USCG MST2 EPME Questions

The flashcards below were created by user fijijames on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. The purpose of a facility Interim Certificate of Adequacy is to _____.
    allow operations pending review of the paperwork and on-scene inspection of the facility
  2. Cargo pump systems and gauges, cargo hoses and piping, and relief valve operations is required to be tested at least once every ___ months.
  3. What is the MAXIMUM distance in feet for cargo space between cross aisles?
  4. What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access is _____ feet.
  5. What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility without fire truck access is _____ feet.
  6. How much clearance shall be maintained around fire fighting appliances surrounded by cargo?
    3 feet
  7. How much clearance shall be maintained around fire fighting appliances?
    4 feet
  8. No cargo shall be tiered closer then 3 feet to a ceiling structure member or ___ inches to a sprinkler head.
  9. When stacking flammable or combustible material, what is the MAXIMUM height of flammable cargo?
    12 feet
  10. How many feet of clear and open space must be maintained between cargo, freight, merchandise and other materials piles and both sides of facility walls, fire walls and fire stops, and sides of the pier?
    2 feet
  11. Which form is the application and permit to handle explosives or other dangerous cargo?
  12. The first and broadest term used to describe regulated cargo?
    Dangerous Cargo
  13. Who is responsible for providing the witness for a prewash?
  14. What other types of cargo can be loaded at the same time as an explosive class 1.1 on board a vessel?
  15. During the prewash procedure, where are Category "A" and high-viscosity Category "B" and "C" NLS's discharged?
    Reception facility
  16. Once an oil transfer is complete, the person in charge must _____.
    sign the transfer papers
  17. The purpose of a facility Certificate of Adequacy is to ___?
    verify adequacy of the facility to receive NLS's
  18. Which application form would be used for a facility applying for a Noxious Liquid Substance COA?
  19. What does a vessel have to have in order for a facility to be able to receive vapors?
    Valid COI endorsed for vapor recovery
  20. What is a vapor destruction unit?
  21. What color must the vapor recovery hose be?
    yellow and red
  22. What must be stenciled on a Vapor Recovery hose?
  23. What is the general color combination used to mark fire fighting appliances in a warehouse?
    Red and white
  24. What do facilities with vapor recovery systems have to provide to the Coast Guard?
    Written certification that the VRS meets the requirements
  25. For vapor recovery systems, who is a certifying entity?
    Individual or company certified by G-MTH
  26. May the COTP impose any requirements from 33 CFR 154-156 on a Marina Fuel Dock, that does not transfer oil or hazmat in bulk to a vessel with a capacity of over 250 Bbls?
  27. While conducting a spot check of MOTF, you notice that there are no watchmen provided to keep the barges secured from unauthorized access. Is this a problem?
  28. What things DO NOT have to be marked on all oil transfer hoses?
    Burst pressure
  29. What class of explosives require written permits?
    1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5
  30. Who is required to witness and verify the prewash of any cargo tank?
    prewash surveyor
  31. What equipment is required when a product poses a significant environmental threat?
    discharge removal
  32. The regulations in 33 CFR 154 apply to a facility or marina which is capable of transferring ___ barrels or more.
  33. What is the form used for the transaction of designated dangerous cargo?
  34. What is included in designated dangerous cargo?
    1.2 explosives
  35. What type of cargo requires a written permit to handle?
    Designated dangerous cargo
  36. DOI's must be on record for how long?
    1 yr
  37. For what reasons may a Letter of Adequacy be voided?
    • 1. Amends operations manual without following procedures in 33 CFR 154
    • 2. Fails to amend the operations manual when required by COTP
  38. Combustible liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or above ______?
    60 deg. F
  39. What type of vessel is owned and operated by the government and is used only for non-commercial, government service?
  40. Which document does the person in charge complete before starting an oil transfer operation?
    Declaration of Inspection
  41. The vent system used with pressurized cargo, which protects cargo tanks from over pressurization, is a _____.
    safety relief valve
  42. How high must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are more than 2" in diameter? 33 CFR 155.310
    1 barrel
  43. In order to be able to stop loading quickly in the event of a failure in the transfer system, a facility must have _____.
    an emergency shutdown system
  44. What provides first aid response to prevent or control a pollution incident?
    discharge containment equipment
  45. Who is notified in writing when someone is trained to competently transfer each cargo handled by the facility and is designated as person in charge?
    Captain of the Port
  46. If an applicant is found by a hearing board unfit for a PSC, how many days do they have to appeal? 20
    • When conducting a container inspection, what terminal personnel should be present at the time of "popping the container"?
    • yard clerk
  47. What regulation covers the reception of garbage by visiting vessels?
  48. How big must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are 2 in or less in diameter?
    1/2 barrel
  49. The new labeling requirements addressed under HMR-181 are found in _____.
    49 CFR 172
  50. When does a Port Security Card expire?
    1st day after 8 yrs of issue date
  51. What provides a means to remove oil from containment without a discharge into the water?
    discharge removal
  52. An applicant holds a valid merchant mariners document, if they receive a port security card they must..
    surrender MMD to get a PSC
  53. Fixed catchment, curbing, or other fixed means are examples of ___.
    small discharge containment
  54. Where are the regulations for PSC's found?
    33 CFR 125
  55. Cargo must be stowed at least ____ from sprinkler heads.
  56. During an inspection of a marine oil transfer facility, what equipment must be marked with the product used or "oil service" and the MAWP?
    hose assemblies
  57. What equipment must have a means of draining oil or be capable of being blanked off prior to disconnect?
    loading arms
  58. Butterfly valves, wafer-type resilient seated valves, and blank flanges are what type of equipment?
    closure devices
  59. Each PIC must be able to communicate with the other in order to ensure the transfer can be ____.
    stopped in case of an emergency
  60. If an applicant held a valid port security card and submits for a new card they must:
    hold valid card while application is processed and then surrender old card wen new card is issued
  61. Who is responsible for making sure that there is enough water for fire fighting at an ammonia nitrate load?
    the owner
  62. Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ____ meters from the general public or railways
  63. At a Waterfront Facility handling LNG, the substructures are within 5 meters of any pipe or equipment containing LNG, or are within 15 meters of a loading flange must..
    • -be made of concrete or steel
    • -have a fire endurance rating of not less than 2 hours
  64. On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have at least ____ portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of methane?
  65. At a LNG waterfront facility, the emergency power source must provide enough power for the operation of the ____________.
    • - emergency shut down system,
    • - communications, - fire fighting system,
    • - emergency lighting
  66. How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
    at least 1
  67. How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
    24 months
  68. On a LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
    • - a description of pressure checks,
    • - dates & results of tests,
    • - description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
  69. Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have at least ____ portable gas detector(s), or ____ fixed gas detector(s) in the marine transfer area?
  70. How many copies of the operators manual must a LHG/LNG facility sent to the COTP?
  71. After the COTP receives a letter of intent to operate a LHG/LNG facility, what does the COTP send to the owner?
    letter of recommendation
  72. When the COTP has directed that access to a waterfront facility be restricted, personnel requiring access to that area must have one or more of the identification credentials listed ______.
    33 CFR 125
  73. What do NFPA pamphlets 10 & 10A provide guidance for? fire fighting equipment
    • To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person in Charge (PIC)?
    • Facility operator
  74. Each hose used for the transfer of oil must be marked with AT LEAST the maximum allowable working pressure and the phrase ____.
    oil service
  75. What regulations cover Solid bulk dangerous cargo?
    46 CFR 148
  76. How high must an ammunition magazine be kept off the deck?
  77. What is the inspection form used for facility inspections?
    CG 4200
  78. What is the primary thing to look for when monitoring a transfer operation?
    the transfer ops are being followed
  79. What are the conditions for issuing a permit to handle designated dangerous cargo?
    A facility must meet the safety requirements of 33 CFR 126.19
  80. What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo, cargo of a particular hazard, and designated dangerous cargo?
    Facility of a Particular Hazard
  81. What types of facilities need to have a COA for garbage?
    • Facilities that handle oceangoing vessels of 400 Gt. or more,
    • handle NLS,
    • commercial fishing facilities,
    • recreational boating facilities.
  82. Which types of facilities may be required to give the COTP advance notice of oil transfers?
    • Mobile,
    • remote local,
    • facilities with a history of spills, and
    • facilities that conduct infrequent transfers.
  83. Shipments of class A explosives in intermodal freight containers is permitted only by special approval of
    Commandant (G-NTH-1)
  84. On a facility which started operation after Nov.1 , 1980, the emergency shutdown system must stop the flow of oil in ___ seconds.
  85. What is the MINIMUM distance two cargoes must be separated when the term "Away From" is used?
    10 feet
  86. How many feet must a hazardous material be away from walls, or the edge of the pier?
    2 ft
  87. How many hours must a PIC have before they can be qualified?
    48 hours
  88. What are the basic requirements for a general permit?
    • Maintain the safety condition in 33 CFR 126.15,
    • notify COTP when handling specified amount of particular hazard class of cargo,
    • separate certain hazard classes stowed on the facility
  89. What is the regulation that covers warehouses on designated waterfront facilities?
    33 CFR 126
  90. At least ____ days before transferring LHG/LNG, the owner or operator of a new or an inactive existing facility shall submit 2 copies of the operations manual and thee emergency manual to the COTP?
  91. In a Designated Waterfront facility, you notice that a yard truck is parked blocking the main gate entrance. Is this a discrepancy?
  92. In a container freight station (CFS Warehouse) on a DWF, how far away from a fire alarm box should cargo be stowed?
    3 ft
  93. While conducting a spot check of a designated waterfront facility (DWF), you notice that the main gate is open, but there is no guard there, and are able to drive on not challenged, is there a problem and if there is, what is it?
    Yes, a guard is needed to prevent unlawful entry
  94. Flammable cargo can be stowed to a maximum of ____.
  95. The regulation covering facilities that handle oil, NLS, and garbage is
  96. Reception facilities must be able to receive NLS within ____ notice.
    24 hours
  97. If a designated waterfront facility released a harmful quantity of hazardous substance on the facility but not in the coastal zone, who would be required to notify the NRC?
    The person in charge of the facility
  98. Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ____ meters from the general public or railways.
  99. LNG/LPG storage tanks must have the minimum volume necessary for..
    • - surge protection,
    • - pump suction supply,
    • - other processing needs
  100. On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have at least two portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of ______.
  101. At a LNG waterfront facility, the electrical system must have ..
    • a power source and
    • a separate emergency power source
  102. On a LNG waterfront facility, each transfer emergency shut off system is activated automatically when the fixed sensors measure LNG concentrations exceeding ___ of the LEL.
  103. On warning signs at LNG/LHG waterfront facilities, how high must the letters be?
    3 inches high
  104. Each LNG loading flange must be located 300 meters from.
    • - each bridge crossing a navigable waterway,
    • - each entrance to any tunnel under a navigable waterway
  105. What records must the facility retain at the facility?
    • copy of letter of intent,
    • names of PIC's,
    • most recent hose test,
    • all exam's by COTP for 3 yrs,
    • DOI within the last 30 days, records of all repairs made to vapor recovery in the last 3 yrs plans,
    • calculations,
    • and specifications of FAC VRS.
  106. On a MOTF, what type of hose is exempted from the requirement to blank off the ends of hoses not hooked up to a manifold?
    new, unused hoses
  107. What regulations cover break-bulk hazardous materials?
    49 CFR 170-179
  108. What regulation addresses specific source waste?
    40 CFR 261.32
  109. 33 CFR 126 covers what?
    handling of class1 materials or other dangerous cargoes within or contiguous to waterfront facilities
  110. What does 33 CFR 127 cover?
    Waterfront facilities handling liquefied natural gas and liquefied hazardous gas
  111. Each operator of a passenger terminal subject to 33 CFR 129 shall submit 2 copies of _____ at least 60 days before transferring passengers to or from a vessel?
    Terminal Security Plan
  112. What does 33 CFR 158 cover?
    • Reception facilities for oil,
    • noxious liquid substances,
    • garbage
  113. What must the owner of a LHG/LNG facility provide to the COTP 30 days before transferring product?
    2 copies of the operations manual and 2 copies of the emergency manual
  114. What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo only?
    Designated Waterfront Facility
  115. When do permits for handling of designated dangerous cargo terminate?
    at the conclusion of the transaction for which the permit has been issued or whenever the COTP deems necessary
  116. Ammonia Nitrate (and the like) shall be separated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least _____ from organic materials or other flammable materials?
    30 feet
  117. How many days does an owner of a LNG/LHG facility have to send the COTP a letter of intent?
    60 days before transferring LHG/LNG
  118. In what regulation is the listing of LNG/LHG?
    33 CFR 127, Table 127.005
  119. What regulations cover all military explosives?
    46 CFR 146
  120. What does 33 CFR 154 cover?
    Facilities transferring oil or hazardous material in bulk
  121. Category D cargoes are the least toxic chemicals. The have no stripping requirements because they simply require a ___ dilution prior to discharge.
  122. For a COA for MARPOL V, a facility must be able to receive APHIS regulated garbage within ___ hours.
  123. The regulations that authorizes the Commandant to designate waterfront facilities for the handling, storage, and loading and discharging of explosives, flammable or combustible liquids in bulk is ____.
    33 CFR 6.12
  124. What can carry cargo of a particular hazard and designated dangerous cargo?
    Facility Of a Particular Hazard
  125. The most toxic chemical is Category ___ NLS.
  126. How often must a hold containing explosives be checked after being loaded?
    24 hours
  127. What are the regulations that apply to all onshore and offshore facilities engaged in transfer of oil in bulk?
    33 CFR 154
  128. What are the 3 common heights of containers?
    8, 8 1/2, 9
  129. What information is contained in an ideal witness statement?
    Name and address of witness
  130. Who has the authority to terminate cleanup operations?
  131. Documentation is needed for federal cleanups to _____.
    determine cost recovery from the polluter
  132. Performance of oil booms is greatly affected by _______.
    • current speed,
    • tides and
    • wave action
  133. Which response information system is run by the NRC?
  134. Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on hazards encountered in the marine safety field?
    Marine Safety Manual Vol. I
  135. Response phase II consists of preliminary assessment and initiation of action
    • Subchapter C of the NCP is
    • planning and preparedness
  136. Which Commandant Instruction contains guidance regarding CERCLA response authority and associated Coast Guard policies?
    COMDTINST M16465.29
  137. True or False: In the NOV program, a previous PPR violation is defined as one where a final assessment has been made by a Coast Guard hearing officer regardless if the NOV has been paid.
  138. What informs a suspected discharger of a potential violation of the FWPCA, as amended, as of his/her possible liability to a civil penalty?
    Notice of Federal Interest
  139. When issuing an NOV, if the RP has had 2 or more previous offenses within the past year, the penalty is multiplied by
  140. True or False: Once you enter a case as a Marine Violation, you are also able to issue a NOV.
  141. What is a written promise given by or on behalf of a RP to ensure that sufficient assets are available to meet the maximum fine which may be assessed for the violation charged?
    Letter of Undertaking
  142. Is a POLREP required on a federalized drum recovery case?
  143. A promissory note from a foreign flag ship saying that they will pay any penalties that might occur from a spill that they might have caused is called a?
    Letter of Undertaking
  144. When the RP is not taking correct action to clean up a spill, what can the CG issue to take over the clean up?
    Notice of Federal Assumption
  145. True or False: Partial payments are allowed under the NOV program.
  146. True or False: It is recommended that the unit or any Coast Guard Individual accept payment of a NOV.
  147. What pollution response law provided requirements for emergency planning and a "community right to know" as it relate to hazardous substances?
  148. Which type of chemical agent is prohibited for use?
    sinking agent/Dispersant
  149. What product sets are used for a no source pollution case?
  150. Which pollution response law included provisions authorizing the OSC to issue administrative orders?
  151. What is a 2-point metal fastener secured together b a pin, bolt or padlock?
  152. What are types of personnel access control?
    • military ID cards,
    • personal recognition,
    • pass and badge,
    • access list,
    • exchange pass,
    • escort
  153. What are the three categories of security force clothing?
    • uniforms,
    • auxiliary equipment,
    • foul weather gear
  154. What are the types of physical security contingency plans?
    • terrorism,
    • hostage threats,
    • bomb threats,
    • natural disasters,
    • nuclear incidents,
    • chemical incidents,
    • special security situations
  155. What is used by security force members to pass information
    communication system
  156. Advanced security force training includes&
    • locksmithing,
    • key control,
    • anti-terrorist response,
    • protective services
  157. What serves as a rapid means of identifying vehicles with the authority to operate and park on the facility?
    vehicle access control
  158. What is an unobstructed area that surrounds a facility or installation?
    clear zone
  159. What type of lock has the case containing the locking mechanism installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door?
  160. All components of the locking system revolve around the:
  161. Examples of low, medium, & and high security doors:
    • low-hollow core,
    • med-solid core and
    • high-steel
  162. Most common protective lighting system consists of a series of light fixtures:
    continuous lighting
  163. What includes the tasks and responsibilities of security personnel as well as those security measures that should be observed by all employees at all times?
    security education
  164. What basic knowledge is needed by Security force members?
    • use of fire fighting extinguishers,
    • CPR, and
    • basic first aid
  165. Vegetation in a clear zone will not exceed ____ inches in height
  166. What executive order mandates federal agencies establish programs to ensure physical security of facilities?
    EO 10421
  167. The first step in providing security to a facility, vessel, or structure is to ______.
    develop a comprehensive physical security program
  168. The standard fence fabric for chain linked fencing will be ____ gauge or heavier zinc or aluminum-coated steel wire.
  169. Basic security force training includes
    • basic law enforcement
    • physical security concepts such as authority and jurisdiction,
    • use of force,
    • arrest and search,
    • access control and
    • physical security hardware
  170. What kind of barrier is most commonly used and recommended for security purposes?chain-linked fencing
    • When used as a perimeter barrier, masonry walls must have a minimum height of ___ feet and must have a barbed wire top guard.
    • 7
  171. Angles light over areas so as not to interfere with adjacent operations is _____ lighting.
    glare protection
  172. What type of tide has only a single high and single low water that occur each tidal day?
  173. What is the term for the current where it is offshore, where the direction of flow is not restricted by any barriers and flows continuously with the direction changing through all points of the compass during the tidal period?
  174. What type of tides occur at the time of new and full moon?
    spring tides
  175. What is the term for the period at high or low water during which there is no sensible change of level?
  176. The difference in height between consecutive high and low waters is the _____.
  177. What type of tide has two high and two low waters each tidal day, with relatively small inequality in the high and low water heights?
  178. Horizontal movement of the water is called?
  179. What type of current is generated by largely by the continuously changing difference in height of water at two ends?
    hydraulic current
  180. What is the term for the direction toward which the current flows?
  181. What is the term for the speed or velocity of the current?
  182. What is the term for the movement toward shore or upstream of a current?
  183. What is the term for the movement away from shore or downstream of a current?
  184. What is the term for the type of tides that occur when the moon and sun oppose each other, as the quadratures?
    neap tides
  185. What is the term for when the current at a period of little or no current?
    slack water
  186. What type of tide has both diurnal and semidiurnal oscillations and is characterized by a large inequality in the high water heights, low water heights, or in both?
  187. What is the term for when a strong currant sets over an irregular bottom, or meets an opposing current?
    tide rip
  188. What is the term for the type of tides that occur when the moon and sun are in line and pulling together, as at the new and full moon?
    spring tides
  189. What is the term for the type of tide that occurs when the moon is farthest from the earth?
    apogee tides
  190. What is the term for the tide that occurs when the moon is at the point in its orbit nearest the earth and the lunar semidiurnal range is increased?
    perigee tides
  191. What is the term for the advance of the low water trough is so much retarded that the crest of the rising tide overtakes the low, and advances upstream as a churning, foaming wall of water?
  192. What type of tide is the natural period of oscillation of a body of water that may accentuate either the solar or the lunar tidal oscillations?
    Solar tide
  193. What is the term for the condition that occurs at high water and low water the depth of water is momentarily constant?
Card Set:
USCG MST2 EPME Questions
2011-11-01 03:29:33

EPME Study Questions: MST2
Show Answers: