Lightning, precipitation static, radio stations
  34. How can you tell if your ADF is picking up interference?
    If you can hear voice, music, or static while identifying.
  35. What is the frequency range for NDBs?
    190 to 535 kilohertz (kHz)
  36. What frequencies do VORs use?
    108.0 to 117.95 MHz
  37. What does _ . ... _ mean when identifying a VOR?
    TEST. The station is undergoing maintenance.
  38. What errors/limitations are associated with VORs?
    • Line of sight
    • Roughness due to terrain
    • Roughness due to RPM
  39. How does a VOR Test Facility (VOT) work?
    When in range, tune to the station. The CDI should be centered with a FROM indication when the OBS is set to 0 degrees, or TO indication when OBS is set to 180 degrees.
  40. How often does a VOR Automatic Gain Control or modulation circuit need to be calibrated?
    The FAA recommends once a year by a authorized repair facilities.
  41. What are authorized methods for performing a VOR check?
    • Using a VOT
    • Certified airborne checks
    • Certified check points on the airport surface
  42. What are the VOR check tolerances for a ground and air check?
    • Ground +/- 4 degrees
    • Airborne +/- 6 degrees
  43. Where are airborne and ground VOR check points found?
  44. What is the maximum tolerance between two VOR systems?
    +/- 4 degrees
  45. What is TACAN?
    Tactical Air Navigation. Used by the military the same as DME. Uses UHF.
  46. How does DME work?
    Interrogation- paired pulses sent out by the aircraft. The stations sends back the same timing of paired pulses on the same frequency. The DME equipment onboard the aircraft measures the time it takes to receive the pulses from the station and calculates the distance.
  47. What is the operating range for DME?
    960 to 1215 MHz
  48. What is the effective range of DME?
  49. What are the three types of VOR?
    • Terminal
    • Low
    • High
  50. What is the service volume of a Terminal VOR?
    1,000' to 12,000' for 25nm
  51. What is the service volume for a Low VOR?
    1,000' to 18,000' for 40nm
  52. What is the service volume for High VOR?
    • 1,000' to 14,500' for 40nm
    • 14,500' to 18,000' and 45,000' to 60,000' for 100nm
    • 18,000' to 45,000' for 130nm
  53. What are the types and service volumes for NDBs?
    • Compass Locator- 15nm
    • MH- 25nm
    • H- 50nm
    • HH- 75nm
  54. What is the range of frequencies for ILS?
    108.10 to 111.95 MHz
  55. How far is ILS full scale deflection at approach end of the runway threshold?
    700 feet
  56. How are localizer's different in their morse code identifications?
    They are preceded with the letter I (..).
  57. What are the limits of Localizer coverage?
    10 degrees to either side for 18 NM and 35 degrees to either side for 10 NM
  58. What is an LDA?
    Localizer Type Directional Aid.

    The LDA is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer but is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course usually provides a more precise approach course than the similar Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) installation, which may have a course width of 6 or 12 degrees.
  59. Where is the Glide Slope transmitter located?
    Between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway) and offset 250 to 650 feet from the runway centerline.
  60. What is the normal broadcast dimensions (beam) of the glide slope?
    • 1.4 degrees wide (vertically)
    • 3 degrees of slope
    • Usable to 10 NM
  61. What are the typical heights for the MM and OM when on the correct glide path?
    • MM - 200'
    • OM - 1400'
  62. What errors are associated with Glide Slope?
    False courses and reverse sensing will occur at angles considerably greater than the published path.
  63. What is TCH?
    Threshold Crossing Height

    It is used as a reference for planning purposes which represents the height above the runway threshold that an aircraft’s glide slope antenna should be, if that aircraft remains on a trajectory formed by the four−mile−to−middle marker glidepath segment.
  64. What can the DME replace on some ILS?
    • OM
    • Back Course FAF
    • Other fixes on the Localizer
  65. What does HIWAS stand for?
    Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service
  66. What is RAIM?
    Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

    RAIM is necessary since delays of up to two hours can occur before an erroneous satellite transmission can be detected and corrected by the satellite control segment. The RAIM function is also referred to as fault detection. Another capability, fault exclusion, refers to the ability of the receiver to exclude a failed satellite from the position solution.
  67. What is required for RAIM?
    • 5 Satellites
    • Or 4 satellites and a baro-aid

    6 satellites (or 5 and baro-aid) can isolate the bad satellite and remove it from the navigation solution
  68. How many GPS satellites are currently in use?
    • 24
    • One more expected mid-2010