2004 NBDE

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2004 NBDE
2010-03-21 19:47:09
2004 NBDE

2004 NBDE
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  1. Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?
    A) Development of visceral carcinoma
    B) Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
    C) Multiple mucosal neuromas
    D) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
    E) Perioral melanotic freckles
    B) Cafe au laix macules

    Perioral melanotic macules- Addison's and Peutz-Jegher

    Neurofibromatosis- Autosomal Dominant tumors of melanocytes and schwann cells (derived from neural crest)
    - harmless or cause damage by compressing nerves/tissue

    1. Type I- Lisch Nodules, neural tumors, cafe aux laix, skeletal disorders, pheochromocytosis; chromosome 17
    2. Type II- characterized by ACOUSTIC SCHWANNOMAS (deafness)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults?
    A) Multiple myeloma
    B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    C) Wilms' tumor
    D) Angiosarcoma
    E) Ewing's sarcoma
    • E) Ewings (t 11,22)
    • - onion peel appearance
    • - early metastasis
    • - v. responsive to radiotherapy
    • - SMALL BLUE cell malignant tumor
    • - most common in boys <15 yrs old

    • C) Wilm's tumor
    • - most common renal malignancy of early childhood (age 2-4)
    • - huge palpable mass
  3. Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand outMOST prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar?
    A) Second molar, Distofacial surface
    B) First molar, Distofacial surface
    C) Second molar, Distolingual surface
    D) Second molar, Mesiolingual surface
    E) First molar, Mesiofacial surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root?

    A) Reparative dentin
    B) Primary dentin
    C) Cellular cementum
    D) Acellular cementum
    E) Secondary dentin
    • C) Cellular cementum
    • - located at the 1/2-1/3 apical portion of root
    • - cementum lacks vascularization

    - Acellular cementum is the enamel located at the lower part of then enamel (more cervical)
  5. Which of the following teeth is the LEAST likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?
    A) Mandibular central incisor
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    C) Maxillary second premolar
    D) Mandibular canine
    E) Mandibular lateral incisor
  6. Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) More common in individuals who are immunocompromised.
    B) Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection.
    C) Unilateral
    D) Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients.
    E) Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes.

    - Chickenpox

    - zoster
    - posterherpetic neuralgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following is the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere that lies in the middle cranial fossa?
    A) Occipital
    B) Parietal
    C) Temporal
    D) Frontal

    frontal- anterior fossa
    occipital- posterior cranial fossa

    anterior and middle cranial fossa separated by lesser wing of sphenoid bone
    middle and posterior cranial fossa separated by petrous part of temporal bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. MOST cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following?
    A) Human chorionic gonadotropin
    B) Acid phosphatase
    C) Alkaline phosphatase
    D) Alpha-fetoprotein
    E) Carcinoembryonic antigen
    A) HcG

    choriocarcinoma- aggressive, malignant cancer of placenta
    - early hematogenous spread to LUNGS
    - v. sensitive to chemotherapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The apex of the horizontal plane Gothic-arch tracing represents which of the following positions?
    A) Centric relation
    B) Rest position
    C) Maximum opening
    D) Lateral protrusive
    • A)
  10. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to mastication of food?
    A) Food is masticated primarily in lateral contacting movement.
    B) Food is masticated primarily in a border movement.
    C) Indigestion is generally related to inadequate mastication of food.
    D) An ideal occlusion is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
    E) Proper incisor contact is a requisite for masticatory efficiency.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A mature ovum is expelled from which of the following?
    A) Corpus albicans
    B) Corpus hemorrhagicum
    C) Corpus luteum
    D) Graafian follicles

    1. graafian follicle ruptures to release mature ovum
    2. corpus hemorrhagicum immediately after rupture
    3. Corpus luteum
    4. corpus albicans= degenerated corpus luteum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. TNF-Beta
    • a lymphokine cytokine that kills virally infected cells by producing holes in cell membrane
    • - released by Cytotoxic T8 cells
  13. Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in
    A) mitochondria.
    B) ribosomes.
    C) f1agella.
    D) spores.
    E) mesosomes.
  14. Each of the following statements describes a contributor to the initiation of mineralization of bone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae
    B) Holes or pores in collagen fibers
    C) Alkaline phosphatase activity in osteoblasts and matrix vesicles
    D) Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate to release an inorganic phosphate group
    E) Release of matrix vesicles by osteoblasts
  15. Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent information must be received

    A) from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    B) from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    C) from muscle spindles, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.
    D) in a lesser amount form nociceptors, indicating a soft bolus of food.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Glucose can be made from each of the following substancesEXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Fructose
    B) Glycerol
    C) Pyruvate
    D) Lactate
    E) Acetyl CoA
  17. The movement in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint is rotation and translation. The movement in the lower compartment is translation.
    A) Both statements are TRUE.
    B) The first statement is FALSE, and the second isTRUE.
    C) Both statements are FALSE.
    D) The first statement is TRUE, and the second isFALSE.

    ROTATION= hinge movement

    upper compartment= translation
    lower compartment= hinge-type rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Juxtamedullary nephron vs. cortical nephron
    • - differ mostly by the length of the loop of Henle
    • - named based on location of the renal corpuscle (glomerulus + Bowman's capsule)

    1. juxta- more rare; responsible for creating osmotic gradient in medulla
  19. Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani because it
    A) prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
    B) prevents release of acetylcholine in autonomic ganglia.
    C) prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells.
    D) denatures the salivary gland proteins.
    - competitive antagonist for the muscarinic receptor so it doesn't allow Ach to bind
  20. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
    A) 5' UAG 3
    'B) 5' CGT 3'
    C) 5' CGU 3'
    D) 5' UGC 3'
    E) 5' TGC 3'
  21. Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Esophagus
    B) Lung
    C) Urinary bladder
    D) Oral cavity
    E) Colon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists?
    A) Maxillary canine
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Mandibular lateral incisor
    D) Maxillary lateral incisor
  23. On the crown of the primary maxillary first molar, the mesial surface normally
    A) exhibits a straight cervical line.
    B) is wider buccolingually at the occlusal table than at the cervical third.
    C) is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth.
    D) exhibits a concave lingual outline.
    E) is wider occlusocervically than buccolingually.
  24. Which of the following factors MOST influences the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?
    A) Angle of the eminence
    B) Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)
    C) Anterior guidance
    D) Direction of movement of the rotating condyle
    E) Curve of the occlusion
  25. Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?A) Hypoalbuminemia
    B) Mallory bodies
    C) Tremor
    D) Spider telangiectasia
    E) Gynecomastia
    • B) Mallory Body
    • - alcoholic hyaline inclusion in cytoplasm of liver cells
    • - most common in alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis
  26. Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine?
    A) Ammonia
    B) Creatinine
    C) Urea
    D) Creatine
    E) Uric acid
    C) urea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. During the life span of a multi rooted tooth, dentin continues to form MOSTrapidly at which of the following locations?
    A) Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chamber
    B) Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber
    C) Within the root canals
    D) Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
    E) At the dentinoenamel junction
  28. A patient reports breaking a lower right central incisor while eating a cookie. Which of the following mandibular movements was the patient MOST likely making when this occurred?
    A) Retrusive
    B) Right working
    C) Protrusive
    D) Left working
    E) Straight closure
  29. Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?
    A) Mesothelioma
    B) Small cell carcinoma
    C) Adenocarcinoma
    D) Large cell carcinoma

    Paraneoplastic syndrome
    - disease or symptom that is the consequence of cancer in the body, but is not due to local presence of cancer cells

    Small cell- ectopic production of ACTH or ADH
    - can lead to Lambert-Eaton syndrome (auto-Ab's against Ca2+ channels)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint consists of
    A) an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner core of hyaline cartilage.
    B) an outer synovial layer and an inner fibrous layer.
    C) hyaline cartilage.
    D) loose fibrous connective tissue.
    E) dense fibrous connective tissue.
  31. In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is MOST likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
    A) First premolar and second premolar
    B) First premolar
    C) Lateral incisor and canine
    D) Lateral incisor
    E) Canine and first premolar

    Because of the mesial swing of the lingual cusp
    - nothing occludes in the mesial fossas of the mandibular teeth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The OLDEST enamel in a fully erupted first molar is located at the cervix of the tooth.
    A) oral surface of a cusp.
    B) mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth.
    C) dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp.
    D) dentinoenamel junction underlying a fissure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate?
    A) Frontal sinus
    B) Antrum
    C) Zygomatic arch
    D) Mandibular fossa
    E) Nasal septum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following is MOST likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction?A) Myocardial infarction
    B) Ruptured berry aneurysm
    C) Pulmonary embolus
    D) Transient ischemic attacks
    E) Angina pectoris
  35. The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires
    A) the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
    B) the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits.
    C) the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets
    .D) the alpha-subunit to bind GDP.
  36. Which of the following organs secretes insulinlike growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and what stimulates this secretion?A) Kidney, increasing growth hormone in the blood
    B) Liver, increasing growth hormone in the blood
    C) Liver, increasing TSH in the blood
    D) Anterior pituitary, increasing IGF-RH in the blood
    E) Anterior pituitary, increasing GRH in the blood

    • IGf-1 is made in liver and stimulated by GH (from anterior pituitary)
    • - binds to IGF-R (tyrosine kinase)
    • - stimulates body growth
  37. In which of the following structures are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use?
    A) Golgi apparatus
    B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Nucleolemma
    E) Polyribosomes
    • A) GLYCOproteins
    • - protein made in RER, but glycosylated/modified in Golgi for extracellular use
  38. Ingestion of which of the following MOST markedly DECREASES gastric emptying?
    A) Water
    B) Minerals
    C) Proteins
    D) Carbohydrates
    E) Fats

    - decrease gastric emptying bc CCK (need more time to break down the fats)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of

    A) muscle spindles.
    B) periodontal mechanoreceptors.
    C) mucosal mechanoreceptors.
    D) nociceptors in the dental pulp.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
    A) Pancreas
    B) Lungs
    C) Brain
    D) Peritoneal cavity
    E) Subcutaneous tissues
    A) pancreas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in which of the following?
    A) Centers of the bodies of the rods only
    B) Periphery of the bodies of the rods only
    C) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery
    D) Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails
    E) Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which of the following temporomandibular joint ligaments restricts the movement of the disc away from the condyle during function?
    A) Sphenomandibular
    B) Stylomandibular
    C) Discal
    D) Temporomandibular
    C) Discal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. THe condyle on the laterotrusive side generally rotates about a
    A) vertical axis and translates laterally.
    B) sagittal axis only.
    C) horizontal axis only.
    D) horizontal axis and translates laterally.
  44. Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
    A) Maxillary first molar
    B) Mandibular first premolar
    C) Primary mandibular first molar
    D) Mandibular second molar
    E) Maxillary first premolar
  45. The main route of calcium excretion from a normal human adult is
    A) feces.
    B) sweat.
    C) saliva.
    D) urine.
    E) tears.
    A) feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following?A) Brain
    B) Testes
    C) Bone
    D) Liver
    E) Adrenal gland