Feedback Flashcards.txt

Card Set Information

Feedback Flashcards.txt
2011-11-23 07:42:48
myeasy feedback questions

hell yeah
Show Answers:

  1. What is the IATA Code for easyJet?
  2. What is the ICAO code for easyJet?
  3. What is the callsign for easyJet flights?
  4. What happens to the B737-700 aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
    Will be phased out by late 2011
  5. What are the five easyJet values?
    • 1. Safety
    • 2. Teamwork
    • 3. Pioneering
    • 4. Passionate
    • 5. Integrity
  6. Where is the headquarter of easyJet based?
    Luton, England (hangar 89)
  7. In which hangar is easyJet's headquarter baseds?
    Hangar 89 in Luton
  8. When was easyJet founded?
    1995 by Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
  9. Who founded easyJet?
    Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
  10. Who is the current CEO of easyJet?
    Carolyn McCall
  11. Who is the COO of easyJet?
    Warwick Brady
  12. Who is the CFO of easyJet?
    Jeff Carr
  13. On which stock exchange is easyJet listed?
    The London Stock Exchange
  14. What was the first international destination for easyJet?
    Amsterdam in April 1996.
  15. What were the first two destinations flown by easyJet?
    Glasgow and Edinburgh from Luton.
  16. What are the three largest easyJet bases?
    London Gatwick, Milan Malpensa, London Luton
  17. What is the difference between Ryanair and easyJet?
    easyJet flies mainly to primary airports, while Ryanair flies to secondary airports.
  18. What aircraft does easyJet have in its fleet?
    A319-100, A320-200, B737-700 (will be phased out in 2011)
  19. What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
    CFM56-5B engines
  20. Why do the easyJet A319 have two pairs of over-wing exits, instead of the standard one pair?
    Because a typical A319 carries 140 seats, easyJet configured the aircraft with smaller galleys, which allows it to seat 156 seats.
  21. When was the first flight of the A320?
    22 February 1987
  22. What are advantages of fly-by-wire?
    Flight envelope protection, lower weight and cost, easier maintenance.
  23. What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
    Turbofan engines of CFM International (CFM56-5B)
  24. How is easyJet different from other carriers/LCC's?
    EasyJet flies mainly to primary airports, unlike competitors who fly to secondary airports.
  25. What is easyJet's mission?
    To provide our customers with safe, good value, point-to-point air services.
  26. When did Carolyn McCall start as CEO of easyJet?
    Announced March 24th 2010, she started July 1st 2010
  27. What is easyJet's largest base?
    London Gatwick
  28. What does EFIS mean?
    Electronic Flight Instrument System
  29. What does ECAM mean?
    Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
  30. What does FADEC mean?
    Full Authority Digital Engine Control
  31. What are the 2 different types of drag?
    Parasite and induced drag
  32. Explain parasite drag:
    Parasite drag is independent of lift generation and is subdivided into: Skin friction drag, Form (pressure) drag and interference drag. Parasite drag varies directly IAS. Factors affecting parasite drag are: IAS, configuration and airframe contamination.
  33. Explain induced drag:
    Caused by creating lift, associated with wing tip vortices. Induced drag decreases as speed increases. The lower the IAS, the higher the AOA and therefore the stronger the vortices so greater induced drag. Factors that affect induced drag are; the size of the lift force, the speed of the aircraft.
  34. Why do modern jet aircraft have such large all moving horizontal tailplanes (5)?
    • To provide a balancing force for large CG ranges (due to fuel consumption)
    • To provide a balancing force for a large speed range
    • To minimize the drag, since the aerofoil is more streamlined
    • To cope with large trim changes as a result of configuration changes
    • To reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum
  35. Why are swept wings used?
    To increase critical mach number speed (Mcrit). Higher mach cruise speed.
  36. How does wing sweep increase Mcrit / speed?
    The velocity along the chord line of the wing is less due to the sweep. This delays the airflow over the wing from going supersonic. Reducing profile drag also increases the ability for higher speeds.
  37. How does a swept wing help C of G ranges?
    Due to the shape of the swept wing, and the ability to transfer fuel from or into the wing tips, it is possible to move the CG through a bigger range.
  38. What are advantages of swept back wings?
    High Mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence due to poor lift qualities.
  39. What are disadvantages of swept back wings?
    • Poor lift qualities
    • Higher stall speeds
    • Speed instability below Vmd
    • Wingtip stalling tendency
  40. What are slats/ slots?
    A slat is a auxiliary aerofoil attached to the leading edge of the wing (high lift device). When deployed, the slat forms a slot which allows the passage of air from the high pressure region below the wing to the low pressure region above.
  41. Why use slats/ slots?
    Additional kinetic energy is added to the airflow. It re-energizes the boundary layer and thereby delaying boundary layer separation to a much higher AOA.
  42. What is Dutch Roll?
    Dutch roll is an oscillatory instability associated with swept wing jets. A combination of yawing & rolling.
  43. What causes Dutch Roll?
    When a yaw is induced the strong dihedral effect will role the aircraft due to the lift increase on the wing into wind. The increased induced drag on the rising wing will yaw the aircraft in the opposite direction, reversing the coupled oscillation.
  44. What is the function of a yaw damper?
    To counter Dutch Roll.
  45. How does a yaw damper work?
    It’s a gyro system that is sensitive to yaw and feeds a signal into the rudder, which applies opposite rudder to the yaw before the roll occurs.
  46. What is Vmca?
    Vmca is the minimum control speed, at which, directional control can be maintained in the air with the critical engine inoperative.
  47. What is Vmcg?
    Vmcg is the minimum control speed for the take off run at which it is possible to maintain directional control with the rudder on the ground, in the event the critical engine fails.
  48. How can Vmca/Vmcg change?
    An aft C/G position requires a higher VMCG/A. With an aft CG the rudder moment arm will be shorter, and therefore the turning moment is less for a given airspeed. So using a different CG position you can change the minimum control speed.
  49. What is Mcrit?
    Mcrit is the mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic (Mach 1).
  50. Why is flying faster than Mcrit a problem?
    • - Increase in drag (because of airflow separation)
    • - Initial Mach buffer (caused by the shock waves on the upper surface of the wing)
    • - A nose down change in attitude + possible loss of control(mach tuck)
  51. What is Mach Tuck?
    Nose down pitching moment as an AC passes its critical mach number. The instability is created by the rearward movement of the CP, behind the CG, which induces the AC to pitch down
  52. How is Mach Tuck prevented?
    Mach tuck is prevented by a Mach trimmer. This is a device that corrects for Mach tuck by sensing the aircraft's speed and signalling a proportional upward movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabilizer to maintain the aircraft's pitch attitude.
  53. What is a vortex generator?
    A vortex generator is a small aerofoil which creates a vortex at its tip. This induces high energy air from the free stream flow to mix with the boundary layer.
  54. Why are vortex generators used?
    They are used to prevent spanwise airflow and to maximize effectiveness of control surfaces (such as ailerons)
  55. Why would you have a vortex generator in front of the APU inlet?
    To improve high altitude starting of the APU by redirecting and re-energizing the airflow into the APU inlet.
  56. What are the aerodynamic consequences of having under-wing mounted engines?
    • Increase in thrust will give a pitch up moment because the thrust line is located under the dragline
    • Intake efficiency is high: no turbulent air from the wings
    • Good accessibility for maintenance
    • Less complexity in fuel lines, air conditioning, anti ice and electrics
    • Close to CG: less effect on stability of the aircraft
    • Limited bypass size due to ground clearance
    • Sensitive to foreign object damage, because they are close to the ground
    • The weight on the wings helps to reduce the flutter and relieve wing bending
  57. How does it affect the airflow over the wing?
    At high angles of attack the airflow over the wings could be disturbed by the engines.
  58. What differences do we have when mounting engines under the wing instead of at the aft fuselage?
    • Thrust line closer to the longitudinal axis gives less yawing moment in case of asymmetric thrust (aft engines)
    • Aft mounted engines will provide a complete clean wing design
    • Ground clearance of aft mounted engines is greater, makes it less sensitive to FOD
    • Intake air can be affected by turbulence from the wing with aft mounted engines
    • The fuel line design is more complex at the aft mounted engines
  59. What happens if you move the throttle forward?
    Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
  60. Difference between flap 30 and flap 40 landing?
    • Flaps 30: less drag, higher speed, longer roll out.
    • Flaps 40: more drag, lower speed, shorter runway possible.
  61. Explain reduced take-off thrust and how it influences the take-off?
    • Take off thrust setting required for the aircraft’s actual take off weight. It is a value that meets the aircraft’s take off and climb performance with one engine inoperative. (based on a assumed/flexible temperature)
    • It is used to protect engine life and reduce noise generated by the AC.
    • The take off run will be longer and the climb gradient will be shallower.
  62. What happens to the ground roll when you take off with more flaps?
    The ground roll will be shorter due to the higher CL, the climb gradient will be shallower due to increased drag.
  63. Explain coffin corner.
    It is the absolute ceiling of an aircraft. It is at the speed where mach buffer and pre-stall buffer coincide. For a constant mach number the IAS increases with increasing altitude due to a decreasing LSS.
  64. What saves more fuel on landing: High or low flap setting?
    A low flap setting because of the lower drag. But it does require a longer runway because of the higher approach speed.
  65. The effect of wind on your descent
    • Tailwind: late TOD point
    • Headwind: early TOD point
  66. Engine fire drill and who do you inform?
    • Air traffic control
    • Cabin crew
  67. What is the effect of weight on your descent?
    The aircraft is restricted to a maximum airspeed in the descent. The heavier the aircraft, the shallower the descent. Heavier aircraft have a bigger momentum and this weight driven momentum will produce a greater speed in a vertical dive.
  68. Why would we have bleed valves on the engine?
    • To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, ex. air conditioning, cabin/cargo heating, engine cooling, accessory cooling, engine and wing anti-ice systems.
    • To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
  69. What are the uses of bleed air?
    • Air-conditioning
    • Wing anti-icing
    • Pressurization
    • Engine start
  70. When does a cross bleed air start happen?
    When the APU is unserviceable.
  71. How do you know what the aircraft is going to do?
    • Trend vectors
    • Flight Mode Annunciation
  72. Explain how bleed air is used in the water system in the toilets of a modern jet?
    While airborne, the aircraft uses bleed air to pressurize the water system. Differential pressure forces waste from the toilet bowls into the waste storage tank, and discharges waste water towards anti-iced drain masts.
  73. What type of engine does easyJet have on the A320? Do all the aircraft have the same engines?
    • CFM56-5B:
    • CFM56-5B Tech Insertion (lower emissions, fuel consumption improvement)
  74. What kind of engine does a Seneca have?
    A six cylinder, horizontally opposed, direct driven, Fuel injected, Air cooled, turbocharged, wet sump oil system, 200 Rated HP
  75. What is the difference between a 737/ A320
    • The A320 is fly by wire
    • A320 has a larger range (3300nm B737-8: 3115nm)
    • A320 has a higher Mmo
    • B737 had a lower gear, which means the engines are closer to the ground; suspectable of ingestion of FOD.
  76. What navigation equipment does the Seneca have?
  77. What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the Seneca have?
    • Anti icing: Windscreen defroster
    • Heated lift detectors
    • Heated pitot head
    • De icing: Pneumatic de-icing boots on the wing, tailplane, fin
    • Windscreen de-icing fluid spray
    • Electro thermal propeller pads
  78. What is the range and endurance and cruise speed of a Seneca?
    • Range: 500 miles
    • Endurance: 4 hours
    • Cruise speed: 140 knots
    • Stall speed: 66 kts clean, 60 kts landing configuration
  79. Squawk code hijack & loss of communications
    • hijack; 7500
    • comms failure; 7600
    • emergency; 7700
  80. Do our aircraft have anti-icing equipment on the tail?
    No, only on the outboard areas of the wings, engine air intakes, cockpit windows, pitot probes, static ports and waste water drains. Not on the tail because ice on the tail wouldn’t affect the aerodynamic performance of the aircraft.
  81. Do you know the time and distance separation minima?
    • Heavy Heavy 4 -
    • Heavy Medium 5 2
    • Heavy Light 6 3
    • Medium Heavy 3 -
    • Medium Medium 3 -
    • Medium Light 5 3
  82. Relating to wake turbulence what is the separation distance required for a medium jet approaching/landing after another medium jet?
    3 nm's
  83. What is RVSM?
    • Reduced vertical separation minima.
    • The reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying at levels between FL290 and F410 from 2,000ft to 1,000ft.
  84. If you don't have enough track miles, how do you solve that problem?
    Request delaying track miles, request the amount of track miles needed, use speed brake in the descent.
  85. Name 3 ways to brake the aircraft in a rejected take-off.
    • Wheel disc brakes
    • Reverse thrust
    • Speed brakes
  86. What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
    • 1. Developing stage; Updrafts move air aloft, allowing condensation to take place throughout the ascent of the convective currents (Updrafts)
    • 2. Mature stage; The most hazardous stage of a thunderstorm. The dangers include; torrential rain, hail, severe turbulence, severe icing, windshear, microbursts, lightning. Downdrafts and updrafts.
    • 3. Dissipating stage; The final stage of a TS. Still windshear danger.
  87. How can you tell a thunderstorm is in its dissipating stage?
    • Dominated by downdrafts, which carry cool air to the ground (downburst)
    • Sporadic showers (inflow air is prohibited by the downburst)
    • Potential virga & windshear (outflow from downburst)
  88. What is the Dew Point?
    Dew point is the temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated. It's capacity to hold water vapor is equal to that which it is actually holding. it's relative humidity is 100%.
  89. Obviously fuel is a huge cost to an airline, how would you help use less fuel
    • 1. Take only the fuel needed
    • 2. Fly as much as possible at the optimum altitude
    • 3. Request for shortcuts/ shorter routing
    • 4. Careful planning
    • 5. Not too early / not too late start configuration (flaps, gear etc..)
    • 6. Minimize the use of APU
  90. What is virga?
    Virga is rain that falls from the base of a cloud and evaporates at a lower altitude in drier warmer air before it reaches the ground. This is a sign of a temperature inversion, which in turn is an indication of possible windshear.
  91. What is a microburst?
    Microburst: localized column of sinking air, producing divergent and straight line winds at the surface, causing low level windshear
  92. What is the pressure in the hydraulic system?
    3000 PSI
  93. Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
    • 1. To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems
    • 2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
  94. From TAF/METAR, -BR, GR and FU
    • -BR = Light mist
    • GR = Hail
    • FU = Fumes
  95. How many engines does the PA-34 200T have?
  96. What type of engine does the PA-34 have?
    Six cylinder, Direct driven, Horizontally opposed, Fuel injected, air cooled, turbo charged
  97. Who is the manufacturer of the engine used on the PA-34?
  98. What is the engine model number of the engines used on the PA-34?
    TSIO-360E (EB)/ LTSIO-360E (EB)
  99. How many rated horse power are the engines on the PA-34?
    At sea level 200 HP, above 12000 ft 215 HP
  100. What is the compression ratio of the engines on the PA-34?
  101. What kind of propellers on the PA-34?
    Hartzell or McCauley
  102. How many blades does the Hartzell propeller have?
  103. How many blades does the McCauley propeller have?
  104. What type of propellers does the PA-34 have?
    Constant speed, Hydraulically actuated, Full feathering
  105. What is the fuel capacity on the PA-34
    98 U.S. Gal
  106. What is the useable fuel on the PA-34?
    93 U.S. Gal
  107. What is the oil capacity on the PA-34?
    8 U.S. Quarts
  108. What is the minimum oil quantity for flight on the PA-34?
    7 Quarts
  109. What is the maximum take-off weight for the PA-34?
    4570 Lbs.
  110. What is the maximum landing weight?
    4342 Lbs.
  111. What is Vne on the PA-34?
  112. What is Vno on the PA-34?
  113. What is Vfe on the PA-34?
  114. What is Vmc on the PA-34?
  115. What is Vle on the PA-34?
  116. What is the green arc speed on the PA-34?
    63 - 163
  117. What is the yellow arc speed on the PA-34?
    163 - 195
  118. What is the white arc speed on the PA-34?
    61 - 107
  119. What is the blue line speed on the PA-34? (best rate of climb single engine)
  120. Is flight into icing conditions allowed on the PA-34?
    • Yes, when fitted with:
    • - Pneumatic Wing and empenage boots
    • - Electro-thermal propellor boots
    • - Electric windshield panel
    • - heated pitot head
    • - Wing ice ligt
    • - Heated lift detectors
    • - Propellor spinners must be installed
  121. Up to what altitude is flight with the Pa-34 approved
    Up to 25000 ft when equipped with supplemental oxygen
  122. What material is used to construct the airframe of the PA-34?
    Alluminium Alloy
  123. What kind of design is used on the fuselage of the PA-34?
  124. What kind of wing design has the PA-34?
    conventional wing design
  125. How are the flaps operated on the PA-34?
    Mechanically by a handle located between the two front seats
  126. In what direction does the propeller of the left engine rotate?
  127. In what direction does the propeller of the right engine rotate?
    counter clockwise
  128. Tell something about the engines on the PA-34?
    The engines are air-cooled, fuel injected and are equipped with oil coolers, a low temperature by pass system and engine mounted oil filters.
  129. What kind of trim tab does the PA-34 have on the stabilator?
    anti servo trim tab.
  130. Why does the stabilator have an anti servo trim tab on the PA-34?
    To improve longitudinal stability and provide longitudinal trim.
  131. In which direction, compared to the stabilator does the trim tab on the PA-34 move?
    In the same direction as the stabilator, but with increased level.
  132. How is rudder effectiveness increased on the PA-34?
    By an anti servo tab on the rudder.
  133. How is asymmetric thrust during take off and the climb eliminated on the PA-34?
    By counter rotating engines.
  134. What type of fuel injection system does the PA-34 have?
    Continuous flow
  135. What is the critical engine on the PA-34?
    There is none, due to the counter rotating propellers.
  136. What kind of landing gear has the PA-34?
    A hydraulically operated, fully retractable tricycle landing gear.
  137. What kind of brakes does the PA-34 have?
    2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies.
  138. What kind of ailerons are fitted to the PA-34?
    Ailerons of the ' frise' type
  139. How are the flaps on the PA-34 operated?
  140. Which flap positions does the PA-34 have?
    10 degrees, 25 degrees, 40 degrees.
  141. What kind of alternators does the PA-34 have?
    Two 65 Amp alternators (one on each engine)
  142. What kind of battery does the PA-34 have?
    A 35 ampere, 12 Volt battery
  143. What are the uses of bleed air?
    To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
  144. What Anti Icing does the Airbus have?
    • Hot air & electrical
    • Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
  145. What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the A320 have?
    • Leading edge outboard slats heating by hot air
    • Engine air intakes heated by hot air
    • Flight compartment windows by electrical heating
    • Sensors, pitot probes and static ports by electrical heating
    • Waste water drain mast by electrical heating
  146. The take-off distance available is:
    the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
  147. Pressure altitude is:
    The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
  148. How do you calculate pressure altitude?
    • 1mb: 30 feet
    • Calculate difference between regional QNH and 1013mb
    • Convert pressure difference into height
    • Add or subtract from pressure altitude whether
    • Remember: when pressure is higher than standard, pressure altitude is lower than field elevation.
    • Example: Airport elevation 2340ft, QNH 1034mb. 1013-1034 = -21
    • -21 x 30 = -630. 2340 - 630 = 1710ft.
  149. What is Vr dependent of?
    Mass and flap setting
  150. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases up to the optimum setting (+/- 15 degrees)?
  151. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases beyond the optimum setting?
  152. What happens to the acceleration during the Take Off?
  153. Why does the acceleration reduces during the take off run?
    Because thrust reduces and drag increases.
  154. What happens to the take off distance if Mass increases?
  155. What happens to the take off distance if Temperature increases?
  156. What happens to the take off distance if Pressure altitude increases?
  157. What happens to the take off distance if Headwind increases?
  158. What happens to the take off distance if tailwind decreases
  159. What happens to the take off distance with an up sloping runway?
  160. What happens to the climb gradient with flaps?
  161. What is the absolute ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is zero
  162. What is the service ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is 500 ft for jet aircraft and 100 ft for propeller aircraft
  163. The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of....
    The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
  164. What is Vx?
    The speed for best angle of climb
  165. What is the maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling?
    0 ft/ min
  166. What is the Vx speed for jet aircraft?
  167. What is Vy?
    Speed for maximum rate of climb.
  168. What is the Vy speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  169. What happens to Vy as altitude increases?
  170. What happens to Vx as altitude increases?
    Remains constant
  171. What happens to Vx and Vy at the absolute ceiling?
    They are equal
  172. What is the maximum range speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  173. What happens to the drag and speed stability when the speed is reduced below Vmd?
    Drag increases and speed stability decreases.
  174. As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS, TAS and Mach number will....
    • IAS: remain constant
    • TAS: Increase
    • MACH: Increase
  175. What does Vs0 mean?
    The stall speed in the landing configuration
  176. What happens to the induced drag with increasing IAS
  177. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
    The lift
  178. Can a stop way be used in take off distance calculations?
  179. The stop way allows an increase in only which area?
    The accelerate-stop distance available
  180. What happens with slush on the runway to the take off distance required?
  181. What happens with too early and too late rotation during the take-off?
    It increases the ground run and decreases the climb ability.
  182. An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number. What happens with the IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Remains constant
  183. An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Decreases
  184. What happens to the pitch angle when descending at a constant Mach number?
    The pitch angle will decrease.
  185. What is the main reason for using the step climb technique?
    Increase range
  186. When does thrust = drag?
    Flying level at a constant IAS
  187. How is SFC affected by the CG position?
    SFC is not affected by CG position.
  188. Wat is the most important property in generating lift?
    Air density
  189. What are the four forces acting upon an aircraft in flight?
    Lift, weight, drag and thrust
  190. What happens to the OAT at the stratosphere?
    Remains constant
  191. What is the approximate height of the Stratosphere?
    36.000 ft
  192. What happens to density if static pressure decreases?
  193. What happens to density if temperature increases?
  194. What happens to density if humidity increases?
  195. The sum of what is Total pressure?
    Dynamic Pressure and Static Pressure
  196. Which factors affect Air density?
    Temperature, Static Pressure, Humidity
  197. Why does increasing altitude decrease the air density?
    Because the effect of decreasing static pressure is more dominant than decreasing temperature.
  198. What is the Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?
    The speed of the airflow over some part of the aircraft (usually the point of maximum thickness on the aerofoil) first reaches the speed of sound.
  199. The inputs to an air speed indicator are from?
    A pitot and static source.
  200. What is the principle of continuity?
    Enegery and Mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one form to another.
  201. What happens to the mass flow and velocity of the airflow if the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced?
    Mass flow remains constant, velocity increases.
  202. What will be insignificant at flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound (Mo.4)?
    Changes in density due to dynamic pressure.
  203. What is the definition of Chord Line?
    A straight line joining the centers of curvature of the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil.
  204. What is the chord?
    The distance between the leading and trailing edges measured along the chord line.
  205. What is the angle of incidence?
    The angle between the wing root chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (This angle is fixed for the wing, but may be variable for the tailplane)
  206. What is the Mean line or Camber line?
    A line joining the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil, equidistant fromt he upper and lower surfaces.
  207. What is the thickness to chord ratio?
    The maximum thickness or depth of an aerofoil section expressed as a percentage of the chord.
  208. What is the leading edge radius?
    The radius of curvature of the leading edge.
  209. What is the center of pressure (CP)?
    The point on the chord line, through which lift is considered to act.
  210. At what angle to the relative airflow does lift act?
    90 degrees.
  211. What is the angle of attack (AOA)?
    The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow.
  212. What is the effective angle of attack?
    The angle between the chord line and the effective airflow.
  213. What is Pressure Gradient?
    A change in air pressure over a distance.
  214. What is adverse pressure gradient?
    When air pressure is rising in the direction of airflow.
  215. What happens to the Center Of Pressure with increasing angle of attack?
    Moves forward.
  216. When is the Center Of Pressure at its most forward location?
    Just before the stall (Clmax)
  217. What will airflow pattern and eventually lift and drag depend upon?
    Angle of attack, Aerofoil shape (thickness & camber), air density, velocity.
  218. What is the definition of lift?
    The aerodynamic force which atcs at 90 degrees to the relative airflow.
  219. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift atcs is the...?
    Center of pressure.
  220. What is sweep angle?
    Measured as the angle between the line of 25% chords and perpendicular to the root chord.
  221. When does the generation of wake vortex begin?
    When the nosewheel lifts off the runway on take off.
  222. When does the generation of wake vortex stop?
    Untill the nosewheel touches down on the landing.
  223. On which characteristics are trailing vortices dependable on?
    • Weight - Heavier aircraft, stronger vortices
    • Wingspan - Has an influence upon the proximity of the two trailing votices
    • Airspeed - The lower the airspeed, the stronger the vortices
    • Configuration - Vortex strength is greatest with aircraft in a "clean" configuration (for a given speed and weight)
    • Attitude - The higher the angle of attack, the stronger the vortices
  224. What happens tot he lift and drag in ground effect?
    Lift will be increased and drag decreased.
  225. What comprises total drag?
    Parasite drag & Induced drag
  226. What comprises Parasite drag?
    Skin friction drag, form/ pressure drag & interference drag?
  227. How are skin friction drag and form drag also called?
    Profile drag
  228. In which direction does drag act?
    Parallel to and in the same direction as the relative airflow (in the opposite direction to the flight path).
  229. What is induced drag the result of?
    Lift generation
  230. What is the reason for form(pressure) drag?
    This is due to the high pressure at the leading edge and low pressure at the trailing edge.
  231. What are factors affecting Parasite drag?
    • - Indicated airspeed (increasing airspeed, increasing drag)
    • - Parasite drag varies directly with the square of the IAS
    • - Configuration
    • - Airframe contamination
  232. Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft's mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
    The commander / captain
  233. At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
    25 hours op operation
  234. When are life jackets required to be carried on board an aeroplane?
    Flights more than 50 NM from land
  235. Where is the MEL found?
    In the Operations manual
  236. What is supplemental oxygen used for?
    Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurization.
  237. Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
    Operation manual
  238. Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
    Operations manual
  239. Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
    The operator
  240. What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
    Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-in-command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
  241. When are all flight crew-members required to be at their stations?
    Take off and landing
  242. When must a radiator indicator be carried?
    For flights above 49000 ft
  243. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
    Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
  244. As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
    2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
  245. Destination alternate for a turbojet what is the required fuel overhead?
    30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
  246. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
    The PIC
  247. Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
    25.000 ft
  248. Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
    13.000 ft
  249. What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
    Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
  250. When are life rafts required to be carried?
    Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
  251. When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
    While at their station
  252. How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
    3 months
  253. If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
    No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
  254. Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
    The operator
  255. An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
    5700 Kg
  256. Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
    The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
  257. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
    The Air Operator's Certificate (AOC).
  258. How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
    60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
  259. Who approves the MEL?
    The Authority of the State of the Operator.
  260. Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
    Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
  261. To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
    Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
  262. After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
    60 days
  263. To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
    JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
  264. On what is the JAR OPS document based?
    ICAO Annex 6
  265. What is the purpose of an operations manual?
    For the guidance of operations personnel.
  266. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
    The operator
  267. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
    The operator
  268. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
    No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
  269. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
    Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
  270. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
    300 Ft.
  271. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
    No minimum
  272. According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
  273. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
    100 ft
  274. What is VAT?
    VSO x 1.3.
  275. According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
    200 m
  276. When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
    When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
  277. When is DH used?
    Precision approaches.
  278. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
  279. The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
    200 feet
  280. What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
  281. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
  282. What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
    One life raft for every 100 persons
  283. What is the weakest part of a jet engine?
    The turbine
  284. How is the cycle of a jet engine called?
    The Brayton cycle
  285. In which section is power generated by a jet engine?
    In the turbine section
  286. What is a pure jet?
    All the airflow is going through the combustion chamber
  287. What generates the noise coming from jet engines?
    The airflow exhausted and difference the difference between exhaust temperature and ambient temperature.
  288. What is the by pass ratio?
    the ratio of the amount of air which is by passed around the hot core of the engine, to the amount of air which passes through the hot core.
  289. Where occurs the highest pressure in a gas turbine engine?
    Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.
  290. What controls the fan speed in a turbo fan engine?
    The turbine.
  291. What is the advantage of modular construction?
    It enables malfunctioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.
  292. The by pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
    cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
  293. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place....?
  294. What is the pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor?
    The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
  295. A stage of an axial flow compressor consists of what?
    One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
  296. How are the ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor called?
    the inlet guide vanes
  297. What is the action to be taken in the event of an engine surge?
    Slowly close the throttle
  298. Shrouding of the stator blade tips is designed to do minimize what?
  299. What does OCA mean?
    Obstacle clearance altitude
  300. What does OCH mean?
    Obstacle Clearance Height
  301. What is the maneuvering area?
    The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
  302. What is the movement area?
    That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the maneuvering area and the aprons.
  303. When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
    1919 in Paris
  304. When was the Chicago convention?
  305. What is sovereignty?
    The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
  306. What does Annex 1 deal with?
    Personnel licensing
  307. What does Annex 2 deal with?
    Rules of the air
  308. What does Annex 3 deal with?
    Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
  309. What does Annex 4 deal with?
    Aeronautical charts
  310. What does Annex 5 deal with?
    Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
  311. What does Annex 6 deal with?
    Operation of Aircraft
  312. What does Annex 7 deal with?
    Aircraft nationality and registration marks
  313. What does Annex 8 deal with?
    Airworthiness of aircraft
  314. What does Annex 9 deal with?
  315. What does Annex 10 deal with?
    Aeronautical telecommunications
  316. What does Annex 11 deal with?
    Air traffic services
  317. What does Annex 12 deal with?
    Search and Rescue
  318. What does Annex 13 deal with?
    Aircraft Accident Investigations
  319. What does Annex 14 deal with?
  320. What does Annex 15 deal with?
    Aeronautical Information Services
  321. What does Annex 16 deal with?
    Environmental Protection
  322. What does Annex 17 deal with?
    Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
  323. What does Annex 18 deal with?
    The safe transport of dangerous goods
  324. What does cabotage refer to?
    Domestic air services within a state
  325. Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
    2nd freedom
  326. By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
    By the state of registration
  327. For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity program be established?
    For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
  328. Who is required to ensure that a structural integrity program is established for aircraft?
    The state of design
  329. Where are registration marking required on the aircraft?
    On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
  330. What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
    At least 50cm high
  331. What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
    At least 30cm high
  332. What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
    The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
  333. What is the definition of the commander?
    A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may delegate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
  334. What is the definition of the co-pilot?
    A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
  335. Between what ages may you exercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
    Between 21 and 60
  336. What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
  337. What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
  338. After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a license holder inform the authority's?
    More than 12
  339. When must a license holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
    • Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
    • Surgical operation or invasive procedure
    • The regular use of medication
    • The need for regular use of correcting lenses
  340. How many pilot proficiency checks are required when flights are conducted in IFR?
    two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
  341. How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
    6 months
  342. What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
    0.2. promille
  343. What is the transponder code for an emergency?
  344. What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
  345. What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
  346. What is the definition of low visibility operations?
    Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
  347. On what is the MOC generally based?
    On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
  348. How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
    0 feet
  349. What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
    90m (295 ft)
  350. What is a straight departure?
    A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
  351. Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
  352. Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
  353. What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
    Departure end of runway
  354. What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
    Obstacle Identification Surface
  355. What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
  356. What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
    • - The arrival segment
    • - The initial segment
    • - The intermediate segment
    • - The final segment
    • - The missed approach procedure
  357. What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
    300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
  358. What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
    300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
  359. Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
    At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
  360. What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
  361. What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
    300m reducing to 150m
  362. What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
  363. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
  364. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
  365. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
  366. Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
    30 degrees
  367. At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
    When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
  368. Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
  369. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
    Where a climb is established
  370. Who determines OCA/H?
    The authority of the state
  371. What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
    3 degrees
  372. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
  373. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
    At the IAF
  374. What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
    Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
  375. What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  376. What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
  377. What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
  378. What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
  379. How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
  380. What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
    Reducing from 300m to zero.
  381. A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
  382. What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
    The use of radar.
  383. By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
    A minimum of 30 degrees
  384. How often is an ATIS updated?
    When there is a significant change in information
  385. The ATIS message should not exceed...?
    30 seconds
  386. What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
    Light, medium, heavy
  387. By what are aircraft categorized to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
    By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
  388. Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
    • convention.
    • ICAO
  389. For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
    Within 15 degrees
  390. What covers the convention of Rome?
    damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
  391. Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
    The convention of Rome
  392. Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the airport.
  393. What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
    24 hours
  394. What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    10 NM
  395. What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    5 NM
  396. What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
    300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
  397. What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
    150 m
  398. The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
    The aircrafts magnetic heading
  399. To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
    Pressure altimeter
  400. To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
    Radio altimeter
  401. What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
    0 Ft.
  402. Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
    The Warsaw convention
  403. What covers the Warsaw convention?
    The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
  404. What does AIRAC mean?
    Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
  405. What is AIRAC?
    An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
  406. When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
    If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45 degrees.
  407. When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
    With ATC permission.
  408. Describe runway end lighting.
    • - Fixed
    • - Unidirectional
    • - Red in the direction of the runway
  409. How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
    The technical freedoms
  410. How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
    The Commercial freedoms
  411. Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  412. What are the aircraft categories based on?
    Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
  413. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
    • - Arrival
    • - Initial
    • - Intermediate
    • - Final
    • - Missed approach
  414. What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
    75 m with FAF and 90m without
  415. What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
    • up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
    • Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
    • Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
  416. What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
    The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
  417. What are the wake tubulence categories?
    • Heavy 136000 KG and more
    • Medium >7000 KG - 135999
    • Light < 7000 KG
  418. When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
    At all times, except during Radar vectoring
  419. When are NOTAMS issued?
    • 1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
    • 2. permanent and operationally significant nature
    • 3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
  420. When is a runway reported damp?
    When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
  421. When is a runway reported wet?
    The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
  422. When is a runway reported water patches?
    significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
  423. When is a runway reported flooded?
    extensive standing water.
  424. Endurance & range of the PA34?
    Endurance 5 hrs, range 800nm
  425. What is SFC?
    Specific Fuel Consumption is the quantity/weight (lb) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds.
  426. What are the main engine instruments?
    EPR (engine pressure ratio gage), N1, EGT, N2, Fuel Flow
  427. What are indications of a wet start?
    • EGT not rising
    • RPMs stabilize at starter maximum
  428. What are the required actions for a wet start?
    • Close the fuel supply lever as soon as wet start is diagnosed
    • Motor the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 seconds).
  429. What is an engine hung start?
    When the engine ignites but does not reach its self sustaining RPM's.
  430. What is the cause of an hung start?
    • Insufficient airflow to support combustion due to the compressor not supplying enough air because of;
    • 1. High altitude, low density air
    • 2. Hot conditions, low density air
    • 3. Inefficient compression
    • 4. Low starter RPM's
  431. What are the indications of a hung start?
    • 1. High EGT
    • 2. RPM's below normal self sustaining speed
  432. What are the actions required with a hung start?
    • 1 Close fuel lever
    • 2. Motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 secs.)
  433. What is an hot start?
    The engine ignites and reaches self sustaining rpms, but the combustion is unstable amd the exhaust gat temperature (EGT) rises rapidly past its maximum limit.
  434. What are the causes for an hot start?
    • 1. Overfuelling (throttle open)
    • 2. Air intake/ exhaust blocked
    • 3. Tailwind, causing the compressor to run backwards
    • 4. Seized engine (ice blockage)
  435. What are the actions required with an hot start?
    • 1. Close the fuel lever/ stop fuel delivery before the EGT limit has been reached
    • 2. When the engine rpm's have slowed to the reengagement speed, motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (approx 60 secs.)
  436. Why do you use derated thrust takeoffs in jet aircraft?
    • 1. To protect engine life and to improve reliability
    • 2. To reduce noise generated by the aircraft
  437. What is a jet engine surge?
    It is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air in the combustion chamber is expelled forward through the compressors, with a loud bang and resulting loss of engine thrust.
  438. How is an engine surge caused?
    • 1. All the compressor stages have stalled
    • 2. An excessive fuel flow creates a high pressure in the rear of the engine.
  439. What are the indications of an engine surge?
    • 1. Total loss of thrust
    • 2. A large increase in TGT
  440. What are the required actions in the event of an engine surge?
    • 1. Close the throttles smoothly and slowly
    • 2. Adjust the aircrafts attitude to unstall the engines (which lead to the surge)
    • 3. Slowly and smoothly reopen the throttles.
  441. What does FADEC mean?
    Full authority Digital Engine Control
  442. What is FADEC?
    A system that automatically controls engine functions, i.e., start procedures, engine monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system and power levels required.
  443. How do jet engines generate noise?
    The noise is from the sheer effect of different displaced air velocities. The sheer is the difference between the jet's faster displaced air and the slower ambient air around it.
  444. How can an engine's noise be controlled or reduced?
    • 1. Bypass engines
    • 2. Reduced thrust take offs
  445. What are the pressure flight instruments?
    • 1. ASI/ Mach meter
    • 2. Altimeter
    • 3. VSI
  446. How do pressure instruments work?
    They sense the atmospheric pressure by using the pitot-static system. The pitot tube measures total pressure (static & dynamic). A Static port measures static pressure. The dynamic pressure is calculated by subtracting the static pressure from the total pressure.
  447. What are the altimeter instrument errors?
    • 1. Instrument error
    • 2. Pressure error (position error)
    • 3. Time lag error
    • 4. Barometric error
    • 5. Temperature/ density error
    • 6. blocked static port
  448. What do you know about a servo assisted altimeter?
    It increases the accuracy of a simple pressure altimeter because its design no longer relies on a direct mechanical linkage between its capsule and the altitude pointer on the instruments. It uses an electrically conducted E&I bar.
  449. What is the advantage of a servo-assisted altimeter?
    It removes instrument error and time leg error.
  450. What are the gyro flight instruments?>
    • 1. Directional Indicator
    • 2. Artificial horizon
    • 3. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator
  451. What does EFIS stand for?
    Electronic Flight Instrument System
  452. What is EFIS?
    A fully integrated computer based digital navigation system that uses color cathode-ray tube (CRT) types of electronic attitude directional indicator (EADI) and horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
  453. What components make up a typical EFIS?
    • 1. Cathode-Ray tubes
    • 2. EFIS Control panel
    • 3. Symbol generators
    • 4. EADI (electronic attitude directional indicator)
    • 5. EHSI (electronic horizontal situation indicator)
  454. What factors affect the range of VHF communications?
    • 1. Transmitting power
    • 2. Frequency
    • 3. Hight of the transmitter and receiver
    • 4. Obstructions
    • 5. Fading
  455. What is the purpose of a flight Management System? (FMS)
    To manage the aircrafts performance and route navigation to achieve optimal result
  456. What aircraft systems use hydraulic power?
    • 1. Landing gear
    • 2. Brakes/ antiskid system
    • 3. Steering
    • 4. Flying controls
    • 5. Stairs
    • 6. Doors
  457. At what cabin altitude should a pilot go on oxygen?
    10.000 ft
  458. At what cabin altitude should passengers go on oxygen?
    14000 ft
  459. What elements are requiered for a fire?
    • 1. Oxygen
    • 2. Combustile material (fuel)
    • 3. Ignition source (heat)
  460. What is the most practicle way to eliminate fire?
    Remove it's oxygen supply
  461. What is the greatest contamination of fuel?
  462. What is a de-icing system?
    A de-icing system is one in which ice is allowed to build up on a surface and it then removed.
  463. What is an anti-icing system?
    Is one in which ice is prevented from building up on a surface
  464. What are icing conditions?
    • OAT or TAT is +10C or below and;
    • - visible moisture or
    • - visibility of 1500m or less or
    • - standing water/ slush or snow
  465. What are the characteristics of a type 1 de-icing fluid?
    • - Unthickened
    • - To clear snow or ice
    • - Limited hold over time (5-8 min)
  466. What are the characteristics of a type 2 de-icing fluid?
    • - Thickening agent
    • - Min. 50% glycol
    • - Long hold over time (ca 30-60 min)
  467. What does MSA mean?
    Minimum Sector Altitude
  468. What does MORA mean?
    Minimum Off Route Altitude; 1000' on an airway and 2000'over mountains
  469. WHat are high lift devices?
    • Leading edge flaps
    • Trailing edge flaps
    • Slats
  470. What are lift dumping and brake assits devices?
    • - Speed brakes
    • - Spoilers
    • - Reverse thrust
    • - Wheel brakes
  471. What parts are connected to the N2 shaft of an engine?
    • - Fuel pumps
    • - Oil pumps
    • - IDG
    • - Air starter
    • - Engine driven hydraulic pumps
  472. How do you calculate your Top of Descent (TOD)?
    Altitude/300 + 2 miles to start descent + 4-6 for speed reduction
  473. What is the fuel policy?
    • 1. Taxi fuel
    • 2. Trip fuel
    • 3. Reserve fuel;
    • Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel
    • Final reserve fuel = 30 min hold at 1500'
    • 4 alternate fuel
    • 5. extra fuel (captains discretion)
  474. What is then JAR-OPS definition of contingency fuel?
    • The fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome such as;
    • - deviation of an individual plane from the expected fuel consumption data
    • - deviations from forecast meteorological conditions and
    • - deviations from planned routings and or cruising levels and altitudes
  475. What is easyJet's vision?
    To Turn Europe Orange
  476. How is easyJet going to turn Europe orange?
    By offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports on convenient times of the day
  477. How many aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
    204 (167 A319/ 35 A320/ 2 B737)
  478. By how much increased easyJets total revenue in May 2011 compared to 2010?
    By 8,1%
  479. How many people are employed by easyJet?
  480. How many pilots are employed by easyJet?
    1900 pilots
  481. What are the financial risks for easyJet?
    Fuel price & currency fluctuations & Liquidity risk.
  482. How many routes does easyJet fly?
    580 routes
  483. How many seats were sold in May 2011?
    28,1 million (increase of 11.1%)
  484. What was the reported profit before tax in 2011?
    248 million pounds
  485. How many passengers flown easyJet in 2011?
    54 million passengers
  486. How many people live within one hour driving of one of easyjet's airports?
    300 million
  487. Of the passenger numbers, how many people were business travelers?
  488. How many airports does easyJet fly to?
  489. In how many countries does easyjet fly?
    30 countries
  490. What is easyjet's vision and how are they going to achieve that?
    • To turn Europe orange by:
    • No compromises on safety
    • Offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports, on convenient times of the day
    • Smart cost management
  491. How does a Jet engine work?
    • By forcing incoming air into a tube, where the air is compressed, mixed with fuel, burned and exhausted at high speed to generate thrust. OR
    • Thrust = air mass x velocity
    • Suck: Air is sucked into the engine intake where it loses velocity and therefore increases its pressure energy as it passes through the divergent duct;
    • Squeeze: The air is compressed by the low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
    • Bang: The total energy is increases by the combustion of fuel (heat energy);
    • Blow: The expanding gasses accelerate over the turbines to the outlet convergent duct.
  492. How are the turbine blades cooled
    • By 3 ways:
    • 1. Convection cooling; by passing cooling air through passages internal to the blade
    • 2. Film cooling; by pumping cool air out of the blade through small holes. The air creates a thin layer on the blade of cool air protecting it to the high temperatures.
    • 3. Transpiration cooling; It creates a thin film of cooling air on the blade by leaking through a porous shell.
  493. What is the difference between a turbofans and turbojet engine
    At a turbofan engine not all the air moved by the fan goes into the combustion chamber. A portion of the air flows over the engine itself (bypass air).
  494. What is the difference between a gas turbine and a jet engine?
    A gas turbine engine has a turbine driven compressor that produces thrust at low speeds.
  495. What do you know about turbines in a fan engine?
    The turbines in a fan engine are driving the compressors and the fan. A turbine connected to a compressor is called a spool. Turbofan engines normally have 3 spools, the fan spool (N1), the intermediate pressure compressor (N2) and the high pressure compressor spool (N3)
  496. How are the turbine blades cooled?
    • Thermal barrier coatings
    • Cooling air from the compressor
  497. What are the possible advantages of a high bypass engine? (5:1 or 6:1)
    • Better fuel efficiency (higher mass, lower velocity produced)
    • Reduced engine noise (bypass duct & low speed exhaust)
    • Contamination is centrifugally discharged
  498. What produces the majority of the thrust?
    In a high bypass jet engine the mass of air produces the majority of thrust. Thrust = mass x velocity. In a high bypass engine a large mass of air is driven backwards at a low velocity.
  499. What could be the possible uses of filtering hot air from the engines?
    The hot air can be used for the anti ice system and cabin heating system.
  500. Why pressurise the hydraulic system?
    To prevent cavitation, which causes wear of the metallic surfaces of the system.
  501. What is an INS and how does it work?
    Inertia navigation system: on board, self contained system, that provides continuous information about the aircraft’s position. The system measures the aircraft’s inertia movement from an initial position. The components are accelerometers, gyroscopes and a position computer.
  502. How do you recognize an engine surge and what are the causes?
    Reverse airflow in the engine, indications are a loud bang, vibration and temperature rising.
  503. What is FADEC and does the A320 have FADEC?
    • FADEC = Full Authority Digital Engine Control. It is a system that automatically controls the engine functions (start procedures, monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system, power levels). By using the engine functions as efficient as possible the fuel efficiency and lifetime of the engine is increased. It also gives a reduction of crew workload.
    • The A320 has FADEC for thrust control.
  504. How many hydraulic systems does an Airbus have?
    • 3 hydraulic systems: blue, green and yellow. Each system has its own hydraulic reservoir. The system operating pressure is 3000 psi.
    • What are the functions of spoilers?
    • Assisting the ailerons for roll control
    • Air speed brakes to slow down the aircraft in the air
    • Ground lift dumpers, to transfer the full weight of the aircraft on the brakes on landing / rejected take off for optimal braking efficiency
  505. Explain TCAS.
    • Traffic collision avoidance system, provides traffic information and maneuver advice between aircraft if their flight paths are conflicting
    • TCAS uses the secondary surveillance radar transponders of aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities.
    • Direction finding aerials determine relative bearings, and distance is calculated by time delay between transmitted and received signals
    • Warnings are on initially and collision threat basis, advised actions are in vertical avoidance only.
  506. What are the advantages of Fly-by-wire?
    • Fly by wire: The movement of flight controls are converted into electronic signals transmitted by wires, and flight control computers determine how to move the actuators at each control surface to provide the ordered response.
    • Lighter: mechanical control systems are heavy
    • Safety: stabilizes the aircraft automatically in changing aerodynamic conditions. The signal from the control column is checked by the computer, which calculates the movement of the control surface actuator.
  507. High lift devices fitted to the airbus
    • Trailing edge flaps: single slotted
    • Leading edge slats: one inboard slat and four outboard slats
  508. Name 5 conditions that have an impact on take-off conditions?
    • Aircraft weight: high weight = long take off roll
    • Flap setting: low flap setting = long take off roll = high climb gradient
    • Wind speed and direction: tail wind = long take off roll
    • Density altitude: high density altitude = low density = long take off roll
    • Humidity: high humidity = long take off roll
    • Temperature: high temperature = long take off roll
    • Runway condition = wet = long take off roll
  509. How can you minimize the fuel burned on a trip? (Luton to Inverness)
    • Always adhere to the SOP’s
    • Fly at the optimum altitude where possible
    • Request direct routing (shortcuts)
    • Do not take too much fuel for the trip
  510. To what approach category is an Airbus 320 certified and what ILS category is it capable to land off?
    • Approach category = C (Vat = 121-140kts) (speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at max certified landing mass). The A320 Vref is 134 KIAS at MLM 64.5 tonnes.
    • Depending on the qualifications of the crew the A320 is capable of landing from CATIIIB approaches. DH = less than 50ft, RVR at least 75m touchdown / midpoint
  511. What options do you have when you have a gear failure?
    • Extend mechanically: isolate landing gear hydraulics, unlock gear doors and allows gravity to drop the gear into extended position.
    • Locking springs help to crank the main gear into locked condition, and aerodynamic forces assist in locking the of the nose gear.
  512. How long does it take for an IRS to align in the A320
    Up to 10 minutes
  513. What sort of flaps does the Airbus have?
    • A319 & A320: single flap surfaces
    • A321: double slotted flap surfaces (compensate for additional weight)
  514. What could you do to minimize the risk of icing?
    • Use anti-ice systems as needed
    • Avoid flying through CB’s
    • Check weather before flight
  515. What engines does a Seneca have?
    • 6 cylinder horizontally opposed
    • Air cooled
    • Turbo charged
    • 200 brake horse power
    • Wet sump oil system
  516. Why would we circle to land, why not just fly straight in?
    • If the runway in use is not aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course of the instrument approach procedure, the approach requires visual maneuvering of the aircraft in the vicinity of the airport.
    • The runway in use lack instrument approach procedures or their approaches cannot be used (navigation aids out of service, traffic considerations)
  517. Describe the four climb segments. (at a constant V2 speed)
    • To make obstacle calculations predictable the aircraft is presumed to be flown through several reconfiguration segments on take-off. Calculations are based on engine failure at V1.
    • First segment: end of TOD – Gear retraction finished (TOD ends at 35ft screen height – dry runway, or 15ft screen height – wet runway)
    • Second segment: end of first segment – to 400ft / 1000ft AGL (safe height)
    • Third segment: level flight, acceleration during which the flaps are retracted to flaps up speed climb speed
    • Fourth segment: end of third segment – to 1500ft with flaps up and max continuous thrust.
  518. You are told to hold at a waypoint. How long or how far before the waypoint should you reduce to you holding speed.
    You have to be at your holding speed, 3 minutes before reaching the holding fix.
  519. What is the range of a VOR at 32000 ft?
    Up to 100 nautical miles
  520. Tell me about adiabatic lapse rates, what are they? What are the assumed values?
    • The rate of decreasing temperature with height
    • ELR: environmental lapse rate, the rate of decreasing temperature in the standard atmosphere (ISA): 1.98⁰C / 1000ft
    • SALR: saturated adiabatic lapse rate, the adiabatic change in temperature for saturated air as it rises. The parcel of air consists of 100% relative humidity and its temperature is reduced to the dew point temperature. 1.5⁰C / 1000ft.
    • DALR: dry adiabatic lapse rate, the rate of decreasing temperature in a dry or unsaturated parcel of air (less than 100% relative humidity). The temperature of this parcel is higher than its dew point. 3⁰C / 1000ft.
  521. Fohn wind
    Moist air is pushed up a hill or mountain by the wind (windward side). The air will cool adiabatically and the water will condense and form rain. The dry air at the lee side of the mountain will heat adiabatically, resulting in a higher temperature than at the windward side of the mountain.
  522. What would you do if you flew into unexpected weather?
    Fly the aircraft first.
  523. Why do we have turbofans on Airbus?
    • Powerful engines
    • Very efficient engines on high cruising altitudes