What happens to the B737-700 aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
Will be phased out by late 2011
What are the five easyJet values?
Where is the headquarter of easyJet based?
Luton, England (hangar 89)
In which hangar is easyJet's headquarter baseds?
Hangar 89 in Luton
When was easyJet founded?
1995 by Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
Who founded easyJet?
Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
Who is the current CEO of easyJet?
Who is the COO of easyJet?
Who is the CFO of easyJet?
On which stock exchange is easyJet listed?
The London Stock Exchange
What was the first international destination for easyJet?
Amsterdam in April 1996.
What were the first two destinations flown by easyJet?
Glasgow and Edinburgh from Luton.
What are the three largest easyJet bases?
London Gatwick, Milan Malpensa, London Luton
What is the difference between Ryanair and easyJet?
easyJet flies mainly to primary airports, while Ryanair flies to secondary airports.
What aircraft does easyJet have in its fleet?
A319-100, A320-200, B737-700 (will be phased out in 2011)
What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
Why do the easyJet A319 have two pairs of over-wing exits, instead of the standard one pair?
Because a typical A319 carries 140 seats, easyJet configured the aircraft with smaller galleys, which allows it to seat 156 seats.
When was the first flight of the A320?
22 February 1987
What are advantages of fly-by-wire?
Flight envelope protection, lower weight and cost, easier maintenance.
What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
Turbofan engines of CFM International (CFM56-5B)
How is easyJet different from other carriers/LCC's?
EasyJet flies mainly to primary airports, unlike competitors who fly to secondary airports.
What is easyJet's mission?
To provide our customers with safe, good value, point-to-point air services.
When did Carolyn McCall start as CEO of easyJet?
Announced March 24th 2010, she started July 1st 2010
What is easyJet's largest base?
What does EFIS mean?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
What does ECAM mean?
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
What does FADEC mean?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
What are the 2 different types of drag?
Parasite and induced drag
Explain parasite drag:
Parasite drag is independent of lift generation and is subdivided into: Skin friction drag, Form (pressure) drag and interference drag. Parasite drag varies directly IAS. Factors affecting parasite drag are: IAS, configuration and airframe contamination.
Explain induced drag:
Caused by creating lift, associated with wing tip vortices. Induced drag decreases as speed increases. The lower the IAS, the higher the AOA and therefore the stronger the vortices so greater induced drag. Factors that affect induced drag are; the size of the lift force, the speed of the aircraft.
Why do modern jet aircraft have such large all moving horizontal tailplanes (5)?
To provide a balancing force for large CG ranges (due to fuel consumption)
To provide a balancing force for a large speed range
To minimize the drag, since the aerofoil is more streamlined
To cope with large trim changes as a result of configuration changes
To reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum
Why are swept wings used?
To increase critical mach number speed (Mcrit). Higher mach cruise speed.
How does wing sweep increase Mcrit / speed?
The velocity along the chord line of the wing is less due to the sweep. This delays the airflow over the wing from going supersonic. Reducing profile drag also increases the ability for higher speeds.
How does a swept wing help C of G ranges?
Due to the shape of the swept wing, and the ability to transfer fuel from or into the wing tips, it is possible to move the CG through a bigger range.
What are advantages of swept back wings?
High Mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence due to poor lift qualities.
What are disadvantages of swept back wings?
Poor lift qualities
Higher stall speeds
Speed instability below Vmd
Wingtip stalling tendency
What are slats/ slots?
A slat is a auxiliary aerofoil attached to the leading edge of the wing (high lift device). When deployed, the slat forms a slot which allows the passage of air from the high pressure region below the wing to the low pressure region above.
Why use slats/ slots?
Additional kinetic energy is added to the airflow. It re-energizes the boundary layer and thereby delaying boundary layer separation to a much higher AOA.
What is Dutch Roll?
Dutch roll is an oscillatory instability associated with swept wing jets. A combination of yawing & rolling.
What causes Dutch Roll?
When a yaw is induced the strong dihedral effect will role the aircraft due to the lift increase on the wing into wind. The increased induced drag on the rising wing will yaw the aircraft in the opposite direction, reversing the coupled oscillation.
What is the function of a yaw damper?
To counter Dutch Roll.
How does a yaw damper work?
It’s a gyro system that is sensitive to yaw and feeds a signal into the rudder, which applies opposite rudder to the yaw before the roll occurs.
What is Vmca?
Vmca is the minimum control speed, at which, directional control can be maintained in the air with the critical engine inoperative.
What is Vmcg?
Vmcg is the minimum control speed for the take off run at which it is possible to maintain directional control with the rudder on the ground, in the event the critical engine fails.
How can Vmca/Vmcg change?
An aft C/G position requires a higher VMCG/A. With an aft CG the rudder moment arm will be shorter, and therefore the turning moment is less for a given airspeed. So using a different CG position you can change the minimum control speed.
What is Mcrit?
Mcrit is the mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic (Mach 1).
Why is flying faster than Mcrit a problem?
- Increase in drag (because of airflow separation)
- Initial Mach buffer (caused by the shock waves on the upper surface of the wing)
- A nose down change in attitude + possible loss of control(mach tuck)
What is Mach Tuck?
Nose down pitching moment as an AC passes its critical mach number. The instability is created by the rearward movement of the CP, behind the CG, which induces the AC to pitch down
How is Mach Tuck prevented?
Mach tuck is prevented by a Mach trimmer. This is a device that corrects for Mach tuck by sensing the aircraft's speed and signalling a proportional upward movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabilizer to maintain the aircraft's pitch attitude.
What is a vortex generator?
A vortex generator is a small aerofoil which creates a vortex at its tip. This induces high energy air from the free stream flow to mix with the boundary layer.
Why are vortex generators used?
They are used to prevent spanwise airflow and to maximize effectiveness of control surfaces (such as ailerons)
Why would you have a vortex generator in front of the APU inlet?
To improve high altitude starting of the APU by redirecting and re-energizing the airflow into the APU inlet.
What are the aerodynamic consequences of having under-wing mounted engines?
Increase in thrust will give a pitch up moment because the thrust line is located under the dragline
Intake efficiency is high: no turbulent air from the wings
Good accessibility for maintenance
Less complexity in fuel lines, air conditioning, anti ice and electrics
Close to CG: less effect on stability of the aircraft
Limited bypass size due to ground clearance
Sensitive to foreign object damage, because they are close to the ground
The weight on the wings helps to reduce the flutter and relieve wing bending
How does it affect the airflow over the wing?
At high angles of attack the airflow over the wings could be disturbed by the engines.
What differences do we have when mounting engines under the wing instead of at the aft fuselage?
Thrust line closer to the longitudinal axis gives less yawing moment in case of asymmetric thrust (aft engines)
Aft mounted engines will provide a complete clean wing design
Ground clearance of aft mounted engines is greater, makes it less sensitive to FOD
Intake air can be affected by turbulence from the wing with aft mounted engines
The fuel line design is more complex at the aft mounted engines
What happens if you move the throttle forward?
Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
Difference between flap 30 and flap 40 landing?
Flaps 30: less drag, higher speed, longer roll out.
Flaps 40: more drag, lower speed, shorter runway possible.
Explain reduced take-off thrust and how it influences the take-off?
Take off thrust setting required for the aircraft’s actual take off weight. It is a value that meets the aircraft’s take off and climb performance with one engine inoperative. (based on a assumed/flexible temperature)
It is used to protect engine life and reduce noise generated by the AC.
The take off run will be longer and the climb gradient will be shallower.
What happens to the ground roll when you take off with more flaps?
The ground roll will be shorter due to the higher CL, the climb gradient will be shallower due to increased drag.
Explain coffin corner.
It is the absolute ceiling of an aircraft. It is at the speed where mach buffer and pre-stall buffer coincide. For a constant mach number the IAS increases with increasing altitude due to a decreasing LSS.
What saves more fuel on landing: High or low flap setting?
A low flap setting because of the lower drag. But it does require a longer runway because of the higher approach speed.
The effect of wind on your descent
Tailwind: late TOD point
Headwind: early TOD point
Engine fire drill and who do you inform?
Air traffic control
What is the effect of weight on your descent?
The aircraft is restricted to a maximum airspeed in the descent. The heavier the aircraft, the shallower the descent. Heavier aircraft have a bigger momentum and this weight driven momentum will produce a greater speed in a vertical dive.
Why would we have bleed valves on the engine?
To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, ex. air conditioning, cabin/cargo heating, engine cooling, accessory cooling, engine and wing anti-ice systems.
To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
What are the uses of bleed air?
When does a cross bleed air start happen?
When the APU is unserviceable.
How do you know what the aircraft is going to do?
Flight Mode Annunciation
Explain how bleed air is used in the water system in the toilets of a modern jet?
While airborne, the aircraft uses bleed air to pressurize the water system. Differential pressure forces waste from the toilet bowls into the waste storage tank, and discharges waste water towards anti-iced drain masts.
What type of engine does easyJet have on the A320? Do all the aircraft have the same engines?
Do our aircraft have anti-icing equipment on the tail?
No, only on the outboard areas of the wings, engine air intakes, cockpit windows, pitot probes, static ports and waste water drains. Not on the tail because ice on the tail wouldn’t affect the aerodynamic performance of the aircraft.
Do you know the time and distance separation minima?
Heavy Heavy 4 -
Heavy Medium 5 2
Heavy Light 6 3
Medium Heavy 3 -
Medium Medium 3 -
Medium Light 5 3
Relating to wake turbulence what is the separation distance required for a medium jet approaching/landing after another medium jet?
What is RVSM?
Reduced vertical separation minima.
The reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying at levels between FL290 and F410 from 2,000ft to 1,000ft.
If you don't have enough track miles, how do you solve that problem?
Request delaying track miles, request the amount of track miles needed, use speed brake in the descent.
Name 3 ways to brake the aircraft in a rejected take-off.
Wheel disc brakes
What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
1. Developing stage; Updrafts move air aloft, allowing condensation to take place throughout the ascent of the convective currents (Updrafts)
2. Mature stage; The most hazardous stage of a thunderstorm. The dangers include; torrential rain, hail, severe turbulence, severe icing, windshear, microbursts, lightning. Downdrafts and updrafts.
3. Dissipating stage; The final stage of a TS. Still windshear danger.
How can you tell a thunderstorm is in its dissipating stage?
Dominated by downdrafts, which carry cool air to the ground (downburst)
Sporadic showers (inflow air is prohibited by the downburst)
Potential virga & windshear (outflow from downburst)
What is the Dew Point?
Dew point is the temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated. It's capacity to hold water vapor is equal to that which it is actually holding. it's relative humidity is 100%.
Obviously fuel is a huge cost to an airline, how would you help use less fuel
1. Take only the fuel needed
2. Fly as much as possible at the optimum altitude
3. Request for shortcuts/ shorter routing
4. Careful planning
5. Not too early / not too late start configuration (flaps, gear etc..)
6. Minimize the use of APU
What is virga?
Virga is rain that falls from the base of a cloud and evaporates at a lower altitude in drier warmer air before it reaches the ground. This is a sign of a temperature inversion, which in turn is an indication of possible windshear.
What is a microburst?
Microburst: localized column of sinking air, producing divergent and straight line winds at the surface, causing low level windshear
What is the pressure in the hydraulic system?
Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
1. To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems
2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
From TAF/METAR, -BR, GR and FU
-BR = Light mist
GR = Hail
FU = Fumes
How many engines does the PA-34 200T have?
What type of engine does the PA-34 have?
Six cylinder, Direct driven, Horizontally opposed, Fuel injected, air cooled, turbo charged
Who is the manufacturer of the engine used on the PA-34?
What is the engine model number of the engines used on the PA-34?
TSIO-360E (EB)/ LTSIO-360E (EB)
How many rated horse power are the engines on the PA-34?
At sea level 200 HP, above 12000 ft 215 HP
What is the compression ratio of the engines on the PA-34?
What kind of propellers on the PA-34?
Hartzell or McCauley
How many blades does the Hartzell propeller have?
How many blades does the McCauley propeller have?
What type of propellers does the PA-34 have?
Constant speed, Hydraulically actuated, Full feathering
What is the fuel capacity on the PA-34
98 U.S. Gal
What is the useable fuel on the PA-34?
93 U.S. Gal
What is the oil capacity on the PA-34?
8 U.S. Quarts
What is the minimum oil quantity for flight on the PA-34?
What is the maximum take-off weight for the PA-34?
What is the maximum landing weight?
What is Vne on the PA-34?
What is Vno on the PA-34?
What is Vfe on the PA-34?
What is Vmc on the PA-34?
What is Vle on the PA-34?
What is the green arc speed on the PA-34?
63 - 163
What is the yellow arc speed on the PA-34?
163 - 195
What is the white arc speed on the PA-34?
61 - 107
What is the blue line speed on the PA-34? (best rate of climb single engine)
Is flight into icing conditions allowed on the PA-34?
Yes, when fitted with:
- Pneumatic Wing and empenage boots
- Electro-thermal propellor boots
- Electric windshield panel
- heated pitot head
- Wing ice ligt
- Heated lift detectors
- Propellor spinners must be installed
Up to what altitude is flight with the Pa-34 approved
Up to 25000 ft when equipped with supplemental oxygen
What material is used to construct the airframe of the PA-34?
What kind of design is used on the fuselage of the PA-34?
What kind of wing design has the PA-34?
conventional wing design
How are the flaps operated on the PA-34?
Mechanically by a handle located between the two front seats
In what direction does the propeller of the left engine rotate?
In what direction does the propeller of the right engine rotate?
Tell something about the engines on the PA-34?
The engines are air-cooled, fuel injected and are equipped with oil coolers, a low temperature by pass system and engine mounted oil filters.
What kind of trim tab does the PA-34 have on the stabilator?
anti servo trim tab.
Why does the stabilator have an anti servo trim tab on the PA-34?
To improve longitudinal stability and provide longitudinal trim.
In which direction, compared to the stabilator does the trim tab on the PA-34 move?
In the same direction as the stabilator, but with increased level.
How is rudder effectiveness increased on the PA-34?
By an anti servo tab on the rudder.
How is asymmetric thrust during take off and the climb eliminated on the PA-34?
By counter rotating engines.
What type of fuel injection system does the PA-34 have?
What is the critical engine on the PA-34?
There is none, due to the counter rotating propellers.
What kind of landing gear has the PA-34?
A hydraulically operated, fully retractable tricycle landing gear.
What kind of brakes does the PA-34 have?
2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies.
What kind of ailerons are fitted to the PA-34?
Ailerons of the ' frise' type
How are the flaps on the PA-34 operated?
Which flap positions does the PA-34 have?
10 degrees, 25 degrees, 40 degrees.
What kind of alternators does the PA-34 have?
Two 65 Amp alternators (one on each engine)
What kind of battery does the PA-34 have?
A 35 ampere, 12 Volt battery
What are the uses of bleed air?
To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
What Anti Icing does the Airbus have?
Hot air & electrical
Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the A320 have?
Leading edge outboard slats heating by hot air
Engine air intakes heated by hot air
Flight compartment windows by electrical heating
Sensors, pitot probes and static ports by electrical heating
Waste water drain mast by electrical heating
The take-off distance available is:
the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
Pressure altitude is:
The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
How do you calculate pressure altitude?
1mb: 30 feet
Calculate difference between regional QNH and 1013mb
Convert pressure difference into height
Add or subtract from pressure altitude whether
Remember: when pressure is higher than standard, pressure altitude is lower than field elevation.
- Parasite drag varies directly with the square of the IAS
- Airframe contamination
Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft's mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
The commander / captain
At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
25 hours op operation
When are life jackets required to be carried on board an aeroplane?
Flights more than 50 NM from land
Where is the MEL found?
In the Operations manual
What is supplemental oxygen used for?
Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurization.
Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-in-command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
When are all flight crew-members required to be at their stations?
Take off and landing
When must a radiator indicator be carried?
For flights above 49000 ft
What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
Destination alternate for a turbojet what is the required fuel overhead?
30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
When are life rafts required to be carried?
Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
While at their station
How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
The Air Operator's Certificate (AOC).
How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
Who approves the MEL?
The Authority of the State of the Operator.
Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
On what is the JAR OPS document based?
ICAO Annex 6
What is the purpose of an operations manual?
For the guidance of operations personnel.
Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
What is VAT?
VSO x 1.3.
According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
When is DH used?
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
One life raft for every 100 persons
What is the weakest part of a jet engine?
How is the cycle of a jet engine called?
The Brayton cycle
In which section is power generated by a jet engine?
In the turbine section
What is a pure jet?
All the airflow is going through the combustion chamber
What generates the noise coming from jet engines?
The airflow exhausted and difference the difference between exhaust temperature and ambient temperature.
What is the by pass ratio?
the ratio of the amount of air which is by passed around the hot core of the engine, to the amount of air which passes through the hot core.
Where occurs the highest pressure in a gas turbine engine?
Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.
What controls the fan speed in a turbo fan engine?
What is the advantage of modular construction?
It enables malfunctioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.
The by pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place....?
What is the pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor?
The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
A stage of an axial flow compressor consists of what?
One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
How are the ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor called?
the inlet guide vanes
What is the action to be taken in the event of an engine surge?
Slowly close the throttle
Shrouding of the stator blade tips is designed to do minimize what?
What does OCA mean?
Obstacle clearance altitude
What does OCH mean?
Obstacle Clearance Height
What is the maneuvering area?
The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
What is the movement area?
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the maneuvering area and the aprons.
When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
1919 in Paris
When was the Chicago convention?
What is sovereignty?
The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
What does Annex 1 deal with?
What does Annex 2 deal with?
Rules of the air
What does Annex 3 deal with?
Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
What does Annex 4 deal with?
What does Annex 5 deal with?
Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
What does Annex 6 deal with?
Operation of Aircraft
What does Annex 7 deal with?
Aircraft nationality and registration marks
What does Annex 8 deal with?
Airworthiness of aircraft
What does Annex 9 deal with?
What does Annex 10 deal with?
What does Annex 11 deal with?
Air traffic services
What does Annex 12 deal with?
Search and Rescue
What does Annex 13 deal with?
Aircraft Accident Investigations
What does Annex 14 deal with?
What does Annex 15 deal with?
Aeronautical Information Services
What does Annex 16 deal with?
What does Annex 17 deal with?
Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
What does Annex 18 deal with?
The safe transport of dangerous goods
What does cabotage refer to?
Domestic air services within a state
Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
By the state of registration
For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity program be established?
For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
Who is required to ensure that a structural integrity program is established for aircraft?
The state of design
Where are registration marking required on the aircraft?
On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
At least 50cm high
What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
At least 30cm high
What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
What is the definition of the commander?
A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may delegate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
What is the definition of the co-pilot?
A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
Between what ages may you exercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
Between 21 and 60
What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a license holder inform the authority's?
More than 12
When must a license holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
Surgical operation or invasive procedure
The regular use of medication
The need for regular use of correcting lenses
How many pilot proficiency checks are required when flights are conducted in IFR?
two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
What is the transponder code for an emergency?
What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
What is the definition of low visibility operations?
Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
On what is the MOC generally based?
On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
90m (295 ft)
What is a straight departure?
A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
Departure end of runway
What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
Obstacle Identification Surface
What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
- The arrival segment
- The initial segment
- The intermediate segment
- The final segment
- The missed approach procedure
What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
300m reducing to 150m
What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
Where a climb is established
Who determines OCA/H?
The authority of the state
What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
At the IAF
What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
Reducing from 300m to zero.
A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
The use of radar.
By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
A minimum of 30 degrees
How often is an ATIS updated?
When there is a significant change in information
The ATIS message should not exceed...?
What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
Light, medium, heavy
By what are aircraft categorized to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
Within 15 degrees
What covers the convention of Rome?
damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
The convention of Rome
Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.
What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
The aircrafts magnetic heading
To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
The Warsaw convention
What covers the Warsaw convention?
The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
What does AIRAC mean?
Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
What is AIRAC?
An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45 degrees.
When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
With ATC permission.
Describe runway end lighting.
- Red in the direction of the runway
How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
The technical freedoms
How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
The Commercial freedoms
Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
What are the aircraft categories based on?
Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
- Missed approach
What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
75 m with FAF and 90m without
What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
What are the wake tubulence categories?
Heavy 136000 KG and more
Medium >7000 KG - 135999
Light < 7000 KG
When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
At all times, except during Radar vectoring
When are NOTAMS issued?
1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
2. permanent and operationally significant nature
3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
When is a runway reported damp?
When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
When is a runway reported wet?
The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
When is a runway reported water patches?
significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
When is a runway reported flooded?
extensive standing water.
Endurance & range of the PA34?
Endurance 5 hrs, range 800nm
What is SFC?
Specific Fuel Consumption is the quantity/weight (lb) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds.
What are the main engine instruments?
EPR (engine pressure ratio gage), N1, EGT, N2, Fuel Flow
What are indications of a wet start?
EGT not rising
RPMs stabilize at starter maximum
What are the required actions for a wet start?
Close the fuel supply lever as soon as wet start is diagnosed
Motor the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 seconds).
What is an engine hung start?
When the engine ignites but does not reach its self sustaining RPM's.
What is the cause of an hung start?
Insufficient airflow to support combustion due to the compressor not supplying enough air because of;
1. High altitude, low density air
2. Hot conditions, low density air
3. Inefficient compression
4. Low starter RPM's
What are the indications of a hung start?
1. High EGT
2. RPM's below normal self sustaining speed
What are the actions required with a hung start?
1 Close fuel lever
2. Motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 secs.)
What is an hot start?
The engine ignites and reaches self sustaining rpms, but the combustion is unstable amd the exhaust gat temperature (EGT) rises rapidly past its maximum limit.
What are the causes for an hot start?
1. Overfuelling (throttle open)
2. Air intake/ exhaust blocked
3. Tailwind, causing the compressor to run backwards
4. Seized engine (ice blockage)
What are the actions required with an hot start?
1. Close the fuel lever/ stop fuel delivery before the EGT limit has been reached
2. When the engine rpm's have slowed to the reengagement speed, motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (approx 60 secs.)
Why do you use derated thrust takeoffs in jet aircraft?
1. To protect engine life and to improve reliability
2. To reduce noise generated by the aircraft
What is a jet engine surge?
It is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air in the combustion chamber is expelled forward through the compressors, with a loud bang and resulting loss of engine thrust.
How is an engine surge caused?
1. All the compressor stages have stalled
2. An excessive fuel flow creates a high pressure in the rear of the engine.
What are the indications of an engine surge?
1. Total loss of thrust
2. A large increase in TGT
What are the required actions in the event of an engine surge?
1. Close the throttles smoothly and slowly
2. Adjust the aircrafts attitude to unstall the engines (which lead to the surge)
3. Slowly and smoothly reopen the throttles.
What does FADEC mean?
Full authority Digital Engine Control
What is FADEC?
A system that automatically controls engine functions, i.e., start procedures, engine monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system and power levels required.
How do jet engines generate noise?
The noise is from the sheer effect of different displaced air velocities. The sheer is the difference between the jet's faster displaced air and the slower ambient air around it.
How can an engine's noise be controlled or reduced?
1. Bypass engines
2. Reduced thrust take offs
What are the pressure flight instruments?
1. ASI/ Mach meter
How do pressure instruments work?
They sense the atmospheric pressure by using the pitot-static system. The pitot tube measures total pressure (static & dynamic). A Static port measures static pressure. The dynamic pressure is calculated by subtracting the static pressure from the total pressure.
What are the altimeter instrument errors?
1. Instrument error
2. Pressure error (position error)
3. Time lag error
4. Barometric error
5. Temperature/ density error
6. blocked static port
What do you know about a servo assisted altimeter?
It increases the accuracy of a simple pressure altimeter because its design no longer relies on a direct mechanical linkage between its capsule and the altitude pointer on the instruments. It uses an electrically conducted E&I bar.
What is the advantage of a servo-assisted altimeter?
It removes instrument error and time leg error.
What are the gyro flight instruments?>
1. Directional Indicator
2. Artificial horizon
3. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator
What does EFIS stand for?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
What is EFIS?
A fully integrated computer based digital navigation system that uses color cathode-ray tube (CRT) types of electronic attitude directional indicator (EADI) and horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
How many people live within one hour driving of one of easyjet's airports?
Of the passenger numbers, how many people were business travelers?
How many airports does easyJet fly to?
In how many countries does easyjet fly?
What is easyjet's vision and how are they going to achieve that?
To turn Europe orange by:
No compromises on safety
Offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports, on convenient times of the day
Smart cost management
How does a Jet engine work?
By forcing incoming air into a tube, where the air is compressed, mixed with fuel, burned and exhausted at high speed to generate thrust. OR
Thrust = air mass x velocity
Suck: Air is sucked into the engine intake where it loses velocity and therefore increases its pressure energy as it passes through the divergent duct;
Squeeze: The air is compressed by the low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
Bang: The total energy is increases by the combustion of fuel (heat energy);
Blow: The expanding gasses accelerate over the turbines to the outlet convergent duct.
How are the turbine blades cooled
By 3 ways:
1. Convection cooling; by passing cooling air through passages internal to the blade
2. Film cooling; by pumping cool air out of the blade through small holes. The air creates a thin layer on the blade of cool air protecting it to the high temperatures.
3. Transpiration cooling; It creates a thin film of cooling air on the blade by leaking through a porous shell.
What is the difference between a turbofans and turbojet engine
At a turbofan engine not all the air moved by the fan goes into the combustion chamber. A portion of the air flows over the engine itself (bypass air).
What is the difference between a gas turbine and a jet engine?
A gas turbine engine has a turbine driven compressor that produces thrust at low speeds.
What do you know about turbines in a fan engine?
The turbines in a fan engine are driving the compressors and the fan. A turbine connected to a compressor is called a spool. Turbofan engines normally have 3 spools, the fan spool (N1), the intermediate pressure compressor (N2) and the high pressure compressor spool (N3)
How are the turbine blades cooled?
Thermal barrier coatings
Cooling air from the compressor
What are the possible advantages of a high bypass engine? (5:1 or 6:1)
In a high bypass jet engine the mass of air produces the majority of thrust. Thrust = mass x velocity. In a high bypass engine a large mass of air is driven backwards at a low velocity.
What could be the possible uses of filtering hot air from the engines?
The hot air can be used for the anti ice system and cabin heating system.
Why pressurise the hydraulic system?
To prevent cavitation, which causes wear of the metallic surfaces of the system.
What is an INS and how does it work?
Inertia navigation system: on board, self contained system, that provides continuous information about the aircraft’s position. The system measures the aircraft’s inertia movement from an initial position. The components are accelerometers, gyroscopes and a position computer.
How do you recognize an engine surge and what are the causes?
Reverse airflow in the engine, indications are a loud bang, vibration and temperature rising.
What is FADEC and does the A320 have FADEC?
FADEC = Full Authority Digital Engine Control. It is a system that automatically controls the engine functions (start procedures, monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system, power levels). By using the engine functions as efficient as possible the fuel efficiency and lifetime of the engine is increased. It also gives a reduction of crew workload.
The A320 has FADEC for thrust control.
How many hydraulic systems does an Airbus have?
3 hydraulic systems: blue, green and yellow. Each system has its own hydraulic reservoir. The system operating pressure is 3000 psi.
What are the functions of spoilers?
Assisting the ailerons for roll control
Air speed brakes to slow down the aircraft in the air
Ground lift dumpers, to transfer the full weight of the aircraft on the brakes on landing / rejected take off for optimal braking efficiency
Traffic collision avoidance system, provides traffic information and maneuver advice between aircraft if their flight paths are conflicting
TCAS uses the secondary surveillance radar transponders of aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities.
Direction finding aerials determine relative bearings, and distance is calculated by time delay between transmitted and received signals
Warnings are on initially and collision threat basis, advised actions are in vertical avoidance only.
What are the advantages of Fly-by-wire?
Fly by wire: The movement of flight controls are converted into electronic signals transmitted by wires, and flight control computers determine how to move the actuators at each control surface to provide the ordered response.
Lighter: mechanical control systems are heavy
Safety: stabilizes the aircraft automatically in changing aerodynamic conditions. The signal from the control column is checked by the computer, which calculates the movement of the control surface actuator.
High lift devices fitted to the airbus
Trailing edge flaps: single slotted
Leading edge slats: one inboard slat and four outboard slats
Name 5 conditions that have an impact on take-off conditions?
Aircraft weight: high weight = long take off roll
Flap setting: low flap setting = long take off roll = high climb gradient
Wind speed and direction: tail wind = long take off roll
Density altitude: high density altitude = low density = long take off roll
Humidity: high humidity = long take off roll
Temperature: high temperature = long take off roll
Runway condition = wet = long take off roll
How can you minimize the fuel burned on a trip? (Luton to Inverness)
Always adhere to the SOP’s
Fly at the optimum altitude where possible
Request direct routing (shortcuts)
Do not take too much fuel for the trip
To what approach category is an Airbus 320 certified and what ILS category is it capable to land off?
Approach category = C (Vat = 121-140kts) (speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at max certified landing mass). The A320 Vref is 134 KIAS at MLM 64.5 tonnes.
Depending on the qualifications of the crew the A320 is capable of landing from CATIIIB approaches. DH = less than 50ft, RVR at least 75m touchdown / midpoint
What options do you have when you have a gear failure?
Extend mechanically: isolate landing gear hydraulics, unlock gear doors and allows gravity to drop the gear into extended position.
Locking springs help to crank the main gear into locked condition, and aerodynamic forces assist in locking the of the nose gear.
How long does it take for an IRS to align in the A320
Up to 10 minutes
What sort of flaps does the Airbus have?
A319 & A320: single flap surfaces
A321: double slotted flap surfaces (compensate for additional weight)
What could you do to minimize the risk of icing?
Use anti-ice systems as needed
Avoid flying through CB’s
Check weather before flight
What engines does a Seneca have?
6 cylinder horizontally opposed
200 brake horse power
Wet sump oil system
Why would we circle to land, why not just fly straight in?
If the runway in use is not aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course of the instrument approach procedure, the approach requires visual maneuvering of the aircraft in the vicinity of the airport.
The runway in use lack instrument approach procedures or their approaches cannot be used (navigation aids out of service, traffic considerations)
Describe the four climb segments. (at a constant V2 speed)
To make obstacle calculations predictable the aircraft is presumed to be flown through several reconfiguration segments on take-off. Calculations are based on engine failure at V1.
First segment: end of TOD – Gear retraction finished (TOD ends at 35ft screen height – dry runway, or 15ft screen height – wet runway)
Second segment: end of first segment – to 400ft / 1000ft AGL (safe height)
Third segment: level flight, acceleration during which the flaps are retracted to flaps up speed climb speed
Fourth segment: end of third segment – to 1500ft with flaps up and max continuous thrust.
You are told to hold at a waypoint. How long or how far before the waypoint should you reduce to you holding speed.
You have to be at your holding speed, 3 minutes before reaching the holding fix.
What is the range of a VOR at 32000 ft?
Up to 100 nautical miles
Tell me about adiabatic lapse rates, what are they? What are the assumed values?
The rate of decreasing temperature with height
ELR: environmental lapse rate, the rate of decreasing temperature in the standard atmosphere (ISA): 1.98⁰C / 1000ft
SALR: saturated adiabatic lapse rate, the adiabatic change in temperature for saturated air as it rises. The parcel of air consists of 100% relative humidity and its temperature is reduced to the dew point temperature. 1.5⁰C / 1000ft.
DALR: dry adiabatic lapse rate, the rate of decreasing temperature in a dry or unsaturated parcel of air (less than 100% relative humidity). The temperature of this parcel is higher than its dew point. 3⁰C / 1000ft.
Moist air is pushed up a hill or mountain by the wind (windward side). The air will cool adiabatically and the water will condense and form rain. The dry air at the lee side of the mountain will heat adiabatically, resulting in a higher temperature than at the windward side of the mountain.
What would you do if you flew into unexpected weather?