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State the three objectives of first aid.
- Save life, prevent further injury, and prevent
State the methods of controlling bleeding.
- pressure, elevation, pressure points, and as a last resort, tourniquet.
Identify an example of a pressure point.
- Bleeding can
- often be temporarily controlled by applying hand pressure to the appropriate
- pressure point. A pressure point is a place where a main artery to the injured
- part lies near the skin surface and over a bone. Apply pressure to this point
- with the fingers or with the heel of the hand.
- There are 11
- principal points on each side of the body.
- Superficial temporal
- artery.....collar bone
- Common carotid
- artery......inner upper arm
- artery......inner elbow
- Radial/Ulnar artery.....wrist
- artery.....upper thigh
- Anterior/posterior tibial artery.....ankle
Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock.
- Shock is a
- disruption of the circulatory system. Symptoms include vacant or lackluster
- eyes, shallow or irregular breathing, cold, pale skin, nausea, and weak or
- absent pulse. Individuals usually faint do to the poor supply of oxygen to the
- brain. Treatment is to lay the victim down with the feet elevated 6-12 inches.
- Cover them to maintain body heat. Reassure and calm the victim, if conscious.
Describe the three classifications of burns.
- First degree
- - mildest, producing redness, increased warmth, tenderness and mild pain. Second
- degree - red and blistered skin; severe pain. Third degree - destroyed tissue,
- skin and bone in severe cases. Severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings
- being destroyed.
State the symptoms and treatment for
the following heat related injuries:
a. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat stroke
- a. Heat exhaustion
- In heat
- exhaustion there is a serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and
- lungs. The skin is cool, moist, and clammy, the pupils dilated and normal or
- subnormal body temperature. Usually the victim is sweating profusely.
- Treatment: Move the victim to a cool or air conditioned area; loosen clothing;
- apply cool wet cloths to the head, groin, and ankles; fan the victim; do not
- allow the victim to become chilled; if the victim is conscious, give a solution
- of one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water and transport to a
- medical facility.
- b. Heat stroke
- A very
- serious condition caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body.
- The victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat build up. Treatment: Reduce
- the heat immediately by dousing the body with cold water. Apply wet, cold
- towels to the body and move the victim to the coolest possible place. Maintain
- an open airway. Place the victim on his/her back with shoulders raised
- slightly. Place cold packs or towels around the victim's shoulders and neck.
- Place additional cold packs on the ankles and groin area. Use a fan if
- available. A cold water bath is very helpful.
State the difference between an
"open" and "closed" fracture.
- "closed" or "simple" fracture is one which is entirely
- internal, that is, the bone is broken, but there is no break in the skin. An
- "open" or "compound" fracture is one in which there is an
- open wound in the tissue or skin. The bone may be protruding thru the skin.
State the following as applied to electric shock:
a. Personnel rescue
- a. Personnel rescue
- The rescue of
- a person who has received an electric shock is likely to be difficult and
- dangerous. Extreme caution must be used, or the rescuer may also be
- electrocuted. YOU MUST NOT TOUCH THE VICTIM'S BODY, WIRE, OR ANY OTHER OBJECT
- THAT MAY BE CONDUCTING ELECTRICITY. Look for the switch, first, and turn off
- the current immediately. If you cannot find the switch, try to remove the wire
- from the victim with a dry broom, handle, branch, pole, oar, board or other
- non-conducting object. It may be possible to use a dry rope or dry clothing to
- pull the wire away from the victim.
- b. Treatment
- artificial ventilation immediately after freeing the person from the wire if
- the electric shock caused breathing to stop. Check the pulse since electric
- shock may cause the heart to stop. If you feel no pulse start CPR immediately.
- Get the victim to a medical facility immediately.
Describe the methods for clearing an
- in the upper airway or throat is often caused by attempting to chew food and
- talk at the same time. One of the most reliable indications of an airway
- obstruction is the victim's inability to talk. Other indicators include
- grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the
- skin turning a bluish color. Your first action upon encountering a victim with
- this problem is to clear the mouth of any food particles, foreign objects, or
- loose dentures. If not effective use one of the following methods:
- Stand behind
- the victim and wrap your arms around the victim's waist. Grasp your wrist and
- place the thumb side of your fist against the victim's abdomen, above the navel
- and just below the rib cage. Give 4 quick upward thrusts to the victim. (It is
- recommended 4 thrusts by the American Heart Association and 5 recommended by
- the American Red Cross). The obstruction should pop out like a cork. If
- unsuccessful, repeat until the obstruction is dislodged.
- Abdominal thrusts are used if the victim is lying down. Position yourself for
- the thrust by either straddling the victim at the hips, straddling one leg, or
- kneeling at the hips. Place your hands one on top of the other in the area
- between the lower end of the sternum (breast bone) and the navel, and give 4
- quick upward thrusts into the abdomen. (5 thrusts recommended by American Red Cross
- and 4 thrusts recommended by American Heart Assoc.)
Describe the effects of the following
cold weather injuries:
b. Superficial frostbite
c. Deep frostbite
- a. Hypothermia
- A general
- cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling
- temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. The victim may appear pale and
- unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow,
- pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the
- arms and legs may feel stiff. First aid consists of bringing the body
- temperature to normal. The patient should be wrapped in warm blankets in a warm
- room. Do not give him hot drinks or other stimulants until he has regained
- consciousness. Get medical attention immediately.
- b. Superficial frostbite
- Ice crystals
- forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees
- or lower.
- c. Deep frostbite
- Ice crystals
- forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or
- lower. Treatment is to get the victim indoors, warm the area by placing them in
- warm water or with hot water bottles. Other methods include placing them under
- the armpits, against the abdomen, or between the legs of a buddy. Never rub the
- frostbite area. Seek medical attention immediately.
Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety
- Their primary
- objective is to preserve human and material resources. The program enhances
- operational readiness by preserving the resources used in accomplishing the
- naval aviation mission. The human resources include professional pride, high
- morale, physical well being, and life itself, all of which are susceptible to
- damage and destruction caused by mishaps. Material resources include property
- which may be damaged by an aircraft mishap including naval aircraft, ships,
- facilities, and weapons.
Explain the safety responsibilities of
the following personnel:
a. Commanding Officer
b. Aviation Safety Officer
c. Ground Safety Officer
d. Department Head
e. Division Officer
f. Safety Petty Officer
g. All hands
- a. Commanding Officer
- that persons
- are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they
- are complied with, and that applicable safety precautions are posted. In
- instances where safety precautions have not been issued, the CO will issue or
- augment such safety precautions as deemed necessary.
- b. Aviation Safety Officer
- The Aviation
- Safety Officer is the principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety
- matters. He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and
- management of a Command Aviation Safety Program, maintain appropriate aviation
- safety records and mishap statistics. He/she will coordinate safety matters
- among the organization staff.
- c. Ground Safety Officer
- The Ground
- Safety Officer is the principle advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters.
- He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and management of a
- Command Ground Safety Program, maintain appropriate ground safety records and
- mishap statistics. Additionally, he/she will coordinate safety matters among
- the organization staff.
- d. Department Head
- Department Head coordinates the department's safety program with the unit's
- Safety Officer and supervise the Department's Division Safety Officer. They
- ensure that all safety precautions are strictly observed by all persons within
- the department and all others concerned. He/she will ensure that safety
- precautions are kept posted and personnel are frequently and thoroughly
- instructed and drilled.
- e. Division Officer
- The Division
- Officer will ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions. He/she
- will prepare and submit for publication additional safety instructions deemed
- necessary for Command safety.
- f. Safety Petty Officer
- The Safety PO
- will ensure that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are
- familiar in safety instructions. He/she will be a central point for all safety
- related matters or concerns within a work center.
- g. All hands
- All personnel
- will familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable
- to themselves and their assigned duties. They will comply with established
- safety standards, and report hazards and mishaps in accordance with their
- Command Safety Program and OPNAVINST 3750.6.
Explain the functions of the Safety Council/Enlisted
- A Safety Council is formed to set goals, manage
- assets, and review safety related recommendations. These Councils are formed in
- activities that are large in number such as an aircraft squadron or air station
- or larger. A record of meetings is kept. The council will review command plans,
- policies, procedures, conditions, and instructions for accuracy, content,
- currency, and responsiveness to corrective recommendations. The ground,
- aviation, and aeromedical (flight surgeon) safety officers must be standing members
- of the council. The Enlisted Safety Committee is formed of representatives from
- each work center and other activities, such as AIMD, Medical, etc. They will
- meet once a month and discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for
- improved safety procedures.
Discuss how the following contribute
to aviation mishaps:
a. Human error
b. Maintenance and support factors
c. Administrative and supervisory
d. Material failures or malfunctions
e. Environmental factors
- a. Human error
- Human error
- causes an alarmingly high number of mishaps. Human error is part of nearly
- every mishap. It includes those personnel who may have maintained or repaired
- equipment or even the worker at the factory where a part was manufactured.
- Human error involves both physical and mental factors including ergonomics
- (design of the workplace), physical strength of the individual, physical
- stress, and mental factors including the person's attitude, behavioral factors,
- b. Maintenance and support factors
- and support factors include improper maintenance, improper priority assignments
- on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance. Mishaps may occur from
- the way the manufacturer made, assembled, or installed the equipment. Material
- damage and personnel injury mishaps can result from improperly maintained
- c. Administrative and supervisory
- whether regulations and their enforcement by all levels in the chain of command
- could have contributed to the mishap is essential during a mishap
- investigation. Mishaps can result from an improper level of supervision or a
- failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards. They
- can result from a lack of formal and informal training.
- d. Material failures or malfunctions
- Consider all
- material failures and malfunctions thoroughly, whether the failures or
- malfunctions occurred because of faulty design, defective manufacture, or
- repair. Most mishaps blamed on material failure may really involve maintenance
- factors or human error.
- e. Environmental factors
- Very few
- mishaps are caused by "acts of God." The cause of a mishap may be
- excessive speed for existing sea conditions or failure to secure for sea. Being
- struck by lightning may be an act of God, but being outside during a
- thunderstorm was a contributing cause, therefore, the mishap was probably
- preventable. Environmental factors include extreme exposure to heat, cold, vibration,
- noise, illumination, radiation, or atmospheric contaminants.
Define the following mishap classes:
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
- a. Class A
- The resulting
- total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an
- injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total
- b. Class B
- The resulting
- total cost of reportable material or property damage is $200,000 or more, but
- less than $1,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent
- partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
- c. Class C
- The resulting
- total cost of reportable material or property damage is $10,000 or more, but
- less than $200,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the
- day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that
- causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case). For
- reporting purposes, reportable lost workday Class C mishaps are those which
- result in 5 or more lost workdays beyond the date of injury or onset of illness
- (exceptions apply).
- d. Class D
- The resulting
- total cost of reportable material or property damage is less than $10,000 or a
- non-fatal injury (no lost time or first aid case) that does not meet the
- criteria of a Class C mishap.
State the objective of the Aviation Gas-Free
- The objective of the AVGFE Program is to ensure
- a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel
- systems. AVGFE requirements are outlined in NA 01-1A-35. An AVGFE technician
- shall be a QAR or CDQAR and must be a graduate of an AVGFE course. Gas free
- engineering technical guidance will be provided by the supporting ship, MALS,
- or station. OMAs not having a sufficient demand for AVFGE and feel an organic
- technician is impractical, may use the services of the supporting command. IMA
- AVGFE technicians shall provide support to tenant squadrons not having
- sufficient demand to maintain their own technician. Insufficient demand is
- defined as less than 3 GFE requirements in 6 months.
Explain the hazards associated with Radio Frequency
- Radio frequency energy can generate electrical
- currents and/or voltage large enough to cause life-threatening electric shock,
- burns, biological changes, and cataracts. Premature or unwanted activation of
- electro-explosive devices (EED) in ordnance can cause sparks and arcs which may
- ignite flammable materials.
State the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control
- The program
- is to design a series of safety factors established when using lasers. These
- include appointing a Laser System Safety Officer, establishing safety
- regulations and standard operating procedures, eyewear, posting warning signs,
- training, safety surveys, medical surveillance, etc.
State the purpose of a safety stand down.
- Safety stand downs are used to devote time to
- safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate.
Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management
- Operational Risk Management is a systematic,
- decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval
- resources. ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best
- baseline of knowledge and experience available. Its purpose is to increase
- operational readiness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for
- success to gain the competitive advantage in combat. ORM is not just related to
- naval aviation; it applies across the warfighting spectrum.
Explain the following terms as they
apply to ORM:
a. Identify hazards
b. Assess hazards
c. Make risk decisions
d. Implement controls
- a. Identify hazards
- Begin with an
- outline or chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis.
- Next, conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards
- associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible
- causes for those hazards.
- b. Assess hazards
- For each
- hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of
- probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be
- helpful in assessing hazards.
- c. Make risk decisions
- Develop risk
- control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls
- that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment.
- With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation
- outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to
- implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain of command.
- d. Implement controls
- The following
- measures can be used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk. These
- include: Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel
- protective equipment.
- e. Supervise
- Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to
- ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes
- which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.
Discuss the dual chain of command for operating
- There is a
- dual chain of command to the operating forces:
- An operational chain from the President,
- through the Secretary of Defense to a commander of a unified or specified
- command to the assigned operational forces.
- An administrative chain through the
- Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces.
- In some
- cases, as with the Military Sealift Command, a portion of the operating forces
- may operate or be temporarily assigned directly under the CNO and outside the
- chain of command of the unified command structure.
- Operating forces are organized in a permanent fashion
- in the administrative chain of command. The operational chain of command is
- task-oriented and can be structured as necessary to meet operational
Discuss the following as they apply to
the operational chain of command:
b. Fleet Commanders
c. Task Force Commander
d. Task Unit Commander
- a. Unified/specified
- Unified and
- specified commanders operate under the control and direction of the Joint
- Chiefs of Staff.
- A unified command is composed of
- elements of two or more services. It has a broad continuing mission, and has a
- single commander. The unified commands are:
- Command Pacific Command European Command Southern Command Central Command
- Readiness Command
- A specified command has a broad
- continuing mission, but it is composed of forces from one service. There are
- three specified commands:
- Strategic Air
- Command (SAC) Aerospace Defense Command (ADCOM) Military Airlift Command (MAC)
- b. Fleet Commanders
- Pacific and
- Atlantic Fleets include ships and craft classified and organized into commands
- by types, the titles of which are: training commands, surface forces, fleet
- marine forces, naval air forces, and submarine forces. Below are a list of
- Fleet Commanders:
- U.S. Pacific Fleet; commands the Third and Seventh Fleets
- U.S. Atlantic Fleet; commands the Second Fleet
- U.S. Naval Forces Europe commands the Sixth Fleet
- c. Task Force Commander
- This system,
- developed during World War II, further divides fleets into forces, groups,
- units, and elements. Each subdivision has a numbered designation and an
- appropriate communication call sign. A fleet numbering system is used. The
- Commander Sixth Fleet, would assign certain numbered task forces. This may
- include: A striking force, TF 60; an amphibious force, TF 61; a service force,
- TF 62, etc. Within each task force there may be further subdivisions, called
- task groups (TG). With this system, the task commander has a task force that is
- adaptable to any change in size.
- d. Task Unit Commander
- Task groups
- may be further subdivided into task units (TU). For example, TG 60.1 (the
- carrier group), may have a carrier unit designated TU 60.1.1.
Discuss the following as they apply to
the administrative chain of command:
a. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
Currently: Ray Mabus
b. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
Currently: Adm. Gary Roughead
c. Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC)
d. Naval Air Force Commander (Type
Commander/Aircraft Controlling Custodian)
e. Functional Wing Commander
f. Type Squadron Commander
- a. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
- Currently: Ray Mabus
- A civilian in
- charge of the Department of the Navy. SECNAV is responsible for the policies and
- control of the Department of the Navy, including its organization,
- administration, operation, and efficiency.
- b. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
- Currently: Adm. Gary Roughead
- The CNO is
- the senior military officer of the Department of the Navy and outranks all
- other naval officers (unless a naval officer is serving as chairman of the
- Joint Chiefs of Staff). The CNO is the principal advisor to the President and
- SECNAV on the conduct of war, and he/she is the principal naval advisor and
- executive of the Secretary of the Navy on conduct of Department of the Navy
- activities. As the Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the CNO
- keeps the SECNAV informed on the Joint Chiefs of Staff activities and is
- responsible to the President and the Secretary of Defense for duties external
- to the Department of the Navy as prescribed by law. The CNO commands the Chiefs
- of the Naval Material Command and Bureaus, the operating forces of the Navy,
- and shore activities as assigned by the SECNAV.
- c. Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC)
- Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CINCPACFLT), commands the Third and
- Seventh Fleets.
- Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CINCLANTFLT), commands the Second
- Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces, Europe (CINCUSNAVEUR), commands the
- Sixth Fleet.
- Pacific and
- Atlantic Fleets include ships and craft classified and organized into commands
- by types, the titles of which are: training commands, surface forces, fleet
- marine forces, naval air forces, and submarine forces.
- d. Naval Air Force Commander (Type
- Commander/Aircraft Controlling Custodian)
- The Naval Air
- Force Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CDRAIRPAC) and Naval Air Force Commander
- U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CDRSIRLANT), are directly below Commander-in-Chief,
- Pacific or Atlantic Fleet, in the organizational chain of command. The
- Commander is usually a Vice Admiral in rank.
- Commanders are in command of a certain type of squadron. They may be in command
- of VA, VAW, VS, VR, HS, HC, VX, etc. type commands.
- Controlling Custodians are the individual command or squadron Commander. Such
- as the Commanding Officer of VR-60, or the Commanding Officer of HCS-4.
- e. Functional Wing Commander
- Commanders are responsible for the aircraft material readiness, administration,
- training, and inspection of squadrons under their command.
- f. Type Squadron Commander
- Type Squadron
- Commanders are responsible for the maintenance and material condition of
- aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and
- support of the naval aviation mission. Additionally, they coordinate the Naval
- Aviation Maintenance Plan (NAMP) in the operating and training forces.
Discuss the role of the following:
a. Master Chief Petty Officer of the
Currently: Rick West
b. Fleet Master Chief
c. Force Master Chief
d. Command Master Chief (CMC)
- a. Master Chief Petty Officer of the
- Navy (MCPON)
- Currently: Rick West
- The MCPON is
- the Navy's senior enlisted member. Assigned to the office of the CNO for a
- three-year duty, he or she serves as senior enlisted representative of the Navy
- and acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO and the Chief of Naval
- Personnel in all matters pertaining to enlisted personnel.
- b. Fleet Master Chief
- The Fleet
- Master Chief serves as the principle enlisted advisor to the Fleet Commander in
- Chief. He or she keeps the Fleet Commander up-to-date on situations,
- procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of
- the enlisted crew. Presently there are 6 Fleet Master Chiefs. These are: Fleet
- M/C Pacific Fleet, Atlantic Fleet, Naval Forces Europe, Material Command, Shore
- Activities, and Naval Education and Training.
- c. Force Master Chief
- The Force
- Master Chief serve as principle enlisted advisors to various Force Group
- Commanders. They keep the Force Group Commanders up-to-date on situations,
- procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of
- the enlisted crew. Presently there are 22 Force Master Chiefs. These include
- Force Master Chief of:
- Security Group Command ,Military Sealift Command, Naval Air Systems Command,
- Naval Medical Command, Fleet Air Mediterranean, Naval Supply Systems Command,
- Naval Logistics Command, Pacific Fleet Chief of Naval Reserves, Naval Air
- Training, Submarine Force, Pacific Fleet, Naval Facilities Engineering Command,
- Naval Air Force, Pacific Fleet Naval Surface Force, Atlantic Fleet, Naval Sea
- Systems Command, Training Command, Atlantic Fleet Naval Technical Training,
- Naval Telecommunications Command, Naval Surface Force, Pacific Naval Recruiting
- Command, Mine Warfare Command, Naval Air Force, Atlantic Fleet Submarine Force
- d. Command Master Chief (CMC)
- The criterion
- for a command to have a CMC is based on the number of personnel assigned to
- that command. Navy commands with 250 or more personnel assigned are eligible to
- have a CMC billet. Commands that do not meet these criteria may designate a
- Master CPO from within the command to serve as a collateral duty CMC. The CMC
- is the principle advisor on enlisted matters to the Commanding Officer. He or
- she keeps the CO advised on situations, procedures, and practices that affect
- the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enlisted crew.
State the six areas of naval doctrine.
- 1. Naval
- Warfare, describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces.
- 2. Naval
- Intelligence, points the way for intelligence support in meeting the
- requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
- 3. Naval
- Operations, develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and
- Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions.
- 4. Naval
- Logistics, addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are
- essential in the support of naval forces.
- 5. Naval
- Planning, examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities
- and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
- 6. Naval
- Command and Control, provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information
- needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
Discuss how naval aviation supports
the following warfare areas:
c. Amphibious Assault
d. Logistics Support
e. Search and Rescue
f. Mine warfare
- a. Reconnaissance/surveillance
- and surveillance includes the search for and interception, recording, and
- analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, used in support of military
- operations and tasks. Certain select commands serve as elements of the
- Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide relay services.
- b. Antisubmarine
- Used to
- locate and destroy submarines.
- c. Amphibious Assault
- An amphibious
- assault involves the taking of an area of land where the land and sea meet.
- This may include the landing of troops and equipment. Aircraft provide
- bombardment by missiles, bombs, and other ordnance. Helicopters may be employed
- to transport troops and their equipment to be moved from the ship to the shore.
- d. Logistics Support
- Involves the
- transport of troops, personnel, and cargo or equipment where needed by the
- e. Search and Rescue
- aircraft and helicopters may be assigned to search and rescue of downed,
- stranded, or disabled military personnel either by land or sea. They provide
- search data and surveillance of an area where the rescue is to take place.
- Helicopters or aircraft may provide the actual rescue actions required once the
- member in need is identified. These may include rescue by a rescue swimmer,
- litter rescue, helicopter hoist, etc.
- f. Mine warfare
- The use of
- ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines.
Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of
the U.S. Navy.
- THE NAVY BIRTHDAY IS 13 OCT 1775
- The areas of
- our country that became the 13 original states were colonies of England in the
- mid-1700's. The king of England allowed the colonies to trade only with
- England. Problems arose between the colonists and England as the years passed.
- English Parliament passed several tax laws that affected the colonists in a
- problem known as "taxation without representation". The colonists
- formed Committees of Correspondence to communicate the problems to England.
- They convened a Continental Congress to discuss these problems. This first
- congress met in 5 September 1774.
- At the
- meeting, the Congress produced a statement of rights it believed England should
- grant to the colonists. Then in October of 1774 the statement of rights was
- presented to the king. A second Continental Congress convened on 10 May 1775.
- The colonists appointed George Washington as Commander in Chief of the
- Continental American army on 15 June 1775. The Continental Congress felt forced
- to act as the provisional government for the colonies. They issued money,
- established a postal service, and created a Continental navy. The U.S. Navy has
- its birth on 13 October 1775. On this date the Second Continental Congress authorized
- the purchase of two vessels. The first commander in chief was Esek Hopkins, who
- put the first squadron of the Continental Navy to sea in February 1776.
State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine
Corps team as instruments to support national policies.
- Naval forces
- have been organized for fighting at sea - or from the sea - for more than two
- thousand years. The qualities that characterize most modern naval forces as
- political instruments in support of national policies are the same as those
- that define the essence of our naval Services today. These qualities are readiness, flexibility,
- self-sustainability, and mobility. They permit naval forces to be
- expeditionary - that is, being able to establish and maintain a forward-based,
- stabilizing presence around the world. Naval expeditionary operations are
- offensive in nature, mounted by highly trained and well-equipped integrated
- task forces of the Navy and Marine Corps, organized to accomplish specific
- objectives. Naval expeditionary forces draw upon their readiness, flexibility,
- self-sustainability, and mobility to provide the National Command Authorities
- the tools they need to safeguard such vital national interests as the continued
- availability of oil from world producers and maintenance of political and
- economic stability around the globe. Through these qualities, naval forces
- reassure allies and friends, deter aggressors, and influence uncommitted and
- unstable regimes.
State the three levels of war.
- The concept
- of "levels of war" can help us visualize the relative contribution of
- military objectives toward achieving overall national goals and offer us a way
- to place in perspective the causes and effects of our specific objectives,
- planning, and actions. There are three levels: tactical, operational, and strategic - each increasingly broader
- in scope. Although the levels do not have precise boundaries, in general we can
- say that the tactical level involves the details of individual engagements; the
- operational level concerns forces collectively in a theater; and the strategic
- level focuses on supporting national goals. World War II, for example, a
- strategic-level and global war, included operational-level combat in the
- Pacific theater consisting primarily of U.S. led maritime, air, and supporting
- allied land campaigns. Within each specific campaign were a series of important
- and often decisive battles. At the tactical level, each contributed to the
- achievement of that campaign's objectives. The culmination of these campaign
- objectives resulted in overall victory in the Pacific theater.
Explain how Naval Intelligence Operations, more than
any other service, support peace time operational decision making.
- is central to the decision-making process. Proliferation of technology
- increases the complexity of joint battlespace information management, and
- compresses the time cycle for decision-making. Space systems rapidly collect
- and distribute large volumes of information. They also provide services that
- link widely separated forces and provide an important advantage to naval forces
- in all areas of the world. Intelligence estimates, disseminated in a timely
- fashion, center on the focus of effort, identify critical vulnerabilities, and
- enhance combat effectiveness.
State the mission of Naval Logistics.
- Sustained naval and joint operations are made
- possible by a logistic support system that has two major components:
- fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic sustainment assets. Fleet-based
- sustainment assets include replenishment ships of the combat logistics force
- providing direct fleet support, combat service support units, mobile repair
- facilities, and advanced logistic support hubs. Strategic sustainment is
- provided by air and sea assets that are shared by all Services. Successful
- global response to contingencies depends upon our ability to project and
- sustain U.S. forces in all theaters of operations. Integrated support resources
- in the form of fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic assets provide
- naval expeditionary forces and joint and multinational forces the ability to
- operate in peacetime and in war wherever and whenever our national interests
- demand. Our ability to move and sustain forces at great distances from our
- shores is critical to the forward presence component of our military strategy.
State the importance of planning to Naval Operations.
- When military action is one of the potential
- responses to a situation threatening U.S. interests, a plan is prepared using
- either the joint deliberate-planning process or crisis-action procedures.
- Although military flexibility demands a capability to conduct short-notice
- crisis planning when necessary, U.S. military strength is best enhanced by
- deliberate peacetime analysis, planning, and exercises. An operation plan is a
- commander's complete description of a concept of operation. It is based on the
- commander's preparation of the battlespace, a formal evaluation, supported by
- intelligence that integrates enemy doctrine with such factors as physical and environmental
- conditions. From this evaluation, the commander identifies the forces and
- support needed to execute the plan within a theater of operations. Naval forces
- operation plans are integrated into the complete inventory available to the
- Joint Force Commander. For execution, plans become operation orders. Operation
- plans include: the theater strategy or general concept and the organizational
- relationships; the logistics plan shows ways the force will be supported; and
- the deployment plan sequences the movement of the force and its logistical
- support into the theater. Elements of planning that produce a concept of
- operations include the commander's estimate, deciding possible courses of
- action, preparation of the mission statement and its execution strategy,
- situation analysis, and formulation of the commander's intent. These elements
- are applicable up, down, and across chains of command.
Discuss the importance of the
following conflicts as they relate to naval aviation:
a. Coral Sea
- a. Coral Sea
- 7-8 May 1942:
- Thanks to the breaking of the Japanese Navy code, the U.S. was alerted to a
- large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the
- southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned
- invasion of Australia. The Japanese operation centered around three aircraft
- carriers and dozens of troop transports, but the Americans met them with two
- carriers of their own. On May 7, the Japanese planes sank two minor ships,
- while U.S. planes sank an isolated enemy carrier. The next day, both sides
- launched all their planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other
- unseen in the clouds, in the world's first carrier verses carrier battle. One
- Japanese carrier was damaged. The U.S. carrier Lexington was sunk, and the
- carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew. Although
- a tactical victory, Coral Sea was a strategic set-back for the Japanese who
- never again threatened Australia.
- b. Midway
- 3-5 June
- 1942: Midway was the turning point of the Pacific war. The U.S. breaking of the
- Japanese naval code was again the key element as it had been at Coral Sea a
- month earlier. A huge Japanese armada of 160 warships was involved, but
- commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force, sending some ships north
- to the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack. The Japanese retained
- superior numbers approaching Midway which included 4 aircraft carriers and 11
- battleships. At Midway the U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships. The
- Americans knew what was coming because of the broken codes, and Admiral Nimitz
- positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown, out of
- Japanese reconnaissance range. As the Japanese carriers launched their planes
- to assault the Midway defenses, the U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers.
- It took attack after attack, but finally the U.S. crews got through and sank 3
- Japanese carriers. The next day the fourth carrier was sunk. Japanese planes
- sank the Yorktown. In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
- c. Guadalcanal
- 13-15 November 1942: After three days of bitter
- fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and U.S. Marines were able to
- secure the island of Guadalcanal. The Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6
- destroyers. The U.S.S. Juneau was involved in the battle. Navy policy was to
- place members of the same family on different ships, but the five Sullivan brothers,
- from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together. An exception was made and
- they all became crewmen onboard the Juneau. The Juneau was damaged during the
- battle in a close-range night encounter. As it limped off for repairs, it was
- torpedoed. The Sullivans along with 700 others were lost. Because of this
- tragedy, Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated. A ship was later named
- in their honor. With the fall of the island, the southern Solomons came under
- Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.
Discuss the significance of 8 May 1911, as it applies
to naval aviation.
- Captain W. I. Chambers prepared requisitions for
- two Glenn Curtiss biplanes.
- One, the Triad, was to be equipped for arising from or alighting on land or
- water; with a metal tipped propeller designed for a speed of at least 45 miles
- per hour; with provisions for carrying a passenger alongside the pilot; and
- with controls that could be operated by either the pilot or the passenger. The
- machine thus described, later became the Navy's first airplane, the A-1.
- Although these requisitions lacked the signature of the Chief of the Bureau of
- Navigation, necessary to direct the General Storekeeper to enter into a
- contract with the Curtiss Company, they did indicate Captain Chambers' decision
- as to which airplanes the Navy should purchase. The planes were purchased for
- $5,500 each. From this, May 8 has come to be considered the date upon which the
- Navy ordered its first airplane and has been officially proclaimed to be the
- birthday of naval aviation.
State the name of the first aircraft carrier.
- 20 March
- 1922: U.S.S. Langley.
- The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was
- recommissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the Langley
What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
- 10 March
- 1948, FJ-1 Fury
- The Navy jet made its first carrier landing on the USS
- Boxer (CV 21).
Who was the first naval aviator in space?
- 5 May 1961: Alan Shepard
- Flew a 15-minute suborbital flight onboard the Mercury
- capsule, Freedom 7
Identify and explain the purpose of the following
AB, AC, AD, AE, AG, AK, AM, AO, AS, AT, AW, AZ, PR, PH
- A. AB : Aviation Boatswain Mate
- B. AC : Air Traffic Controller
- C. AD : Aviation Machinist's Mate
- D. AE : Aviation Electrician's Mate
- E. AG : Aerographer's Mate
- F. AK: Aviation Storekeeper
- G. AM : Aviation Structural Mechanic
- H. AO : Aviation Ordnanceman
- I. AS : Aviation Support Equipment Technician
- J. AT : Aviation Electronics Technician
- K. AW : Aviation Anti-Submarine Warfare Operator
- L. AZ : Aviation Maintenance Administrationman
- M. PR : Aircrew Survival Equipmentman
- N. PH : Photographer's Mate
LAWS OF MOTION
- Everything around us is in motion.
- Even a body supposedly at rest on the surface of Earth is in motion because the
- body is actually moving with the rotation of
- Earth. Earth, in turn, is turning in
- its orbit around the Sun. Therefore, the terms rest and motion are
- relative terms. The change in position of any portion of matter is motion.
Newton’s First Law
- Sir Isaac Newton, a foremost English
- physicist, formulated three important laws relative to motion. His first law,
- the law of inertia, states, “every body continues in its state of rest or
- uniform motion in a straight line unless it is compelled to change by applied
Newton’s Second Law
- Newton’s second law of motion, force,
- and acceleration states, “the change of motion of a body is proportional to
- the applied force and takes place in the direction of the straight line in
- which that force is applied.”
- From Newton’s second law of motion the
- following conclusions can be determined:
- 1. If different forces are acting upon
- the same mass, different accelerations are produced that are
- proportional to the forces.
- 2. For different masses to acquire
- equal acceleration by different forces, the forces must be proportional
- to the masses.
- 3. Equal forces acting upon different
- masses produce different accelerations that are proportional to the
Newton’s Third Law
- Newton’s third law of motion states, “to
- every action there is always opposed an equal reaction; or, the mutual actions
- of two bodies upon each other are always equal, and directed to contrary parts.”
Define Bernoulli's principle.
- The principle
- states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or
- narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction
- is increased and its pressure decreased. The general lift of an airfoil is
- dependent upon the airfoil's being able to create circulation in the airstream
- and develop the lifting pressure over the airfoil surface. As the relative wind
- strikes the leading edge of the airfoil, the flow of air is split. Part is
- deflected upward and aft, and the rest is deflected down and aft. Since the
- upper surface of the wing has camber or a curve on it, the flow over its surface
- is disrupted, and this causes a wavelike effect to the wing. The lower surface
- is relatively flat. Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow
- across the airfoil.
Discuss the following weather warnings
and their effect on naval aviation:
1. Small craft
b. Tropical cyclone warnings
1. Tropical depression
2. Tropical storm
c. Thunderstorm/tornado warnings
1. Thunderstorm warning
2. Severe thunderstorm warning
3. Tornado warning
- a. Wind warning
- Please note:
- one knot equals approximately 1.1 mile-per-hour. Destructive weather poses a
- significant threat to personnel, aircraft, ships, installations, and other
- resources. Adequate and timely weather warnings, coupled with prompt and
- effective action by commanders concerned, will minimize loss and damage from
- destructive weather.
- 1. Small craft
- Harbor and
- inland waters warning for winds, 33 knots or less, of concern to small craft.
- The lower threshold for issuing such warnings is set by local authority.
- 2. Gale
- Warning for
- harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 47 knots.
- 3. Storm
- Warning for
- harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 48 knots or greater.
- b. Tropical cyclone warnings
- Tropical cyclones
- are systems of cylonically rotating winds characterized by a rapid decrease in
- pressure and increase in winds toward the center of the storm. Their size may
- vary from 60 nautical miles to over 1000 nautical miles. Three stages of
- intensity are associated with tropical cyclones:
- 1. Tropical depression
- Warning for
- land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 33 knots or less.
- 2. Tropical storm
- Warning for
- land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 63 knots.
- 3. Hurricane/typhoon
- Warning for
- land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 64 knots or greater.
- c. Thunderstorm/tornado warnings
- are small scale storms, invariably produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and always accompanied by lightening and thunder.
- A tornado is a violently rotating column of air, usually in the form of a funnel,
- extending from a thunderstorm cloud to the ground. A tornado is one of the most
- violent and destructive storms known. Its winds can reach from 100 to 250
- knots, although their winds have never been measured directly.
- 1. Thunderstorm warning
- are within 3 miles of the airfield, or in the immediate area.
- 2. Severe thunderstorm warning
- with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and/or hail of 3/4 inch in diameter or
- greater is forecast to impact the warning area.
- 3. Tornado warning
- Tornadoes have been sited or detected by RADAR in or
- adjacent to the warning area, or have a strong potential to develop in the
- warning area.
State the purpose of the following
flight control surfaces:
c. Speed brakes
e. Horizontal stabilizer
f. Vertical stabilizer
g. Tail rotor
- a. Flap
- Gives the
- aircraft extra lift. The purpose is to reduce the landing speed, thereby
- shortening the length of the landing rollout. They also facilitate landing in
- small or obstructed areas by permitting the gliding angle to be increased
- without greatly increasing the approach. The use of flaps during takeoff serves
- to reduce the length of the takeoff run. Some flaps are hinged to the lower
- trailing edges of the wings inboard of the ailerons. Leading edge flaps are in
- use on the Navy F-4, Phantom II.
- b. Spoiler
- Used to
- decrease wing lift. However, the specific design, function, and use vary with
- different aircraft. On some aircraft, the spoilers are long narrow surfaces,
- hinged at their leading edge to the upper surfaces of the wings. In the
- retracted position, they are flush with the wing skin. In the raised position,
- they greatly reduce wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the
- wing surfaces.
- c. Speed brakes
- Hinged or
- moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircrft. On some
- aircraft, they are hinged to the sides or bottom of the fuselage; on others
- they are attached to the wings. They keep the speed from building too high in
- dives. They are also used to slow the speed of the aircraft prior to landing.
- d. Slats
- Slats are
- movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. When the
- slat is retracted, it forms the leading edge of the wing. When open, or
- extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge.
- High-energy air is introduced into the boundary layer over the top of the wing.
- At low airspeeds, this improves the lateral control handling characteristics,
- allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the normal landing
- speed. This is known as boundary layer control. Boundary layer control is intended
- primarily for use during operations from carriers; that is, for catapult
- takeoffs and arrested landings.
- e. Horizontal stabilizer
- stability of the aircraft about its lateral axis. This is longitudinal
- stability. It serves as the base to which the elevators are attached. On some
- high-performance aircraft, the entire vertical and/or horizontal stabilizer is
- a movable airfoil. Without the movable airfoil, the flight control surfaces
- would lose their effectiveness at extrememly high speeds.
- f. Vertical stabilizer
- Maintains the
- stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis. This is known as directional
- stability. The vertical stabilizer usually serves as teh base to which the
- rudder is attached.
- g. Tail rotor
- vertically on the outer portion of the helicopter's tail section. The tail
- rotor counteracts the torque action of the main rotor by producing thrust in
- the opposite direction. The tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the
Explain the term angle of attack.
- The angle at
- which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air. Defined as
- the angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from
- the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative
- wind is the direction of the airstream in relationship to the wing. For
- example, an aircraft in straight and level flight has the relative wind
- directly in front of it and has zero angle of attack since the relative wind is
- directly striking the leading edge of the wing. An aircraft flying parallel to
- the ground which has the nose trimmed significantly up, now has the leading
- edge of the wing (chord line) pointed at an upward angle; however, the relative
- wind is striking the bottom of the wing. An analogy is to hold your hand out of
- the car window with your palm facing the ground (zero angle of attack), and
- then to rotate your hand slightly in either direction. Angle of attack is
- measured in "units" as opposed to degrees.
Explain the term autorotation.
- A method of
- allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power
- by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the
- rate of descent. Accomplished by lowering collective pitch lever to maintain
- rotor rpm while helicopter is decreasing in altitude, then increasing
- collective pitch at a predetermined altitude to convert inertial energy into
- lift to reduce the rate of descent and cushion the landing.
State the components of a basic hydraulic system.
- a. A
- reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid. b. A pump to provide a flow of
- fluid. c. Tubing to transmit the fluid. d. A selector valve to direct the flow
- of fluid. e. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.
Describe and explain the purpose of the main
components of landing gear.
- a. Shock
- Strut Assembly - Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the
- airframe. b. Tires - Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction
- during takeoff and landing. c. Wheel brake asembly - Used to slow and stop the
- aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked. d.
- Retracting and extending mechanism - All the necessary hardware to electrically
- or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear. e. Side struts and
- supports - Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
State the safety precautions used when
servicing aircraft tires on aircraft.
- aircraft wheels and tires are among the most highly stressed parts of the
- aircraft. High tire pressure, cyclic loads, corrosion and physical damage
- contribute to failure of aircraft wheels. The wheel fragments can be propelled
- several hundred feet. Always approach the tires from fore and aft. When
- inflating, stand off to the side. Deflate when removing from the aircraft.
State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine.
- a. The intake which is an opening in the front
- of the aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air to enter the engine.
- b. The compressor which is made of a series of rotating blades and a row of
- stationary stator vanes. The compressor provides high-pressure air to the
- combustion chamber (or chambers). c. The combustion chamber where fuel enters
- and combines with the compressed air. d. The turbine section which drives the
- compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from
- the combustion gases. e. The exhaust cone which is attached to the rear of the
- engine assembly and eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet, thereby giving
- maximum velocity.
Describe the following engine systems:
a. Turbojet F-18
b. Turboshaft SH-60
c. Turboprop C-2
d. Turbofan AV-8B
- a. Turbojet F-18
- Projects a
- column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity. The resulting effect
- is to propel the aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.
- b. Turboshaft SH-60
- power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller. The power take
- off may be coupled directly to the engine, but in most cases it is driven by
- it's own free turbine located in the exhaust stream that operates independently
- on the engine. They have a high power-to-weight ratio and are currently used in
- c. Turboprop C-2
- Propulsion is
- accomplished by the conversion of the majority of the gas-energy into
- mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by the addition of more
- turgine stages. Only a small amount of jet thrust is obtained on a turbo prop
- d. Turbofan AV-8B
- Basically the
- same as a turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct-enclosed
- axial-flow fan. The fan can be part of the first stage compressor or mounted as
- a separate set of fan blades driven by an independent turbine depending on the
- fan design, it will produce somewhere around 50 percent of the engine's total
State the purpose of an afterburner.
- Used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to
- boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional
- burning of the ramaining unused air in the exhause section
State the NATO symbols for the
following fuels and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use
a. JP4-NATO Code
b. JP5-NATO Code
c. JP8-NATO Code
- a. JP4-NATO Code
- Has a
- flamespread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a low flashpoint of -10 degrees
- F or -23 degrees C. Never used on ships. Use of JP4 will normally cause an
- engine to operate with a lower exhaust gas temperature (EGT), slower
- acceleration, and lower engine RPM.
- b. JP5-NATO Code
- Has a
- flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F or
- 60 degrees C. JP-5 is the only approved fuel for use aboard naval vessels. The
- lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 degrees
- F. This is the Navy's primary jet fuel.
- c. JP8-NATO Code
- Has a
- flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F or
- 40 degrees C.
Describe the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel.
- Explosion from fuel fumes, vapor inhalation, and
- toxic contact with skin, eyes, or swallowing can cause illness or death.
Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor
- The symptoms include nausea, dizziness, and
- headaches. Fuel vapor inhalatin can cause death.
Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
- These power
- units furnish electrical power when engine-driven generators are not operating
- or when external power is not available. Most units use a gas turbine to drive
- the generator. The gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and
- pneumatic engine starting. This makes the aircraft independent of the need for
- ground power units to carry out its mission.
Identify the reasons for and methods
of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
- It is
- essential that defects be found and corrected before they reach catastrophic
- proportion. NDI can provide 100 percent sampling with no affect to the use of
- the part or system being inspected. Methods used may include visual, optical,
- liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic,
- etc. NDI is the practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without
- impairing its future usefullness.
Discuss icing and its effects on the performance of
- Ice on the
- airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed. The
- accumultion of ice in exterior movable surfaces affects the control of the
- aircraft. If ice begins to form on the blades of a propeller, the propeller's
- efficiency is decreased or further power is demanded of the engine to maintain
- flight. Most aircraft have sufficient resere power to fly with a heavy load of
- ice, but airframe icing is a serious problem because it results in increased fuel
- consumption and decreased range. The possibility always exists that engine
- system icing may result in loss of power. Icing can cause: loss of engine
- power, aerodynamic efficiency, loss of proper operation of control surfaces,
- brakes and landing gear, loss of outside vision, false instrument indications,
- and loss of radio.
State the purpose of the following:
b. Airspeed indicator
e. Attitude indicator
f. Turn and bank indicator
g. Navigation systems
h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)
i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
j. Magnetic (standby) compass
k. Communication systems
- a. Pitot-static
- pitot-static system in an aircraft includes some of the instruments that
- operate on the principle of the barometer. It consists of a pitot-static tube
- and 3 indicators, all connected with tubing that carries air. The three
- indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and the rate-of-climb
- indicator. Each operates on air taken from outside the aircraft during flight.
- The tube or line from the pitot tube to the airspeed indicator applies the
- pressure of the outside air to the indicator. The indicator is calibrated so
- various air pressures cause different readings. The pitot tube is mounted on
- the outside of the aircraft at a point where air is least likely to be
- turbulent. It points in a forward direction parallel to the aircraft's line of
- flight. Static means stationary or not changing. The static port introduces
- outside air, at its normal outside atmospheric pressure, as though the aircraft
- were standing still in the air. The static line applies this outside air to the
- airspeed indicator, altimeter, and rate-of-climb indicator.
- b. Airspeed indicator
- The airspeed
- indicator displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it
- is flying. In some instances, the speed of the aircraft is shown in Mach
- numbers. The Mach number gives the speed compared to the speed of sound in the
- surrounding medium (local speed). For example, if an aircraft is flying at a speed
- equal to one-half the local speed of sound, it is flying at Mach 0.5. If it
- moves at twice the speed of sound, its speed is Mach 2.
- c. Altimeters
- The altimeter
- shows the height of the aircraft above sea level. The face of the instrument is
- calibrated so the counter or pointer displays the correct altitude of the
- d. Rate-of-climb
- rate-of-climb indicator shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing or
- e. Attitude indicator
- A pilot
- determines aircraft attitude by referring to the horizon. Often, the horizon is
- not visible. When it is dark, overcast, smokey, or dusty, the earth's horizon
- may not be visible. When one or more of these conditions exists, the pilot
- refers to the attitude indicator. It is also called the vertical gyro indicator
- or VGI. The instrument shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft
- compared to the earth's horizon.
- f. Turn and bank indicator
- Shows the
- correct execution of a turn and bank. It also shows the lateral attitude of the
- aircraft in straight flight. It consists of a turn indicator and a bank
- indicator. The turn indicator is a gyro mounted in a frame that is pivoted to
- turn on a longitudinal axis. The direction of the turn is shown on the dial by
- a pointer. The gyro consists of a glass ball that moves in a curved glass tube
- filled with a liquid. When the pilot is executing a properly banked turn, the
- ball stays in the center position. If the ball moves from the center, it shows
- the aircraft is slipping to the inside or outside of the turn.
- g. Navigation systems
- systems and instruments direct, plot, and control the course or position of the
- aircraft. These may include the radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.
- h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)
- IFF is an
- electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically
- before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units. A
- transponder in the friendly aircraft receives a radio-wave challenge. The
- transponder transmits a response to a proper challenge. All operational
- aircraft and ships of the armed forces carry transponders to give their
- identity when challenged.
- i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
- A radio
- device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually
- possible. Detectable objects include aircraft, ships, land, clouds, and storms.
- Radar also shows their range and relative position. Radar works on a echo
- principle. Sound waves travel out and by knowing the speeds and the time it
- takes for them to return as an echo, the distance can be measures. One radar
- range mile is 12.36 microseconds. That is the time it takes for a radio wave to
- travel out and return back for one mile.
- j. Magnetic (standby) compass
- direct-reading magnetic compass is mounted on the instrument panel. The face of
- the compass is read like the dial of a gauge.
- k. Communication systems
- Radio equipment
- does not require interconnecting wires between the sending and receiving
- stations. It is the only practical means of communication with moving vehicles,
- such as ships or aircraft. Modern aircraft use navigation aids such as simple
- radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.
Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements.
- a. Initial b.
- Intermediate c. Permanent d. Heavy weather
State the purpose of the emergency
shore based recovery equipment.
- In an
- emergency situation, such as a blown tire, an indication that the landing gear
- has not locked, the pilot is sick, or any one of the numerous emergencies that
- could arise-you must arrest the aircraft and stop it in the shortest distance
- possible. This is to minimize the chance of an accident that could cause injury
- to the pilot and crew or damage to the aircraft.
State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun
- Designed to
- stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a
- nosewheel for the barrier to be effective. The MA-1A is always in a standby
- status, in case there is an aborted takeoff or an emergency overrun landing.
State the minimum personal protective
equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during the following
a. Routine maintenance
b. Flight operations
- a. Routine maintenance
- The work area
- shall be assessed as to hazards which may be present. Each worker shall be
- given and briefed on the use of the proper PPE for that area.
- b. Flight operations
- All personnel
- whose duties require them to work on the flight deck shall wear: a. Cranial b.
- Jersey, with the appropriate color as noted by the position of the individual;
- i.e. Plane Captains wear brown jerseys. c. Goggles d. Sound attenuators e.
- Flight deck shoes f. Flotation gear g. Survival light h. Whistle
Identify the safety hazard areas
associated with the following:
b. Exhaust (engine and APU)
d. Rotor blades
e. Hot brakes
- a. Intakes
- The air
- intake ducts of operating jet engines are an ever present hazard to personnel
- working near the ducts of the aircraft. They are also a hazard to the engine
- itself if the area around the front of the aircraft is not kept clear of
- debris. The air intake duct may develop enough suction to pull an individual or
- hats, glasses, etc., into the intake. The hazard is greatest during maximum
- power settings.
- b. Exhaust (engine and APU)
- Jet engine
- exhausts create many hazards to personnel. The 2 most serious hazards of jet
- engine exhaust are the high temperature and high velocity of the exhaust gases
- from the tailpipe. High temperatures can be found up to several hundred feet
- from the tailpipe. The closer you get to the aircraft, the higher the exhaust
- temperatures. When a jet engine is starting, sometimes excess fuel can
- accumulate in the tailpipe. When the fuel ignites, long flames shoot out of the
- tailpipe. Personnel should be clear of this danger area at all times.
- c. Propellers
- should NOT approach or depart an aircraft with the propellers turning.
- Personnel should walk well around the propeller area at all times.
- d. Rotor blades
- should NOT approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged
- or disengaged.
- e. Hot brakes
- Never face
- the side of the wheel, as an explosion of the wheel will follow the line of the
- axle, which may be outboard depending on the landing gear configuration. Always
- approach the wheel from fore or aft, never from the side.
Explain the significance of:
a. Runway numbering system
b. Treshold markings
c. Airfield lighting system
d. Runway/Taxiway marking system
e. Arm/dearm areas
f. Overrun area
g. Parking apron
- a. Runway numbering system
- Runways are
- normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the
- nearest 10 degrees, i.e. Runway 01: A runway heading of 250 degree is runway
- 25. If there are 2 runways whose centerline is parallel, the runway will be
- identified as L (left) and R (right) or 36L or 36R, if there are 3 parallel
- runways, they are identified as L (left), R (right), or C (center).
- b. Treshold markings
- Runways 200
- feet wide have 10 stripes marking the landing threshold, each 12 feet wide by
- 150 feet long. For runways that are less than 200 feet wide, the markings cover
- the width of the runway less 20 feet on both sides. These markings designate
- the landing area.
- c. Airfield lighting system
- for the operation of airport lighting are in FAA Handbook 7110.65. Operation of
- the airport lighting at controlled airports is normally the responsibility of
- the tower. When the airfield is closed, all associated lighting is shut down
- with the following exceptions: 1. Navigable airspace obstruction lights 2.
- Rotating beacons used as a visual orientation aid in a metropolitian area.
- Airport lighting systems are standardized by the Air Force, Navy, and FAA to
- present a uniform and unmistakable appearance. These standards specify the
- location, spacing, and color of lighting components in use.
- d. Runway/Taxiway marking system
- Runway lights
- are installed to provide visual guidance at night under low-visibility
- conditions during aircraft takeoff and landing operations. Taxiway lights are
- blue. Their spacing is variable. Two blue lights, called entrance-exit lights,
- are spaced 5 feet apart and are placed on each side of a taxiway entrance to or
- exit from a runway or parking area. The taxi lights are turned on as soon as
- the pilot of an aircraft is cleared to taxi out. They are turned off when the
- the aircraft is on the runway or another taxiway. For inbound aircraft, they
- are turned on as the aircraft approaches the taxiway and turned off when the
- aircraft is parked.
- e. Arm/dearm areas
- An area where
- ordnance is changed from a state of a safe condition to a state of readiness
- and vice versa. All evolutions are conducted using the individual stores
- loading manual/checklist. The area ahead of or behind and/or surrounding the
- aircraft shall be kept clear until all weapons/ordnance are completely safe.
- When aircraft are being taxied from the landing area to the dearm area, care
- must be taken to minimize exposure of the armed ordnance to personnel and
- f. Overrun area
- Provides a
- reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
- The area may also serve as an emergency all-weather access for fire-fighting,
- crash, and rescue equipment. Some are paved and some have yellow chevrons
- across them. An area with this type marking is a nontouchdown area for
- g. Parking apron
- Required for
- parking, servicing, and loading aircraft. They are connected to the runways by
- taxiways or tow ways. Parking sizes are based on the type and number of
- aircraft to be parked and requirement for squadron integrity.
State the primary mission of the following aviation
- a. HC
- Helicopter Combat Support - Rotary Wing
- They perform duties such as plane guard,
- sea-air rescue, mail
- delivery, and personnel transfer
- Aircraft: H-1, H-3, C-HH-46D, CH-53E
- b. HCS
- Helicopter Combat Support Special
- - Rotary Wing
- Provides dedicated deployable combat
- rescue detachments in
- support of aircraft carrier and
- amphibious operations for quick
- reaction contingencies.
- Aircraft: HH-60H
- c. HM
- Helicopter Mine Countermeasures - Rotary
- Provides aerial mine hunting and
- minesweeping by deploying into
- and towing through the water, sleds
- designed to detect or
- clear minefields.
- Aircraft: CH/RH-53, MH-53
- d. HS
- Helicopter Antisubmarine - Rotary Wing
- Used for carrier based anti-submarine
- warfare, plane guard,
- search and rescue and logistics. RegNav flies the SH-60F
- Oceanhawk and reserves fly the SH-3H Sea
- Aircraft: SH-3, SH-60F
- e. HSL
- Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
- Fly smaller helicopters from ships such
- as DDG's or FFG's.
- They also perform search and rescue and
- logistics. RegNav
- flies SK-60B Seahawk and reserves flies
- SH-2G Sea Sprite.
- Aircraft: SH-2G, SK-60B
- f. HT
- Helicopter Training
- Provides basic and advanced training of
- student Naval Aviators
- in rotary wing aircraft.
- Aircraft: TH-57
- g. VAQ
- Tactical Electronic Warfare - Fixed Wing
- Tactically exploits, suppresses,
- degrades and deceives enemy
- electromagnetic defensive and offensive
- systems including
- communication, in support of air strike
- and fleet operations.
- The EA-6B Prowler is used from carriers
- and EP-3A is land
- Aircraft: EA-6B, EA-7, EP-3A
- h. VAW
- Carrier Airborne Early Warning - Fixed
- Carrier based and provides early warning
- against weather,
- missiles, shipping and aircraft.
- Aircraft: E-2C
- i. VC
- Fleet Composite - Fixed Wing
- Perform duties such as utility and air
- services for the fleet
- such as simulations and target towing.
- Aircraft: TA-4J, S/UH-3A, CH-53E, VP-3A
- j. VF
- Fighter - Fixed Wing
- Fighter squadrons are used against
- aircraft and ground
- installations to defend surface
- units. They escort attack
- aircraft and give close air support to
- landing forces. They
- use maximum firepower with speed.
- Aircraft: F-14, F-16N, T-38
- k. VFA
- Strike Fighter - Fixed Wing
- Employed for both fighter and attack
- Aircraft: F/A-18
- l. VMFA
- Marine Fighter Attack - Fixed Wing
- Marine Corps Strike Fighter squadrons
- employed for both
- fighter and attack missions.
- Aircraft: F/A-18, AV-8B
- m. VP
- Patrol - Fixed Wing
- Land based squadrons that perform
- anti-submarine warfare,
- anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface
- warfare, reconnaissance
- and mining.
- Aircraft: P-3
- n. VQ
- Fleet Air Reconnaissance - Fixed Wing
- Electronic warfare support including
- search for, interception,
- recording, and analysis of radiated
- electromagnetic energy.
- Selected squadrons serve as elements of
- the Worldwide Airborne
- Command Post System and provide
- communications relay services.
- ES-3, EP-3, E-6, EC-130
- o. VR
- Aircraft Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
- Transport of personnel and supplies.
- Aircraft: C-9, C-12, C-20, CT-39, C-130, C-131
- p. VRC
- Carrier Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
- Transports personnel and supplies
- including carrier onboard
- delivery aircraft such as the C-2
- Greyhound or US-3
- Aircraft: C-2, US-3
- q. VS
- Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare - Fixed
- Perform surface search and sea
- control. Referred to as "Sea
- Control" squadrons even though
- their letter designation is VS.
- Note: As of 1998 VS no longer is employed in the ASW role.
- Aircraft: S-3
- r. VT
- Training - Fixed Wing
- Provide basic and advanced training for
- student naval aviators
- and flight officers.
- Aircraft: T-2, TA-4, T-34, T-44, T-47, T-45
- s. VX/VXE
- VX - Air Test and Evaluation - Fixed
- Tests and evaluates the operational
- capabilities of new
- aircraft and equipment in an operational
- environment. They
- develop tactic and doctrines for their
- most effective use.
- Aircraft: A4M/T, TA-4J, A-6, AV-8, F/A-18A/B,
- S-3A/B, P-3A/C, UH-1N,
- SH-2F, SH-3H, SH-60B/F,
- VXE - Antarctic Development - Fixed Wing
- Supports operation Deep Freeze.
- Aircraft: LC-130, UH-1H
2 Identify the mission of the
following naval aircraft:
C-9 Sky Train
H-3 Sea King
H-46 Sea Knight
H-53 Sea Stallion
TA-4 Sky Hawk
aa. F-5 Tiger II
bb. AH-1 Cobra
- a. AV-8 Harrier - Fighter attack
- b. C-130 Hercules - Logistics support
- c. C-2 Greyhound - Carrier logistics support
- d. C-20 Gulfstream - Logistics support
- e. C-9 Sky Train - Logistics support
- f. EA-6B Prowler - Tactical electronic warfare
- g. E-2 Hawkeye - Airborne early warning
- h. C-12 Huron - Logistics support
- i. E-6 Mercury - Fleet air reconnaissance
- j. F/A-18 Hornet - Fighter/attack
- k. F-14 Tomcat - Fighter
- l. H-2 Seasprite - Helicopter antisubmarine light
- m. H-3 Sea King - Helicopter antisubmarine
- n. H-46 Sea Knight - Helicopter combat support
- o. H-53 Sea Stallion - Helicopter mine countermeasures
- p. SH-60B Seahawk - Helicopter antisubmarine light
- q. SH-60F Oceanhawk - Helicopter antisubmarine light
- r. HH-60H Seahawk - Helicopter antisubmarine light
- s. P-3 Orion - Patrol
- t. S-3 Viking - Carrier antisubmarine warfare
- u. TA-4 Sky Hawk - Training
- v. T-2 Buckeye - Training
- w. T-45 Goshawk - Training
- x. UH-1N Iroquois Helicopter combat support
- y. T-34 Mentor - Training
- z. T-44
- Pegasus - Training
- aa. F-5 Tiger II
- - Fighter
- bb. AH-1 Cobra
- - Helicopter combat support
State the mission of each of the
following classes of aviation capable ships:
a. AE - Ammunition Ship
b. AO/AOE - Oilers/Oiler and Ammunition
c. CG - Guided Missile Cruiser
d. CV/CVN - Carrier/Nuclear Powered Carrier
e. DD/DDG - Destroyer/Guided Missile
f. FFG - Guided Missile Frigates
g. LCC - Amphibious Command Ship
h. LHA - Amphibious Assault Ship
i. LHD - Amphibious Warfare Ship
j. LPD - Amphibious Transport Dock
k. LPH - Amphibious Assault Ship Designed
to embark, transport, and land
l. LSD - Dock Landing Ship
m. MCS - Mine Countermeasures Support Ship
- a. AE - Ammunition Ship
- They operate
- with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to ships at sea.
- These ships handle all types of missiles. They carry two H-46 helicopters for
- vertical replenishment and support.
- b. AO/AOE - Oilers/Oiler and Ammunition
- Support Ships
- AO: These
- ships carry fuel, jet fuel, and other petroleum products. They operate with
- replenishment groups and deliver their cargo to ships at sea. They can service
- from both sides of the ship simultaneously.
- AOE: The
- largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy. AOE ships carry missiles,
- fuel, ammunition and general cargo. They can also carry refrigerated cargo and
- supplies. They carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and
- c. CG - Guided Missile Cruiser
- These ships
- serve provide protection against surface and air attacks, and gunfire support
- for land operations. They have a large cruising range and are capable of speeds
- over 30 knots. Some cruisers are capable of conducting anti-air warfare,
- antisubmarine warfare, and anti-surface ship warfare at the same time. They
- carry a LAMPS Mk III SH-60B helicopter.
- d. CV/CVN - Carrier/Nuclear Powered Carrier
- Carriers are
- designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat aircraft quickly and
- efficiently. It can approach the enemy at high speed, launch planes, recover
- them, and retire before its position can be determined. Attack carriers are
- excellent long-range offensive weapons and are the center of the modern naval
- task force or task group.
- e. DD/DDG - Destroyer/Guided Missile
- ships used in any kind of naval operation. Fast ships with a large variety of
- armament and little or no armor. They depend on their speed and mobility for
- protection. They operate offensively and defensively against subs and surface
- ships. They can take defensive action against air assaults. They provide
- gunfire support for amphibious assaults. They can perform patrol, search and
- rescue missions, if needed. They can accommodate two SH-60B or 2 SH2G
- f. FFG - Guided Missile Frigates
- Frigates are
- used for open-ocean escort and patrol. They resemble destroyers in appearance,
- but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament. They can
- carry two SH-60B helicopters.
- g. LCC - Amphibious Command Ship
- accommodations and command and communication facilities for various commanders
- and their staffs. They can serve as a command ship for an amphibious task
- force, landing force, and air support commanders during amphibious operations.
- They are the most modern and capable command facilities afloat.
- h. LHA - Amphibious Assault Ship
- These ships
- are able to embark, deploy, and land a Marine battalion landing team by
- helicopters, landing craft, amphibious vehicles, and combinations of these
- methods. They are versatile and combine the same features of the Amphibious
- Assault ship (LPH), Amphibious Transport Dock (LPD), Amphibious Cargo Ship
- (LKA), and Dock Landing Ship (LSD) in a single ship.
- i. LHD - Amphibious Warfare Ship
- They are
- designed based on that of an Amphibious Assault Ship, but are intended to be
- convertible from an Assault Ship to an Anti-submarine Warfare ship with Harrier
- fighters for ground assault.
- j. LPD - Amphibious Transport Dock
- Combines the
- features of a Dock Landing Ship (LSD), with the features of an Amphibious
- Assault Ship (LPH). They can transport troops and equipment in the same ship.
- It has facilities for 8 helicopters.
- k. LPH - Amphibious Assault Ship Designed
- to embark, transport, and land 1,800 troops and their equipment via transport
- helicopters in conjunction with a beach assault. They can also assist with
- antisubmarine warfare.
- l. LSD - Dock Landing Ship
- Can transport
- and launch a variety of loaded amphibious craft and vehicles. Provides limited
- docking and repair services to small ships and craft and equipped to refuel
- helicopters. In order to launch craft, the LSD must have the well flooded for
- the craft to move out on their own power. It has one CH-53 helicopter landing
- m. MCS - Mine Countermeasures Support Ship
- There is only
- one of these in the naval inventory - the USS Inchon.
1 Identify the primary mission of the following
non-aviation capable ships:
a. AD b. AFS c. ATF d. ARS e. ASR f. AR g. AS h. MCM i. MHC j. PC k. SSBN l. SSN
- a. AD - Destroyer Tender
- b. AFS - Combat Stores Ship
- c. ATF - Fleet Ocean Tugs
- d. ARS - Rescue and Salvage Ship
- e. ASR - Submarine Rescue Ship
- f. AR - Repair Ship
- g. AS - Submarine Tender
- h. MCM - Mine Countermeasures Ship
- i. MHC - Coastal Mine Hunters
- j. PC - Patrol Craft
- k. SSBN - Ballistic Missile Submarine
- (Nuclear propulsion)
- l. SSN - Submarine (Nuclear
Explain the following:
a. Chemical warfare
b. Biological warfare
c. Radiological warfare
- a. Chemical warfare
- use of lethal or nonlethal chemical agents to produce casualties; harass or
- temporarily incapacitate, and demoralize personnel; or contaminate or destroy
- areas, equipment, and supplies.
- b. Biological warfare
- use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals,
- to damage their crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies.
- c. Radiological warfare
- Radiological warfare is the deliberate use of
- radiological weapons to produce injury and death in man.
Describe the purpose of the following:
a. MCU-2/P protective mask
b. Chemical protective over garment
c. Wet-weather clothing
d. Atropine/2 Pan
chloride (Oxime) auto injector
e. IM-143 pocket dosimeter
f. DT-60 personnel dosimeter
- a. MCU-2/P protective mask
- The mask, or
- gas mask, is the most important piece of protective equipment against CBR
- agents. It protects your face, eyes, nose, throat and lungs. Inhaling CBR
- agents is much more dangerous than getting them on the outside of the body.
- Without filtration, a large amount of contamination could be inhaled in a short
- time. The mask filters the air, removing particles of dust that may be
- radioactive or contaminated; and it purifies the air of many poisonous gases.
- The mask does not provide oxygen, protection against smoke or against toxic
- gases such as carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and ammonia; however, it may be
- used for emergency escape as a last resort.
- b. Chemical protective over garment
- The over
- garment is treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and
- sprays, but do not stop penetration by liquid agents. It also gives limited
- protection against other types of CBR contaminants. The suit consists of
- trousers, hip-length jumper with attached hood, and associated gloves and foot
- coverings. Except in unusual circumstances, you do not have to wear outer
- wet-weather clothing over the CBR suit. The danger of heat prostration is
- significantly reduced. Wear wet-weather clothing during heavy seas. Wear the
- CBR suit for up to one hour in engineering spaces. Gloves afford hand
- protection against nerve and blister agent liquids and gases. Foot covers are
- worn over your own shoes. Boots come in 2 sizes and can be worn on either foot.
- They are made of black butyl rubber, are impermeable, and have a non-slip
- rubber sole.
- c. Wet-weather clothing
- Worn over
- other types of clothing, wet-weather clothing protects impregnated and ordinary
- clothing and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles.
- It also reduces the amount of vapor that penetrates to the skin. Wet-weather
- gear, which includes a parka, trousers, rubber boots, and gloves, is easily
- d. Atropine/2 Pan
- chloride (Oxime) auto injector
- Used for
- specific therapy for nerve agent casualties. Issued in automatic injectors for
- intramuscularly injections self-aid or first aid.
- e. IM-143 pocket dosimeter
- self-reading pocket dosimeter is an instrument about the size and shape of a
- fountain pen and comes in several ranges: 0 to 5, 0 to 200, and 0 to 600
- roentgens; and 0 to 200 mill roentgens. These instruments measure exposure to
- radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time. By holding
- the dosimeter up to a light source and looking through the eyepiece, the total
- radiation dose received can be read directly on the scale. After each use, the
- dosimeter must be recharged and the indicator line set to zero.
- f. DT-60 personnel dosimeter
- Is in the No
- self-reading category; the DT-60 is the high-range casualty dosimeter, which
- must be placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determine the total
- amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed. Its range is 0
- to 600 roentgens.
List the 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their
- a. Chocking
- agents b. Nerve agents c. Blood agents d. Blister agents
Discuss the purpose of the Naval Air
Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Program.
- The NATOPS program is a positive approach
- towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in
- aircraft mishaps. It is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO). NATOPS
- instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures
- applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities.
Explain general aircraft prestart precautions.
- a. Before starting
- an engine, the wheels of the aircraft shall be chocked and the parking brake
- set unless a deviation from this requirement is specifically authorized by the
- applicable model NATOPS manual. b. Where applicable, intake screens shall be
- installed on jet aircraft. c. Prior to starting jet engines, intakes and
- surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected to eliminate the possibility of
- Foreign Object Damage (FOD). d. When an engine is started by nonpilot personnel
- for testing and warm-up purposes on aircraft other than transport and patrol
- class equipped with parking brakes, the plane shall be tied down. e. Whenever an engine is started, personnel
- with adequate fire extinguishing equipment, if available, shall be stationed in
- the immediate vicinity of the engine but safely clear of intakes or propellers.
State the meaning of the following
terms as they apply to NATOPS:
- a. Warning
- An operating
- procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if
- not carefully observed or followed.
- b. Caution
- An operating
- procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment
- if not carefully observed or followed.
- c. Note
- An operating
- procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.
- d. Shall
- Means a
- procedure that is mandatory.
- e. Should
- Means a
- procedure that is recommended.
- f. May
- and "need not" mean procedure is optional.
- g. Will
- futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a
State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation.
- The standard
- operating procedures prescribed in NATOPS manuals represent the optimum methods
- of operating various aircraft and related equipment. The NATOPS evaluation is
- intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading
- adherence to NATOPS procedures.
State the purpose of the naval Flight
Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS).
- The NAVFLIRS,
- OPNAV 3710/4, also known as the "yellow sheet", provides a
- standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system.
- NAVFLIRS is the single-source document for recording flight data and is
- applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators. The form shall be prepared
- for each attempt at flight of naval aircraft or training evolution for simulators.
- The NAVFLIRS is a single-source document that collects flight activity data in
- support of the maintenance data system (MDS). Data collected includes: 1. A
- statistical description of the flight pertaining to the aircraft and
- crewmembers. 2. A record of all logistic actions performed during the flight.
- 3. A record of weapons proficiency. 4. A record of training areas utilized and
- other miscellaneous data.
State the purpose of master flight files.
- The master
- flight files shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft and
- shall be maintained in accordance with OPNAVINST 3710.7 by every reporting
- custodian of naval aircraft as defined in OPNAVINST 5442.2.
Explain the aircraft visual
identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs):
- The visual identification system for naval
- aircraft provides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that
- identify aircraft of one unit from those of another using unit identification
- assigned by the CNO. The system provides a means of rapid identification of
- Navy and marine aircraft that is simple, flexible, and readily adaptable to
- expansion in the event of mobilization. Aircraft use the last 3 digits of their
- BUNO or aircraft number, as their side number. Side numbers and colors they are
- painted in are based on unit type. For example, VAQ use maroon. HS use magenta,
- and VS use dark green.
Explain what each of the following
enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on each:
- a. Page 2 Record of Emergency Data; Used as a
- reference for beneficiary data should the service member die while on active or
- reserve duty.
- b. Page 4 Enlisted Qualifications History, for
- enlisted members. It is a chronological history of occupational and training
- related qualifications, awards, and commendations. Entries should be made as
- events occur.
- c. Page 13 Administrative Remarks; Serves as a
- chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not
- provided for elsewhere or where detailed information may be required to clarify
- entries elsewhere in the service record.