WEEK 4

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WEEK 4
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2011-11-21 04:49:35
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WK 4 IMMUNOLOGY
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  1. How long are the DNA primers
    16 to 20 bp
  2. What are primers for PCR
    Small portions of single stranded DNA
  3. The primer sequence is complementary to the __ end to be amplified
    3'
  4. PCR cycles consists of
    denaturation, annealing, extension of primed DNA.
  5. What is annealing process
    when primer binds to the 3' end
  6. What enzyme is needed to add amino acids
    DNA polymerase
  7. DNA being amplified
    amplicon
  8. RT PCR area of interest is
    RNA
  9. three important applications of PCR are
    amplification of DNA, identification of target sequence and synthesis of a labeled antisense probe
  10. RT-PCR useful in identification of RNA viral agents
    HIV and HCV
  11. Real time PCR used _____ energy to quantitate specific DNA and identifiy ____ mutations
    fluorescence resonance, point
  12. Multiplex PCR numerous primers to amplify nucleic acids from
    different targets
  13. Dot and Reverse dot blot used in clinical lab for
    detection of disorders in which sequences is mutated region is known (sickle, cystic fibrosis)
  14. Dot blot and reverse dot blot capable of distiguishing _____ states of mutation
    heterozygous and homozygous
  15. Advantage of molecular testing is
    faster turnaround times, smaller required sample volumes, increased specificity and sensitivity.
  16. DNA and other biomolecules can be separated based on
    charge, shape and size
  17. DNA has a net charge ___ and will migrate towards
    negative, positive (anode)
  18. DNA sequencing is considered the ___ standard for which
    gold standard, other methods are compared to.
  19. Branched DNA an alternative quantitative test
    uses signal amplification instead of target amplification
  20. dot blot detects single base mutations based on
    allele specific oligonucleotides (ASO)
  21. Dot blot hybridization occurs when
    labeled probe base sequence match perfectly the patient's
  22. Reverse dot blot similiar except
    ASO bound to filter
  23. Solid support for Northern blot and Southern blot
    nitrocellulose
  24. Southern blot detects____ Northen blot detects___
    DNA, mRNA
  25. Southern blot can detect DNA sequences
    RFLP
  26. Western blot is used to separate
    proteins using electrophoresis then transferred to membrane
  27. PCR testing is useful in
    forensic, genetic, disease diagnosis
  28. For PCR reaction to occur, the clinician must provide which of the following?
    primers, polymerase, DNA
  29. The enzyme reverse transcriptase converts
    mRNA to cDNA
  30. DNA polymerases catalyzes
    primer extension
  31. Southern blot immunoassay
    single stranded DNA is studied
  32. Northern blot immunoassay
    Mesenger RNA is studied
  33. Western blot immunoassay
    Called immunoblot detects antibodies
  34. What techniques uses signal amplification
    b-DNA
  35. Automated techniques
    SDA, TMA, NASBA TMA-TB, NASBA-HIV, CMV
  36. DNA probe on a stationary silicon support
    microarray (DNA chip)
  37. Factors that can influence exposure to infectious disease
    Pathogenicity or virulence of agent, immune states of host, appropriate portal of entry
  38. For infectious disease to develop in a host the organism must
    penetrate first line of defense, severe natural and adaptive defense
  39. Most effective protection of parasitic infections is
    antibody dependent cell mediated-cytotoxic
  40. Most frequently mediated is
    IgG sometimes IgE
  41. types of fungal disease
    histoplasmosis, aspergillosis, coccidiomycosis
  42. Valley fever is the inhalation of dust that contains
    arthrospore of coccidioides immitus
  43. Define anergy
    lack of immunity to antigen
  44. histoplasmosis specimen
    sputum, blood, tissue
  45. Coccidiomycosis specimens
    blood and CSF
  46. Cryptococcus
    Serum and CSF
  47. Complement fixation (CF) is the most specific
    antibody detection
  48. Plays major role in body defenses against viral infections
    Interferons
  49. Most virulent viruses to humans are
    zoonoses
  50. Human herpes viruses are
    CMV, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex, varicella-zoster, human herpes virus-6
  51. Human herpes viruses are large
    enveloped DNA virus, replicates in nucleus
  52. Varicella-zoster is the same virus that
    causes two different types of clinical diseases
  53. Primary phase of Varicella-zoster and latent phase
    Chicken pox, shingles
  54. Complications of VZV
    pneumonitis, nephritis, hepatitis, myocarditis, arthritis, and Reye's syndrome
  55. Zoster eruptions follow
    dermatomes
  56. Human herpesvirus 6 targets
    T-cells
  57. Which antibody is produced in signficant quantities during first exposure to infectious agent
    IgM
  58. Procedures that specifically evaluate the presence of IgM and IgG used to detect
    TORCH taxoplasmosis, other, rubella, CMV, herpes
  59. Most common congenital virus?
    CMV.
  60. Viruses are defended by
    interferon
  61. Bacteria defended by
    Lysozymes and phagocytosis
  62. Parasites are defended by
    complement, cytotoxic, cellular defense
  63. Histoplasmosis is caused by
    fungus
  64. Aspergillosis is caused by
    an opportunistic organism
  65. What is the concept of vaccination
    deliberating introducing a potentially harmful microbe
  66. The purpose of vaccine is to stimulate
    active immunity and create immune memory
  67. Most vaccines can be divided into two types
    Live, attenuated vaccines, non-replacating vaccines.
  68. Live-attenuated
    weakened
  69. vaccines must me specific requirements
    produced protective immunity, produce strong and measurable, stable during shelf
  70. Dendritic cells can sense pathogens through
    pathogen recognition receptors (TLR)
  71. Biological warfare pathogen
    Smallpox, anthrax, plague, botulism, tularemia, Q fever, Brucellosis,
  72. The institute of medicine has ranked which virus vaccine most top priority
    CMV
  73. Which organism monitors influenza virus
    WHO
  74. Which HPV strain causes cervical cancer
    HPV-16
  75. Genetric mutation arise which are called
    antigenic drift
  76. FluLaval is a
    flu vaccine
  77. Small pox vaccine are made from live virus called
    vaccinia
  78. AIDS, CMV have a vaccine
    no
  79. hay-fever, HPV have vaccines yes or no?
    yes
  80. Center for biologics Evaluation and research CBER regulate
    vaccines
  81. Lancefield group A beta hemolysis
    S. pyogenes
  82. S.pyogenes causitive agent in
    Pharngitis, scarlet fever, skin infections, impetigo, necrotizing fascitis.
  83. S. pyogenes infections in children, adults
    otitis media, sinusitis.
  84. High grade streptococcal infection would be
    TSS-toxic shock syndrome
  85. S.pyogenes what type of bacteria
    gram positive cocci
  86. S.pyogenes to adhere to cell wall is
    fimbriae with lipoteichoic acid
  87. M protein which is found in the _____ inhibit ____
    fimbriae, phagocytosis and antibody synthesis
  88. The virulence factor is caused by
    M protein
  89. Most frequently used serologic indicator for streptococcal infections
    SLO (oxygen labile enzyme
  90. Streptolysin S is oxygen stable or lable enzyme and responsible for the alpha or beta hemolysis
    stable and beta
  91. S. pyogenes typically caused by __ but can be seen in
    respiratory droplets, food-borne/milk-borne
  92. Carriers have positive cultures but
    without serologic evidence of infection
  93. Major complication of S. pyogenes
    Rheumatic fever
  94. Epidemiology of S.pyogenes is
    normal flora in the respiratory tract, opportunistic pathogen, rheumatic fever.
  95. S. pyogenes (pharyngitis) is
    strep throat
  96. Most infected patient's S. pyogenes demonsrated increased concentrations of antibody to
    SLO
  97. S. pyogenes titers rise after about
    7 days after exposure, max after 4-6weeks but can be present for up to a year
  98. diagnostic evaluation of Streptococcal infections
    Throat cultures, rapid strep, ASO (antistreptolysin O, AntiDnas
  99. STSS can be caused by
    NSAIDS, tampons
  100. STSS is caused by
    exotoxins
  101. Treatment of STSS
    penicillin, beta-lactam antibiotics
  102. S. agalactiae is
    group B, found in blood
  103. Most reliable test for recent s.pyogenes skin infection
    anti-DNAse B
  104. The classic test that demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infections
    ASO and anti DNAse B
  105. Sphirochetes do not appear to survive in units of
    citrated blood at 4C more than 72 hours
  106. Spirochete lives in
    GI and genital tracts
  107. Spirochetes can be viewed using
    Darkfield microscopy
  108. primary syphilis
    painless, lesion (canchre) 1-5 weeks even without treatment) incubation period (last 3 weeks)
  109. secondary syphylis
    adenopathy (75%), skin lesions (80%), some both primary and secondary overlap 2-8 weeks
  110. resolution of secondary syphylis in
    2-6 weeks even without therapy
  111. late phase (teritary) seen how many years after primary
    3-10 years
  112. Hutchinsons teeth associated with
    congenital syphylis late stage >2 yrs
  113. Untreated syphylis late stage involves CNS in about
    8% of cases
  114. 2 classes of treponema antigens
    1. specific antibodies 2. nonspecific antibodies
  115. Specific antibodies
    antigens restricted to 1-2 species of spirochetes
  116. nonspecific antibodies
    antigens shared by many different spirochetes
  117. specific antitreponemal in early and untreated early latent are predominantly
    IgM
  118. Greatest concentration of IgG seen in
    secondary syphylis
  119. Non-treponemal antibodies are
    Reagin antibodies
  120. diagnosis non-treponemal screening
    RPR
  121. diagnosis treponemal
    FTA-ABS,MHA-TP
  122. presence of gummas
    late (tertiary)
  123. diagnostic blood test for syphilis is
    Wasserman
  124. Are pathogenic treponemes cultivable
    no
  125. primary incubation period for syphilis
    3 weeks
  126. syphilis initially treated with
    heavy metals

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