ADC core_30MAY13.txt

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Author:
deltatango
ID:
116200
Filename:
ADC core_30MAY13.txt
Updated:
2013-07-07 07:53:50
Tags:
ADC Core
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Description:
ADC Rating reference clauses. Made into simple Q&A from the references. User's responsibility to ensure list is complete. Please let me know if you find any errors. deltavtango@gmail.com References marked with * are common to ACS and ADC. 4-15-410*, 420*, 430* (distress phase tables) are in the cards titled Emergency phases in time sequence.
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  1. AIP ENR 1.1 para 4.8.1 Departure instructions may contain the following as required:
    • aircraft identification;
    • heading instructions*;
    • altitude restrictions;
    • direction of turn;
    • tracking points; and
    • any other instructions.

    Note: *A pilot assigned a heading (including runway heading) must not compensate for wind effect
  2. AIP ENR 4.8 4.8.1  When a heading is assigned as a departure instruction, the aircraft captain must ensure that ?
    • 4.8.2  the
    • heading and the direction of turn are read back. This requirement also applies to the initial heading assigned
    • by ATC as part of a RADAR SID.

    • Note: Where a RADAR SID “ASSIGNED HEADING” approximates the runway bearing, a direction of turn
    • will not be given. Pilots must turn to the assigned heading by the shortest arc.
  3. AIP ENR 1.1 6.1 In the event that an aircraft is required to go around from a visual approach in VMC, the aircraft must ?
    initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC. If the aircraft cannot clear obstacles on runway track, the aircraft may turn.
  4. AIP ENR 1.1 15.1.4 When issued with a sequencing instruction, a pilot must ?
    follow the preceding aircraft and continueto do so unless otherwise instructed by ATC.
  5. AIP ENR 1.1 60.5.1 The pilot-in-command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring MINIMUM FUEL when ?
    having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot calculates that any change to the existingclearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned fixed fuel reserve.
  6. AIP ENR 1.5 1.10.2 In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT,
    pilots must ???? and then ???. The MAPT in a
    procedure may be:
    the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
    a navigation facility; or
    a fix; or
    a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
    fly the aircraft to the MAPT and then follow the missed approach procedure
  7. AIP GEN 3.4 5.14.6 Runway Operations

    Note: During multiple runway operations where the possibility of confusion exists, the ??? will be stated. The runway number may be stated if the caller wishes to emphasise the runway to be used. For
    parallel runway operations on discrete frequencies, at Class D aerodromes, the runway number may be omitted.
    runway number
  8. 2-30-210 Table of Airspace classes and services provided. No question yet
  9. 2‐30‐230  Where airspaces adjoin vertically or laterally apply the services provided in the airspace of which  alphabetical categorisation(where A is the highest and G is the lowest) at the commonboundary?
    lower
  10. 3-10-550 Upon receipt of a pilot report and/or a forecast of ???, ??? or ??? wind shear, alert all arriving and departing aircraft by ??? and ??? where the aircraft is not in receipt of ???
    moderate, strong or severe

    by ATIS broadcast, and directed transmission where the aircraft is not in receipt of the ATIS information.
  11. 3-10-555 Continue directed transmissions (about wind shear) to other pilots until?
    • either two successive aircraft have failed to report shear conditions or
    • the expiry of the forecast period, whichever is the later.
  12. 3-10-800 Consider crosswind to be significant when it equals or exceeds ? KT for civil single engine aircraft, ? KT for military aircraft, or ? KT for civil multi‐engine aircraft.
    8, 10, 12
  13. 4‐15‐733 When an aircraft declares an emergency and responsibility for the aircraft is in the process of being transferred to another ATS position, who provides initial response and assistance?
    provide initial response and assistance from the ATS position where the emergency was declared.
  14. 4-15-1610 4-15-1620 Military aircraft that have communication failure should, uponentering the circuit, fly at a height of ?? FT along the ?? side of the circuit in the direction of the landing and:a.? by day – rock the aircraft laterallyb. ?by night – turn landing lights ‘ON’. When such a manoeuvre is observed by ATC, do what?
    • 500ft
    • a. by day – rock the aircraft laterally
    • b.by night – turn landing lights ‘ON’.

    When observed by ATC: train the appropriate light on the aircraft indicating the state of the landing clearance.
  15. 4-20-210 Declare LOCAL STANDBY when only the involvement of ???? in the AEP is warranted.
    airport based agencies in the AEP is warranted.
  16. 4-20-220 Declare a FULL EMERGENCY when: ? (a-d)
    • a. activation of more than just airport‐based responding agencies is required
    • b. an aircraft approaching the airport is known or suspected to be in such trouble that there is danger of an accident
    • c. there is a crash on the airport
    • d. a pilot declares a MAYDAY.
  17. 4-20-230 There are three full emergency levels:
    Level I Level II Level III What are the criteria?
    • I Up to 18 seats (ATC ‐ Light)
    • II Up to 215 seats (ATC ‐Medium)
    • III Up to 560 seats (ATC ‐ Super or Heavy)
  18. 4-20-410/420/430/440 A pilot suffering an emergency on the runway requiring the use of an arresting system will transmit the following, irrespective of any previous notification of the system’s position: ???
    ATC shall than do what? and report what??
    • Pilot: “CABLE, CABLE, CABLE (or) BARRIER, BARRIER,BARRIER”
    • Raise the appropriate departure end arresting systems not already activated upon receiving the above transmission and report:
    • ATC: “DEPARTURE END CABLE/BARRIER UP”
  19. 4-20-490/500/510 If an arriving aircraft capable of utilising aircraft arrester systems is suspected of having a radio failure: do what ? (a, b)

    In all such cases assume what and transmit what before the aircraft lands?
    • a. raise all arresting systems useable by that aircraft except the approach end barrier; and
    • b. plan for a jettison of fuel or stores by the pilot prior to landing.

    assume the pilot can hear all transmissions and transmit the following before the aircraft lands: ATC: “BOTH CABLES/BARRIER UP”
  20. 4-25-710/720/750 Declare a distress phase when a distress beacon has been heard on121.5 or 243.0 MHz for a period in excess of ??. Report the phase to AusSAR detailing? (a-e)
    Send what? following initial advice to AusSAR.
    • -10 sec
    • -a. position b. route c. height d. time signal was first received e. description of signal characteristics.
    • -a Distress Beacon Signal Report Form
  21. 5-10-1610 Dependant upon other operations and priorities, provide approval to pilots requesting to conduct asymmetric training within ? NM of a controlled aerodrome.
    5nm
  22. 9-10-460 Prefix directed transmissions and broadcasts with ??? when a sudden change to a component of FIS, not described in a current MET product or NOTAM, has an immediate and detrimental effect on the safety of aircraft.
    HAZARD ALERT
  23. 9‐10‐605 When you become aware that an aircraft is in a situation that places it in unsafe proximity to ???(a.-d) and the pilot has not advised that action is being taken to resolvethe situation or that the other aircraft is in sight, do what??
    • a. terrain
    • b. obstruction
    • c. active restricted or prohibited areas
    • d. other aircraft

    issue a SafetyAlert.
  24. 9-10-1135* (When passing traffic) To assist the pilot in identifying the other aircraft, include relevant information from the following:
    (a-h)?
    • a. aircraft identification
    • b. type, and description if unfamiliar
    • c. position information
    • d. estimated time of passing or closest point of approach
    • e. direction of flight or route of aircraft
    • f. level
    • g. intentions of the pilot, such as:
    • 1. initial departure track and intended cruising level
    • 2. inbound track or direction, level and next estimate.
    • h. advice that an aircraft is not yet on the appropriate frequency.
  25. 9-10-1145* (When passing traffic) Provide position information by:
    (a-e)?
    • a. clock reference or
    • b. bearing and distance or
    • c. relation to a geographical point or
    • d. reported position and estimate or
    • e. position in the circuit.
  26. 9-15-140* Include the following when issuing a clearance:
    (a-d)?
    • a. aircraft identification
    • b. destination, area of operation, position or clearance limit
    • c. route of flight
    • d. assigned level, except when this element is included in the SID description.
  27. 9-15-190* The clearance - and its amendments during the flight - only apply: (a-e)?
    • a. to the first point at which the aircraft leaves controlled airspace; or
    • b. to the first landing point if the flight is wholly within controlled airspace; or
    • c. to the clearance limit if issued; or
    • d. until the expiration of a clearance void time; or
    • e. until cancelled by a Controller.
  28. 9-15-360* When a clearance limit is cancelled, issue ? specifying ? &?
    an onwards clearance specifying the level and route to be flown from that point.
  29. 9-15-390* When an airways clearance is amended en route, prefix the route and/or level information with the term ? to indicate to the pilot that a change has been made to the previous clearance and this new clearance supersedes the previous clearance or part thereof.
    RECLEARED
  30. 9-15-400* Assign a ? with all clearance changes regardless of whether a change has been made to the initially cleared ?.
    level

    level
  31. 9-15-420* What part of an ATC route clearance must be read back?
    (2 parts)
    Obtain a readback of an ATC route clearance in its entirety, as well as any amendments.
  32. 9-15-430* Obtain a readback of the key elements of the following ATC
    clearances, instructions and information:
    (a-g)
    • a. en route holding instructions
    • b. any route and holding point specified in a taxi clearance
    • c. any clearances or instructions to hold short of, enter, land on, conditional line up on, wait, take-off from, cross, taxi or backtrack on, any runway
    • d. any approach clearance
    • e. assigned runway, altimeter settings directed to specific aircraft, radio and radio navigation aid frequency instructions
    • f. SSR codes, data link logon codes and
    • g. level instructions, direction of turn, heading and speed instructions.
  33. 9-15-440* - Are pilots required to read back an expectation of the runway to be used?
    Pilots are not required to read back an expectation of the runway to be used.
  34. 9-15-810* When may you issue a SPECIAL VFR clearance for a VFR flight? ? + (a-e)?
    • At pilot request, you may issue a SPECIAL VFR clearance for a
    • VFR flight:
    • a. within a CTR; or
    • b. in a CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR; and
    • c. by day; and
    • d. when VMC does not exist; and
    • e. an IFR flight will not be unduly delayed.
  35. 9-25-510* You may assign a pilot a level below LSALT provided that: (a-c)?
    • a. the pilot has reported VISUAL; and
    • b. VISUAL is appended to the level assigned; and
    • c. by night, you prefix the clearance with WHEN ESTABLISHED IN THE CIRCLING AREA.
  36. 9‐25‐545 You may assign ???? pilots and pilots who have notified ??? on the flight plan a level below LSALT at night in VMC provided that? (a-c)
    • military
    • NVG
    • a. the assignment is issued as ‘not above’ a level at least as high as the LSALT, MVA or the pilot calculated LSALT
    • b. the level is expressly initiated by the pilot using the phrase REQUEST (altitude) VISUAL and
    • c. the word VISUAL is appended to the level.
  37. 9-25-560* You may assign military pilots a level below LSALT in IMC provided that: a, b?
    • a. the level is expressly initiated by the pilot using the phrase REQUEST (altitude) MILITARY TERRAIN CLEARANCE; and
    • b. MILITARY TERRAIN CLEARANCE is appended to the level assigned.
  38. 9-25-580* 9-25-590* 9-25-595* You may clear pilot in receipt of a CASA exemption to CAR 174B (VFR Flights at Night) to operate below LSALT Ensure the assigned level does not prevent the pilot operating at, or climbing to, LSALT, by stating:
    ATC: (clearance) NOT ABOVE (LSALT) or (higher level if requested)
  39. 10-10-320* Tactical separation assurance places greater emphasis on trafficplanning and conflict avoidance rather than conflict resolution andrequires that Controllers: (a-d)
    • a. be proactive in applying separation to avoid rather than resolveconflicts
    • b. plan traffic to guarantee rather than achieve separation
    • c. execute the plan so as to guarantee separation; and
    • d. monitor the situation to ensure that plan and execution areeffective.
  40. 10-10-350* - Visiting aircraft Vary procedures, after appropriate consultation, for visiting
    military aircraft only ?
    • to the extent approved at that aircraft's home
    • base.
  41. 10-10-810* 10-10-820* If during an emergency situation, such as radar failure, it is not possible to ensure that the applicable procedural separation minima will be maintained, you may temporarily use half the applicable vertical separation minima, which are? and issue what ?
    • 500 FT Below FL290 or in RVSM airspace
    • 1000 FT At or above FL290 in non-RVSM

    Issue traffic information to affected aircraft. airspace
  42. 10-35-220* Verify accuracy of pressure altitude-derived level display: a-c
    • a. on initial contact with an aircraft; or
    • b. if not feasible, as soon as possible after initial contact and prior
    • to use
    • c. where continuous monitoring has not been carried out.
  43. 10-35-230* Verify accuracy of pressure altitude-derived level display by simultaneous comparison with:
    a-b
    • a. altimeter-derived level information received from the same aircraft by radiotelephony; or
    • b. the aerodrome elevation during the take-off roll, provided that the level information subsequently indicates a positive climb after take-off.
  44. 10-35-260* -The tolerance for pressure altitude-derived level information displayed is?
    +/- 200 FT.
  45. 10-35-300* Determine level occupancy by verified pressure altitude-derived level information as follows: Maintaining a level? Vacating a level? Passing a level in climb or descent? Reaching a level?
    • Level Occupancy Level Information
    • Maintaining a level: Within +/- 200 FT of the assigned level.
    • Vacating a level: A change of 400 FT or more in the anticipated direction from the previously assigned level.
    • Passing a level in climb or descent: Passed the level in the required direction by 400 FT or more.
    • Reaching a level: The greater of three consecutive renewals of display updates or at least 15 seconds have passed indicating it was within +/- 200 FT of theassigned level.
  46. 10-35-910* Apply Minima V1 - 500 FT between? when?
    • IFR and VFR flights (including
    • SVFR), or between SVFR flights where SVFR clearance is due to visibility, under the following conditions:
    • a. both aircraft are 7000 kg MTOW or less
    • b. both aircraft are at or below 10 000 FT
    • c. traffic information is provided to the IFR flight, unless it is impracticable.
  47. 10-35-930* Apply Minima V2 - 1000 FT to: a, b?
    • a. all aircraft, up to and including FL290
    • b. aircraft with RVSM approval except military formation flights, operating in airspace providing Class A service from FL290 to FL410 inclusive.
  48. 10-40-210* Wake turbulence separation minima is determined on a grouping of aircraft types into four categories according to the maximum certified take-off weight as follows:
    J, H, M, L?
    • J A380
    • H 136 000 KG or more
    • M less than 136 000 KG but more than
    • 7000 KG
    • L 7000 KG or less
  49. 10-40-220* Due to the wake turbulence characteristics of the ?, ? and ?, for the purpose of wake turbulence separation, classify these aircraft as Heavy aircraft if leading and as Medium aircraft if following.
    B757, H47 and H53
  50. 10-40-235* 10-40-245* Except when specified in Clause 10-40-285, apply wake turbulence separation minima in all controlled airspace when an aircraft is operating: ? Note?
    directly behind another aircraft at the same level or less than 1000 FT below.

    Note: When applying wake turbulence separation criteria, directly behind means an aircraft is operating within 760 m laterally of the track of the leading aircraft.
  51. 10-40-265/275 Apply wake turbulence separation minima to aerodrome traffic when: ? (a-g)
    • a. both aircraft are using the same runway for take‐off or landing
    • b. an aircraft taking off behind a landing heavier wake turbulence category aircraft is expected to become airborne before the touchdown point of the landing aircraft
    • c. an aircraft is taking off and a preceding departing aircraft on a crossing runway has rotated at or before the runway intersection
    • d. an aircraft is landing and could still be airborne at the intersection of a crossing runway and a preceding departing aircraft on that crossing runway has rotated at or before the intersection
    • e. a Light aircraft during its landing run will cross the intersection of a crossing runway behind a departing Super or Heavy aircraft on that crossing runway which has rotated at or before the intersection
    • f. using parallel runways for approach and departures when the runways are separated by less than 760 m; or
    • g. an aircraft is utilising the opposite direction runway for take‐off or landing to a heavier category aircraft that has taken off or executed a missed approach.

    Note: (to point f.) Consider an adjacent HLS within 760 m of a runway as a parallel runway unless the HLS location and projected flight path of the helicopter are located outside the wake turbulence envelope of the other aircraft.
  52. 10-40-285* When is wake Turb sep not required: a-e?
    • a. when a Light aircraft will cross or follow the track of a Medium fixed wing aircraft of less than 25 000 KG MTOW
    • b. between an aircraft landing behind an aircraft taking-off on the same runway
    • c. if a pilot has initiated a waiver of the relevant departure wake turbulence separation minimum
    • d. for VFR flights in relation to a preceding Heavy or Medium aircraft, except on departure
    • e. when the pilot of an IFR flight has reported the preceding aircraft in sight and has accepted responsibility for visual separation with that aircraft, except on departure.
  53. 10-40-315 Only apply a wake turbulence waiver:? (a-c)
    • a. when initiated by pilot
    • b. in VMC by day
    • c. to departing aircraft.
  54. 10-40-325 Do not apply a waiver when a ?? or ?? aircraft will commence take‐off behind, or in the reciprocal direction to, ?? or ??? aircraft that has taken‐off or made a low or missed approach.
    • -Light or Medium fixed wing
    • -Heavy or Super
  55. 10-40-335* Issue a wake turbulence caution in any of the following circumstances: (a-d&e)
    • a. less than the applicable wake turbulence separation minimamay exist
    • b. the applied wake turbulence separation minima may beinfringed
    • c. the pilot initiates a waiver
    • d. when wake turbulence separation is not provided incircumstances described in 10‐40‐285
    • d. and e. and you consider that wake turbulence may have an adverse affect on theaircraft.
  56. 10-40-355 Where you can determine the required separation by distanceusing an aircraft report or ATS surveillance system, you do notneed to apply the time minima to an affected: (a or b)
    • a. arriving aircraft
    • b. departing aircraft unless it is departing from an intermediate point as described in Clause 10‐40‐422.
  57. 10-40-412 Time‐Based Wake Turbulence Standards Full length ops.
    Departure? HVY-MED, HVY-LGT, MED-LIGHT
    Arrival? HVY-MED, HVY-LGT, MED-LIGHT
    • DEP:
    • 2
    • 2
    • 2
    • Arrival:
    • 2
    • 3
    • 3
    • (Note1: Super standards not included.
    • Note 2: Medium fixed wing aircraft with MTOW of 25 000 KG or more and all Medium helicopters)
  58. 10-40-422 Time‐Based Wake Turbulence Standards: Intermediate departures
    HVY-MED, HVY-LGT, MED-LGT?
    • 3
    • 3
    • 3
    • (Note1: Super standards not included.Note 2: Medium fixed wing aircraft with MTOW of 25 000 KG or more and all Medium helicopters )
  59. 10-40-442 Time‐Based Wake Turbulence Standards. Opposite direction.
    HVY-MED, HVY-LGT, MED-LGT?
    • 2
    • 2
    • 2
    • (Note1: Super standards not included.Note 2: Medium fixed wing aircraft
    • with MTOW of 25 000 KG or more and all Medium helicopters )
  60. 10-40-512* Distance‐based Wake TurbulenceStandards.

    Heavy leading, Heavy/medium/light following?
    Medium fixed wing >25000kg & all medium helos, with light following?
    Super leading, Heavy/medium/light following?
    4 5 6 5 - 6 7 8
  61. 10-45-210 Establish positive identification before providing visualseparation as follows:
    a. ?
    b. by day? (1, 2, 3)
    c. by night? (1-5)
    • a. by the use of an ATS surveillance system as described in Clause9‐45‐300
    • b. by day:
    • 1. identification by type; or
    • 2. identification by distinguishing markings if aircraft are ofthe same type; or
    • 3. identification by observing a change of heading or altitudeof one of the relevant aircraft
    • c. by night:
    • 1. momentarily extinguishing navigation lights; or
    • 2. select flashing navigation lights to steady; or
    • 3. extinguish hazard beacon; or
    • 4. momentarily switch on landing lights; or
    • 5. change heading.

    See MATS 9‐45‐300 ‐ Identification by visual observation.
  62. 10-45-430 Consider two approaching aircraft to be separated while the second approaching aircraft is on final approach beyond view of the Tower Controller if, before commencing such final approach,the first approaching aircraft:
    a? and
    1?, 2?; or
    b.?
    • a. has been sighted by the Tower Controller and:
    • 1. there is reasonable assurance that a landing can beaccomplished; and
    • 2. it is clear that no conflict will occur; or
    • b. has reported commencing a missed approach, and is proceeding from a point and on a clearance which will permit separation to be maintained should the second aircraft miss its approach.
  63. 10-50-210* You may only assign responsibility for visual separation to a pilot when 3 parts?
    • -both aircraft are operating at or below 10 000 FT
    • -and the pilot of one aircraft reports sighting the other aircraft
    • -and is instructed to maintain visual separation with, pass behind or follow that aircraft.
  64. 10-50-211 -
    Performance characteristics 

    Before assigning responsibility for visual
    separation to a pilot, consider the following?
    a-e
    • a) aircraft performance characteristics,
    • particularly in relation to faster following aircraft.
    • b)  position of the aircraft relative to
    • each other 
    • c)  projected flight paths of the aircraft
    • d)  possibility of a TCAS RA due to closer
    • proximity of operation
    • e)  known weather conditions.
  65. 10-50-270* When an aircraft is instructed to maintain separation from or pass behind an IFR aircraft, issue ? including?
    traffic information to the IFR aircraft, including advice of assignment of responsibility for separation to other aircraft.
  66. 10-55-150 Adjacent Class C and Class D 


    At Class D aerodromes, treat IFR aircraft or aircraft operating on a special VFR clearance due cloud, established on tower frequency
    and operating in the aerodrome traffic circuit as ??? for the purpose of separation with aircraft in adjacent Class C airspace.
    VFR
  67. 10-55-215

    Lateral separation exists between an arriving aircraft and a departing aircraft cleared on a segregated flight path provided ?
    the departing aircraft commences take-off before the arriving aircraft commences final approach.
  68. 10-55-295 
    - Final for straight-in instrument approach

    When an aircraft has commenced final of a straight-in instrument approach, an aircraft may commence take-off provided: 
    a-e?
    • a)   the departing aircraft is cleared on a segregated flight path
    • b)   the arriving aircraft has not passed a point 5NM from the landing threshold as determined either by:
    • i) ATS surveillance system or
    • ii) DME or GNSS report adjusted for the distance between the landing threshold in use and the DME site 
    • c) separation will exist at the time the take-off is commenced
    • d)  the ATS surveillance system position indication or DME or GNSS report is used to confirm that separation is not infringed
    • e)  where TAR is used to determine the position of the arriving aircraft, ensure it is not closer than 3 NM from the landing threshold at the time a departing aircraft:
    • i) commences take-off on the runway to be used by the landing aircraft or
    • ii) crosses the intersection of the runway to be used by the landing aircraft.
  69. 10-55-270 When using TAR to determine aircraft position, ensure that an arriving aircraft is not closer than ? NM from the landing threshold at the time a departing aircraft:
    a. commences take‐off on the runway to be used by the landing aircraft; or
    b. crosses the intersection of the runway to be used by the landing aircraft.
    3
  70. 10-55-315
    Increase distances contained in MATS 10-55-235 and 10-55-295 as appropriate to ensure that separation will be
    maintained:
    • a)  when missed approaches are likely or
    • b)  if a downwind component exists on final approach or
    • c)  a faster type aircraft is approaching in respect of a slower type aircraft taking off.
  71. 10-55-410 Apply the ‘take‐off behind a preceding departing aircraft’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a departing aircraft to commence take‐off unless the preceding departing aircraft: (a-e)
    • a. has crossed the up‐wind end of the runway‐in‐use; or
    • b. has commenced a turn; or
    • c. is airborne and has reached a point at least 1800 M (6000 FT)ahead of the following aircraft, provided the runway is longer than 1800 M (6000 FT) and the distance can be readily determined; or
    • d. is airborne and has reached a point at least 600 M (2000 FT)ahead of the following aircraft provided the:
    • 1. preceding aircraft has an MTOW of 7000 KG or less
    • 2. following aircraft has an MTOW of less than 2000 KG; and
    • 3. following aircraft is slower than the preceding aircraft; or
    • e. is airborne and has reached a point at least 600 M (2000 FT)ahead of the following aircraft, provided both aircraft have anMTOW of less than 2000 KG.
  72. 10-55-450 Apply the ‘take‐off behind landing or departing aircraft on intersecting runways’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a departing aircraft to commence take‐off until: a, b
    • a. a preceding departing aircraft on an intersecting runway has crossed the intersection; or
    • b. an aircraft landing on the crossing runway has either crossed the intersection or stopped short.
  73. 10-55-470 Apply the ‘take‐off after an aircraft has departed in the opposite direction’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a departing aircraft to commence take‐off until: a,b
    • a. the preceding aircraft has crossed the point at which the following aircraft will commence take‐off; and
    • b. if applicable, the appropriate wake turbulence separation standard has been achieved.
  74. 10-55-485
    Where a helicopter requires a take-off roll and uses a runway prior to becoming airborne, you may clear the helicopter for take-off when: 
    a? b?
    • a)   the preceding departing aircraft is airborne and visual separation is applied
    • b)  if wake turbulence separation is necessary, apply the appropriate wake turbulence separation standard.
  75. 10-55-490 Apply the ‘take‐off helicopter’ standard to departing helicopters.You may clear helicopter 1 for take‐off when: a-b
    • a. a preceding departing helicopter 2 has departed the HLS; or
    • b. a preceding arriving helicopter 3 has moved clear of the HLS.
  76. 10-55-610 Apply the ‘landing behind a preceding landing aircraft’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold until ?
    the preceding aircraft has vacated and is taxiing away from the runway.
  77. 10-55-632 ‐ MTOW exception Apply the ʹlanding behind a preceding landing aircraftʹstandard to fixed‐wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold until ?
    and a?
    and b?
    • the preceding aircraft has landed and has passed a point at least 600 m from the threshold of the runway, is in motion and will vacate the runway without backtracking and:
    • a. the preceding aircraft has an MTOW of less than 7000 KG and
    • b. the following aircraft has an MTOW of 2000 KG or less.
  78. 10-55-640 Apply the ‘landing behind preceding departing or landing’ standard to fixed‐wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold unless, ??? and
    a? and
    b 1, 2??
    • in the opinion of the Tower Controller, no collision risk exists, and:
    • a. the landing aircraft has an MTOW below 3000 KG and is a Performance Category A aircraft and
    • b. the preceding aircraft has an MTOW of 7000 KG or less, is at least 1000 m from the threshold of the runway and
    • 1. if landing, will vacate the runway without backtracking or
    • 2. if departing, has commenced its take‐off run.
  79. 10-55-660 Apply the ‘landing behind a preceding departing aircraft’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit the landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold until the preceding aircraft ??? and
    a? or
    b? and
    c?
    • is airborne and:
    • a. has commenced a turn; or
    • b. is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll; and
    • c. there is sufficient distance to enable the landing aircraft to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach.
  80. 10‐55‐680 Apply the ‘landing after intersecting runway traffic’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit the landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold until a preceding departing or landing aircraft on an intersecting runway has either ??? or ???
    crossed the intersection or stopped short.
  81. 10‐55‐700 Helicopter landing ‐ HLS You may clear:a. helicopter 1 to land when departing helicopter 2 has ??? or b. the preceding arriving helicopter 3 has ????
    • helicopter 1 to land when departing helicopter 2 has left the HLS or b.
    • the preceding arriving helicopter 3 has moved clear of the HLS.
  82. 10‐55‐720  You may permit a helicopter to land on a runway when:
    a? b?
    • a. the preceding landing or departing aircraft is at least 300 m down the runway from the landing threshold
    • b. in the opinion of Tower Controller, no collision risk exists.
  83. 10-55-900 to 950 not included. LAHSO
  84. 10-60-620* - do you need to provide runway separation between aircraft elements of
    in-company flights?
    Yep
  85. 11-15-350* You may issue a visual departure in lieu of a SID:
    • a. by day
    • b. in VMC; and
    • c. provided that the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC below the MVA (ATS surveillance system environment) or MSA/LSALT (procedural environment).
  86. 12‐15‐220Take into consideration when nominating a RWY ???
    (a-i)
    • a. type of aircraft
    • b. effective length of runway(s) or direction
    • c. wind velocity
    • d. weather phenomena, including wind gradient, wind shear,wake turbulence effects and position of the sun
    • e. in near minima conditions, availability of approach aids
    • f. disposition of other traffic
    • g. taxiing distances
    • h. braking conditions
    • i. if workload and/or traffic conditions permit, implement‘preferred runway’ systems in certain wind conditions to:1. provide the optimum traffic management configuration
    • 2. comply with noise abatement procedures.
  87. 12‐15‐230 Crosswind/downwindlimitations
    Do not nominate a runway for use when:
    a? b?
    • Completely dry Crosswind exceeds 20 KT including
    • gusts. Downwind exceeds 5 KT including gusts.

    Not completely dry Crosswind exceeds 20 KT including gusts. There is a downwind component.
  88. 12‐20‐390  Include a CROSS RUNWAY (number) instruction where a taxi instruction contains what?
    a taxi limit beyond the runway.
  89. 12‐20‐425, 426  Include the point of crossing when authorising surface traffic to cross what?
    • a runway in use.
    • Example: ATC: “(aircraft or vehicle callsign) (ON/AT) (location) CROSSRUNWAY (number).”
  90. 12-20-436 (Multiple line up clearances) Continuous visual reference
    When utilising the same runway for departure, controllers and flight crew must be able to  ?
    continuously observe the position of the relevant aircraft on the manoeuvring area by visual reference.
  91. 12‐20‐520 When an instruction to line up does not include a take‐off clearance and is issued with the departure instructions, issue the departure instructions at the ???? of the instruction and give ??? at the ???.
    issue the departure instructions at the beginning of the instruction and give the appropriate holding instruction at the end.
  92. 12‐20‐525 Include the runway number in the line up clearance when? or when?
    whenever more than one runway is in use or when aircraft are authorised to line up on the same runway.
  93. 12‐20‐565 When a pilot is offered an intersection departure, include what? when?
    the take‐off distance remaining if this information is not readily available to the pilot.
  94. 12‐20‐570 Issue a take‐off clearance when ? (a-f)
    • a. the aircraft is at or approaching the runway in use
    • b. when the traffic situation permits
    • c. the aircraft has reported READY
    • d. a visual check of the take‐off path has been completed
    • e. no obstructions or collision risk exists
    • f. there is reasonable assurance that the required
    • separation will exist when the aircraft commences take‐off.
  95. 12‐20‐580‐ Visually check the take‐off path again when?
    immediately before the take‐off commences.
  96. 12‐20‐590‐ Whenever more than one runway is in use, include what? in the take‐off clearance.
    the runway number
  97. 12‐20‐620‐ Use the words TAKE‐OFF as the last words of the take‐off clearance, except when the following information must be added:
    a?
    b?
    a. an instruction specifying a turn or circuit direction or b. where installed, the state of the arrestor system.
  98. 12‐20‐630‐ Do not pass the state of the arrestor system to locally‐based aircraft when ??
    it is in the normal operating position.
  99. 12‐20‐660 Only cancel a take‐off clearance once an aircraft has commenced take‐off roll when??

    As the decision to reject take‐off remains with the pilot, a ccompany any instruction to cancel take‐off with what?
    when in extreme circumstances when an aircraft is in imminent danger.

    a description of the nature of the emergency.
  100. 12‐25‐230‐ In a takeoff clearance, include the runway number when? or when?
    if the aircraft is departing from other than the duty runway or more than one runway is nominated for departure on the ATIS.
  101. 12‐30‐230‐ Essential aerodrome information includes
    ?? a-h
    • :a. construction or maintenance work on, or immediately adjacent to, the movement area
    • b. rough or broken surfaces on a runway, a taxiway or
    • an apron, whether marked or not
    • c. slippery conditions on a runway, a taxiway or an apron
    • d. water on a runway including its extent, and
    • when available, braking characteristics as reported by other aircraft
    • e. aircraft parked close to the runway or taxiway
    • f. birds on the ground or in the air
    • g. failure or irregular operation of part or all of the aerodrome lighting system, approach aids or emergency equipment
    • h. any other pertinent information.
  102. 12‐30‐240  Use the following descriptive terms to describe water on a runway:
    DAMP?
    WET?
    WATER PATCHES?
    FLOODED?
    • DAMP The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.
    • WET The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.
    • WATER PATCHES Patches of standing water are visible.
    • FLOODED Extensive standing water is visible.
  103. 12‐30‐250 When the runway conditions are ?? or ?? request pilot reports on braking characteristics at intervals dependent on factors such as ?? and ??
    damp or wet,

    the drainage characteristics of the runway and the intensity of the rain.
  104. 12‐30‐260 Use the following descriptive terms to describe braking characteristics experienced
    GOOD ?
    MEDIUM ?
    POOR?
    GOOD Pilots should not expect to find the conditions as good as when operating on a dry runway but should not experience any directional control or braking difficulties because of runway conditions.

    MEDIUM Braking action may be such that the achievement of a satisfactory landing or accelerate stop performance, taking into account the prevailing circumstances, depends on precise handling techniques.

    POOR There may be a significant deterioration both in braking performance and directional control.
  105. 12‐30‐410 Only issue a clearance to land after:
    ?? a-e
    • a. the aircraft has commenced final approach of a straight‐in instrument approach or has been sighted by the Tower Controller:
    • 1. on the late downwind leg of the circuit pattern
    • 2. on base leg or
    • 3. on final in the case of a straight‐in visual approach
    • c. a visual check of the landing path has been completed and
    • d. no obstructions or collision risk exists and
    • e. there is reasonable assurance that separation will exist when the aircraft crosses the runway threshold to land.
  106. 12‐30‐425‐ A clearance to land also authorises a pilot to
    ? or ?
    go‐around or carry out a missed approach.
  107. 12‐30‐430‐ Visually check the landing path again when??
    immediately before the aircraft crosses the runway threshold to land.
  108. 12‐30‐450‐  Do not pass the state of the arrestor system to which aircraft when it is in which position?
    • locally‐based aircraft when it is in
    • the normal operating position.
  109. 12‐30‐460 Issue a landing clearance before the aircraft reaches a height of  ??
    200 FT AGL.
  110. 12‐30‐510 Whenever more than one runway is in use, include what in the landing clearance.
    the runway number
  111. 12‐30‐530 Confirm that an aircraft’s undercarriage is down when:  ? a-d
    • a. doubt exists as to whether a civil aircraft’s gear is fully extended
    • b. advised that a general aviation aircraft, with
    • retractable undercarriage, has experienced abnormal operation. Include the confirmation with the landing clearance
    • c. a military aircraft is cleared for a go‐around, cleared to land or cleared for a touch‐and‐go landing
    • d. a military pilot neglects to declare the undercarriage status.
  112. 12‐30‐610 Consider the formation broken and process aircraft individually when the formation aircraft ?? a-c
    • a. elect to carry out touch‐and‐go landings
    • b. are required to go‐around
    • c. elect to carry out individual activities.
  113. 12‐30‐730‐ To achieve a smooth landing flow, you may instruct aircraft to ?? a-d
    • a. extend via a circuit leg, eg EXTEND DOWNWIND
    • b. make a wide (or close) circuit
    • c. make a long approach or
    • d. make a short approach.
  114. 12-35-260
    At locations within controlled airspace, helicopters may be granted a take-off or landing clearance to a ? or ? visibile to the tower and located on the manoeuvring area
    subject to? and ?
    • a runway or any HLS
    • visible to the tower and located on a  manoeuvring area subject to ATC and assessed by the pilot as being suitable as an HLS.
  115. 12‐45‐101 Ensure low visibility procedures are in place when ??? a-c
    • a. RVR/RV is 800 metres or less or
    • b. cloud ceiling is 200 FT or less or
    • c. visibility on any part of the aerodrome is insufficient for ATC to exercise control over all traffic on the basis of visual surveillance.
  116. 12-60-215
    Only operate runway lighting for a runway not nominated on the ATIS/CATIS/DATIS for the purposes of:
    ?a-e
    • a)  landing,take-off or taxiing
    • b)  circuit operations
    • c)  runway inspections or maintenance
    • d)  assistance in the navigation of airborne aircraft
    • e)  assistance to ground based operations.
  117. 12‐65‐216‐  When and why may a safety vehicle may enter the Glide Path or Localiser vehicle critical area?
    What must you also do when this occurs?
    • When the meteorological conditions do not require protection of the Glide Path or Localiser critical areas a safety vehicle may enter the vehicle critical area to complete a safety related task. Advise aircraft
    • that the critical area is infringed.
  118. 12‐65‐245 CAT I critical area protection. When the cloud ceiling is at or below ??? or the visibility is  ???? m or less, ensure no aircraft enter the glide path or localiser critical areas when an arriving aircraft is within:a? or b?
    • When the cloud ceiling is at or below 600 FT or the visibility is 2000 m or less, ensure no aircraft enter the glide path or localiser critical areas when an arriving aircraft is within:
    • a. the OM or
    • b. 4 NM from the threshold if no OM exists.
  119. 4-10-230* 4-10-240* What are the ATC responsibilities during an RA?

    When clear of conflict?
  120. 4-15-220* Who is responsible for declaration of the phase appropriate to the emergency situation?
    The ATS Officer first becoming aware of an aircraft operating in other than normal circumstances, and there is doubt concerning the aircraft's safety,
  121. 4-15-650* Acknowledge emergency communication by?
    • a. callsign
    • b. station identification
    • c. ROGER MAYDAY/PAN PAN.
  122. 4-15-660* On first establishment of communication with an aircraft that has declared an emergency to a previous agency, indicate knowledgeof the emergency by use of the appropriate phrase:
    • ATC: PAN PAN [Type of emergency] ACKNOWLEDGED.
    • ATC: MAYDAY [Type of emergency] ACKNOWLEDGED.
  123. 4-15-910* Act in accordance with:
    7500?
    7600?
    7700?
    • a. Unlawful Interference procedures upon receiving an alert associated with Transponder Code 7500
    • b. Aircraft Radio/Communications Failure procedures upon receiving an alert associated with Transponder Code 7600
    • c. Emergency procedures upon receiving an alert associated with Transponder Code 7700.
  124. 4-25-130* Maintain SARWATCH via:
    a,
    b. 1 2 3
    • a. continuous visual or surveillance monitoring, or
    • b. a time nominated by ATS or a pilot which may include:
    • 1. an estimate
    • 2. a NOCOM time
    • 3. a time to report, such as a SKED or an operations normal time.
  125. 6-30-730* In addition to the Pilots to- ATS readback requirements, read back? (5 things)
    QNH and the words VISUAL, AMENDED, RECLEARED or CANCEL CLEARANCE
  126. 6-30-1310* Coordination Phraseology table
    pp 283-285.
  127. IFER checklist Critical initial actions* are?
    • Acknowledge
    • Assess
    • Separate
    • Coordinate
    • Phase
  128. 4-15-310*, 320*, 330* (Declare and INCERFA/ALERFA/DETRESFA when?)
    do not have cards. See the other cards titled Emergency phases in time sequence to learn these.
  129. 4-15-410*, 420*, 430* (distress phase tables) are in the cards titled Emergency phases in time sequence.

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