Psych Exam 3

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leo25
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Psych Exam 3
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2011-12-04 15:02:20
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Developmental Psychopathology
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Psych Exam 3
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  1. T/F: In the 19th century, state run institutions were where kids with MR went and it was socially acceptable.
    true
  2. What is the evolutionary degeneracy theory?
    • people w/ MR were throwbacks/degenerates
    • they cause the gene pool to deteriorate
    • needed to be stopped from reproducing
  3. Who led the eugenics movement?
    Sir Frances Galton
  4. What was the eugenics movement?
    a shift from the needs of people with MR to protection of society
  5. In 1910, how were people with MR classified?
    • moron
    • imbecile
    • idiot
  6. T/F: MR is the most well known childhood disorder.
    true
  7. What did Kennedy do for MR in 1962?
    • he formed the President's panel on MR
    • his sister had MR so he was dear to it
    • our current definitions come from this time
  8. When did the grassroots movement to improve diagnosis and treatment of MR happen?
    1940's
  9. T/F: there are 2 accepted and used definitions for MR.
    true
  10. What are the 3 pieces to both definitions of MR?
    • 1. patient must have sub-average intelligence
    • 2. patient has deficits in adaptive behavior
    • 3. must manifest during childhood
  11. What are some important points about deficits in adaptive behavior?
    • child must show these deficits in every environment, not just at school
    • skills that would affect autonomous living like tying shoes, getting dressed
  12. What does the AAMR classify sub-average intelligence as?
    IQ 70-75
  13. What were the old AAMR subgroups?
    • mild
    • moderate
    • severe
    • profound
  14. What does the new definition of MR focus on?
    how the child is functioning in the environment, not just their IQ
  15. What is the new definition for mild MR?
    • Intermittent
    • off and on support needed
    • for emergencies, transitions in life, crisis
  16. what is the new definition for moderate MR?
    • Limited Support
    • need high level of support for a short period of time
    • training for a job
  17. What is the new definition for severe MR?
    • Extensive Support
    • daily/regular involvement in one environment
  18. What is the new definition for profound MR?
    • Pervasive
    • high levels of support constantly across all environments
    • may have to live in a group home
  19. What is the controversy over the new definitions that AAMR gave?
    • they raised the IQ from 70 to 75 so now more children are eligible for diagnosis
    • reliable methods for rating funtioning do not exist
    • how do measure the level of support needed?
  20. T/F: the DSM supports the new AAMR definitions of MR.
    false
  21. T/F: adaptive functioning and IQ are moderately related with a correlation of about 0.6.
    true
  22. T/F: adaptive functioning and IQ are not exactly the same and should be measured separately.
    true
  23. What do we use to measure adaptive functioning?
    • Vineland Scales
    • Adaptive Behavior Scales
  24. T/F: MR is equally common in both boys and girls.
    true
  25. What % of the population has MR?
    1-3%
  26. T/F: MR is not more common in low SES and minority groups.
    false; it is
  27. T/F: in the subgroup of severe MR, social class differences disappear.
    true
  28. In DSM, the level of MR, reflecting a child's degree of difficulty, is based on?
    the extent of cognitive impairment
  29. Which category of MR has an overrepresentation of minority groups?
    mild
  30. Persons with profound MR have an IQ of?
    25-39
  31. In general, kids with Down's display?
    significant gains in adaptive behavior by age 6, followed by a levelling off or a decline
  32. Kids w/ mild to moderate MR learn symbolic play by?
    in much the same manner as other kids
  33. What other diagnosis is least likely among kids with MR?
    schizophrenia
  34. What is the gene-environment interaction also known as?
    phenotype
  35. Abnormalities in facial features, growth retardation below the 10th percentile, and CNS dysfunction are all common in what disorder?
    FAS
  36. Which disorder is a severe, developmental, spectrum disorder?
    autism
  37. With respect to attachment, most kids with autism?
    prefer their caregivers over unfamiliar adults
  38. We don't know if kids with autism ______ emotions differently.
    experience
  39. Pragmatics is the primary language deficit of kids with_____.
    autism
  40. Why do kids w/ autism engage in self-stimulating behavior?
    • they crave stimulation and self-stim excites their nervous systems
    • it is frequently accompanied by some sort of reinforcement
    • self-stim might help to block out and control the environment which could be too stimulating
  41. Many kids with autism also have what 2 other problems?
    • MR
    • epilepsy
  42. T/F: autism is more common in boys, but it is equally common in boys and girls with those who have profound MR too.
    true
  43. What has been associated with autism more than any other medical condition?
    Tuberous sclerosis
  44. Medication in combination with _______ is a good current treatment for childhood onset schizophrenia? (3 things)
    • educational support program
    • social support program
    • psychotherapeutic program
  45. T/F: Children with a learning disability usually have average or above-average intelligence.
    true
  46. Awareness that sounds can be manipulated within syllables in words, recognition of the relationship between sounds and letters, and detection of rhyme and alliteration are all part of?
    phonological awareness
  47. If a child has trouble with articulation, they will be diagnosed with?
    phonological disorder
  48. T/F: boys are more likely to be diagnosed with communication disorders because of referral bias.
    true
  49. What age does stuttering peak at?
    5
  50. T/F: reading, writing (written expression) and math are all categories of a learning disorder.
    true
  51. T/F: a child with a writing disorder is likely to have problems with reading, handwriting, and eye/hand coordination.
    true
  52. Reading disorders have ____% heritability?
    60%
  53. Eden et. al found that brains of adults with reading disorders have no activation in the area of the brain that detects ___?
    visual motion
  54. What are the DSM subclassifications of MR?
    • mild
    • moderate
    • severe
    • profound
  55. What is the largest subgroup of MR?
    mild
  56. What is the IQ of mild MR group?
    50-70
  57. T/F: independent living is likely for someone w/ mild MR.
    true
  58. T/F: those with mild MR can function autonomously
    true
  59. What academic level do those with mild MR reach by their teen years?
    6th grade level
  60. What is the IQ of the moderate MR group?
    35/40-50/55
  61. How many of those with MR have moderate MR?
    10%
  62. What academic level do those w/ moderate MR reach?
    2nd grade level
  63. Which group of MR can live semi-independently?
    moderate
  64. Which group do those with Down's fall into?
    moderate
  65. What is the IQ of those in the severe MR group?
    20/25-35/40
  66. 3-4% of those with MR fall into which group?
    severe MR
  67. Which subgroup of MR usually suffers from one or more organic causes?
    severe MR
  68. What academic level do those with severe MR reach?
    4-6 years old
  69. T/F: those with severe MR also have physical disabilities like seizures.
    true
  70. T/F: those with severe MR can have some communication skills by age 12.
    true
  71. T/F: sever MR is usually identified during infancy.
    true
  72. Which subgroup of MR is the smallest?
    profound
  73. What is the typical IQ of a child with profound MR?
    20-25
  74. T/F: those with profound MR can still have rudimentary communication (I'm hungry).
    true
  75. What is the evidence for difference (qualitative) MR?
    organic retardation
  76. What is the evidence for developmental (quantitative) MR?
    familial/cultural retardation
  77. Which argument for MR supports the fact that the child would have slowed development but would show a similar sequence of events as a normal child? (would crawl before walking)
    quantitative (developmental)
  78. Which argument for MR supports the fact that even after matching for mental age, differences will still be apparent between normal children and those with MR?
    qualitative (difference)
  79. Which group of MR is bigger? (cultural/familial or organic caused)
    cultural/familial
  80. Those with MR that fall under the cultural/familial category usually have what IQ?
    50-70 (mild MR)
  81. What are some risks for cultural/familial MR?
    • poverty
    • low SES
    • low parent education
    • crowding
  82. Is cultural/familial MR qualitative or quantitative?
    quantitative (developmental)
  83. T/F: early intervention can help cultural/familial MR.
    true
  84. How can we prevent cultural/familial MR?
    stimulating, enriched environments for infancy thru pre-school
  85. What was the Abecedarian project?
    • done in Appalaichan mountain region with high levels of poverty
    • kids maintained effects of a stimulating environment up to 10 years later
    • IQ was 5-10 points higher in treated group
  86. What are the 3 main organic causes of MR?
    • metabolic disorders
    • chromosomal/genetic origin
    • prenatal toxins
  87. ____ _____ are caused by excess or shortages of chemicals necessary for metabolism?
    metabolic disorders
  88. ___ ____ account for 3-7% of severe MR cases? (very rare)
    metabolic disorders
  89. What is the most common metabolic disorder that causes MR?
    PKU
  90. What does PKU do?
    • lack enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine
    • body accumulates phenylalanine, which turns into phenylpyruvic acid
    • brain damage, seizures, hyperactivity
  91. What are some other known metabolic disorders?
    • maple syrup urine disease
    • Schilder's disease
    • galactosemia
  92. What is the biggest risk for a chromosonal abnormality?
    maternal age (mother) at pregnancy
  93. What is the most common chromosomal abnormality disease associated with MR?
    Down's Syndrome
  94. What are the 3 causes of Down's syndrome?
    • trisomy 21
    • translocation
    • mosaicism
  95. 4% of all cases of Down's are which type?
    translocation
  96. Which is the rarest cause of Down's?
    mosaicism
  97. 95% of all cases of Down's are which type?
    trisomy 21
  98. Trisomy 21 is most often caused by ______ of the 21st chromosome?
    nondisjunction
  99. ______ is rearrangement of genetic material between the 14th and 21st chromosomes?
    translocation (Down's)
  100. T/F: in translocation (Down's), the number of chromosomes remains the same.
    true
  101. T/F: in trisomy 21, the number of chromosomes remains the same.
    false; one extra
  102. T/F: it is possible for Down's to be underdiagnosed if mosaicism split occurs late in development.
    true
  103. T/F: mosaicism can result in differing degrees of Down's.
    true
  104. In _____, one cell gets three chromosomes and the other only gets one and usually dies?
    mosaicism
  105. Chromosomal abnormalities usually result in what type of MR?
    moderate to profound
  106. What are some physical features associated with Down's?
    • flat nasal bridge
    • small head
    • large protruding tongue
    • short crooked 5th finger
    • palmar crease
    • broad square hands
    • almond shaped eyes
    • epicanthal folds
  107. What are some features of Down's that aren't physical?
    • high social skills
    • cooperative
    • respectful
    • stubborn
    • single-minded
    • may have muted emotions
  108. What is the usual treatment for someone with Down's?
    • show life skills
    • behavioral treatments
  109. Prader Willi and Angelman's are both caused by an abnormality of chromosome __?
    15
  110. Which one is a milder form of MR (Prader Willi or Angelman's)?
    Prader Willi
  111. Which abnormality of chromosome 15 has moderate to severe MR?
    Angelman's
  112. Which disorder(s) are caused by genetic imprinting?
    Angelman's and Prader Willi
  113. If your mother's chromosome 15 is deleted, what disorder will you have?
    Angelman's
  114. If your father's chromosome 15 is deleted, what disorder will you have?
    Prader Willi
  115. Which disorder is marked by an involuntary urge to eat constantly?
    Prader Willi
  116. If someone has a short stature, incomplete sexual development, low muscle tone and is obese, what do they have?
    Prader Willi
  117. If someone has jerky movements, seizures, flapping hands, absence of speech, and a large open-mouthed expression, what do they have?
    Angelman's
  118. What is thought to be a cause of Prader Willi syndrome?
    maybe the hypothalamus
  119. Which chromosomal abnormality that causes MR is X-linked and usually passed on by the mother?
    Fragile X syndrome
  120. T/F: Fragile X syndrome is present at birth.
    false
  121. What type of MR do those with Fragile X usually have?
    mild to moderate
  122. These kids show strengths in adaptive behavior early on, but usually behavior difficulties arise like hyperactivity, poor peer relations, etc?
    Fragile X
  123. Which syndrome mostly affects males, but when females have it, they have a milder form of MR?
    Fragile X
  124. What are some neurobiological causes of MR?
    • FAS
    • rubella
    • syphillus
  125. ____ refers to someone who has MR but is capable of outstanding mental tasks?
    Savant syndrome
  126. T/F: the term 'savant' means wise.
    true
  127. T/F: savant syndrome has been found on every continent.
    true
  128. T/F: males and females are equally savants.
    false; mostly male
  129. What are some common savant skills?
    • music
    • memory
    • mental math
    • calendar calculation
  130. What are talents that are unpredicted, but not at genius level called?
    splinter skills
  131. Who has splinter skills?
    savants
  132. What are the 3 different categories of savants?
    • splinter skilled
    • talented
    • prodigious
  133. What are prodigious savants?
    • they have one specific talent that they are really really good at
    • only 25 in the world
    • can't dress themselves, do simple tasks, but might be extremely talented in one area
  134. T/F: savant syndrome is rare even among those with MR.
    true
  135. How many savants with autism and MR have at least splinter skills?
    1 in 10 (10%)
  136. 1 in 2000 kids with MR are also ___?
    a savant
  137. What are all of the autistic spectrum disorders?
    • autism
    • Rett syndrome
    • childhood disintegrative disorder (CDD)
    • Asperger's
    • Pervasive developmental disorder-not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS)
  138. T/F: across the social classes, autism is different.
    false
  139. How much do boys outnumber girls for autism?
    3:1 or 5:1
  140. What two disorders display equifinality?
    • MR
    • autism
  141. T/F: autism has been on the rise.
    true
  142. What disorder was originally confused with schizophrenia?
    autism
  143. Who argued for a separate diagnosis for kids with autism and that their disabilities were present before age 3, which was unlike schizophrenia?
    Leo Kanner
  144. What are some features of autism that were described by Kanner?
    • communication deficits
    • behavioral problems
    • inability to relate to people
    • atypical cognitive potential
  145. What was Kanner's hypothesis about autism?
    • the parents were intelligent, but cold and emotionally reserved "refrigerator"
    • the child perceives the world as a threatening place
    • the child withdraws into their own inner world
  146. Which disorder is marked by a failure of the child to make eye contact or to get comfort from their parents?
    autism
  147. 25% of children with this disorder never acquire language?
    autism
  148. What is echolalia?
    • a sound or word or a series of words that is repeated to soothe
    • found in Tourettes and autism
  149. What is dysprosody and who has it?
    • inaccurate pitch and rhythm
    • autistic
  150. Who has literal interpretation of language?
    autistic
  151. Who has a lack of joint attention interactions? (don't say look mommy to get attention)
    autistic
  152. Who shows an obsession for maintaining sameness with schedules, etc?
    autistic
  153. Who has ritualistic preoccupations?
    autistic
  154. Who shows self-stimulatory behavior?
    autistic
  155. What are the 3 types of self stimulatory behavior?
    • gross motor
    • fine motor
    • SIBS (self injury)
  156. What is an example of gross motor self-stimulating behavior?
    • rocking
    • hand flapping
  157. What is an example of fine motor self stimulation?
    • string twirling
    • spinning objects
  158. T/F: 20% of those with autism do not have MR.
    true
  159. How common is MR in autistic kids?
    60% have it
  160. T/F: about 20% of kids with autism have mild MR.
    true
  161. Impaired social interaction, impaired communication, lack of eye contact, routines, rituals, and restricted patterns of behavior and interests are all common of what disorder?
    autism
  162. T/F: the concordance rates for identical twins for autism are pretty high.
    true
  163. What is the problem with autism concordance rates?
    they are dealing with a very small population of subjects
  164. If you have autism, you are also likely to have what other two disorders?
    • Fragile X
    • Tuberous sclerosis
  165. What three parts of the brain are implicated in the neuroanatomical cause of autism?
    • limbic system
    • cerebellum
    • medial temporal lobe
  166. Which cells are more densely packed and smaller in the limbic system of a person with autism?
    Purkinje cells
  167. Where would you find a loss of cells in a brain of someone with autism?
    in the cerebellum
  168. What is the abnormality that is found in the medial temporal lobe of someone with autism?
    the structure and function of the amygdala is messed up
  169. T/F: the amygdala has implications in autism.
    true
  170. What are three other outside factors that increase the risk of autism?
    • age of mother and father
    • maternal illness during pregnancy
    • lack of folic acid before and after conception
  171. What is the best treatment for autism?
    ABA (applied behavioral analysis) -- behavioral intervention
  172. What 3 things determine a better prognosis for children with autism?
    • discharge to trained parents
    • early intervention
    • get them to learn language before age 5
  173. Do most insurance companies cover the cost of ABA?
    no
  174. T/F: there are waiting lists for ABA treatments.
    true
  175. T/F: there are no programs set in place yet for adults with autism.
    true
  176. T/F: medications are not recommended for kids with autism or aspergers.
    true
  177. T/F: autism is not a life-long, chronic disorder.
    false; it is
  178. T/F: complete mainstreaming is unlikely for many who have autism.
    true
  179. How can you teach kids with autism to use language in a meaningful way?
    • teach them to describe objects
    • teach them to follow directions (receptive language)
    • make them ask for things
    • reinforce spontaneous speech
  180. What types of verbal responses should rewards be given for in kids with autism?
    • any verbalization
    • verbalizations that follow a prompt
    • closer approximations to the therapist's words
    • imitating other sounds
  181. How do you start language and communication therapy in ABA for autistic kids?
    • suppress behaviors that interfere with learning language (like SIBS)
    • teach imitation
  182. Which disorder is sometimes misdiagnosed as OCD?
    Asperger's
  183. Who is often awkward and poorly coordinated?
    Asperger's
  184. Who lacks the ability to modulate the volume of their speech and may be hard to socialize with?
    Asperger's
  185. T/F: childhood onset schizophrenia is very rare.
    true
  186. Subcategories are not useful for children in which disorder?
    schizophrenia
  187. What is the difference in age of onset between childhood onset schizo and adult onset schizo?
    • child: comes by age 12
    • adults: comes in late adolescence
  188. Which disorder has positive and negative symptoms?
    childhood onset schizophrenia
  189. What are some of the positive symptoms of childhood onset schizophrenia?
    • delusions
    • hallucinations (auditory most common)
    • disorganized speech
    • disorganized or stiff (catatonic) behavior
  190. What are some of the negative symptoms of childhood onset shizophrenia?
    • flat affect (emotion) and speech
    • diminished goal-directed activities
  191. How long does DSM say a child must have symptoms to be diagnosed with schizophrenia?
    6 months
  192. What are the 3 phases of childhood onset schizophrenia?
    • prodromal
    • acute
    • residual
  193. T/F: the longer the prodromal phase, the harder the schizophrenia is to treat.
    true
  194. A child is socially awkward, stops bathing, and shows signs of becoming schizophrenic. What phase are they in?
    prodromal phase (schizophrenia)
  195. For at least one month, a child is not aware that they are disturbed. What phase are they in?
    acute phase (schizophrenia)
  196. What are some of the similarities that CO schizophrenia shares with autism?
    • Males> females
    • abnormal speech patterns
    • impaired social relations
    • obsessions
  197. What are some differences between CO schizophrenia and autism?
    • age of onset
    • intellectual functioning is still good in schizo
    • decline in functioning for schizo
  198. T/F: both children and adults experience auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia.
    true
  199. What is the most common hallucination in kids with schizo?
    auditory
  200. T/F: children without schizo also have a very high occurrence of hallucinations.
    true
  201. What kind of delusions do kids with schizo usually have?
    • grandiose
    • persecutory
    • somatic
    • bizarre
  202. T/F: delusions that kids have are similar to those that adults with schizo have.
    true
  203. What are some things that are wrong with children's thoughts with schizo?
    • disorganized speech
    • thought derailment
    • loosening of associations
    • low content (impoverished meaning)
    • neologisms (made up words)
  204. T/F: in childhood onset schizophrenia, non psychotic symptoms typically occur first.
    true
  205. Is the onset of childhood schizophrenia more likely to be sudden or gradual?
    gradual
  206. T/F: the majority of kids with schizophrenia will have a poor outcome.
    true
  207. What things will be likely to give kids with schizophrenia a good outcome?
    • an acute onset vs. gradual
    • good functioning before the onset
    • and it was caused by a certain event
    • later onset
  208. Childhood onset schizophrenia is thought to be a _______ disease?
    neurodevelopmental
  209. T/F: most of what we know about CO schizo is from children.
    false; adults w/ the disease
  210. What is CO schizophrenia thought to be caused by?
    • stressful life events (Diathesis Stress Model)
    • a prenatal insult to the developing brain
    • genetic predisposition
  211. T/F: we are all "loaded guns" until life stress comes along and if it does we could become schizophrenic
    true
  212. What is the neurochemical evidence for schizophrenia?
    overactivity of dopamine in the frontal lobe
  213. Is dopamine more closely tied to the negative or the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
    positive
  214. What are the different theories of the problems going on with dopamine in schizophrenia?
    • 1. slow reuptake keeps the dopamine in the synapses for a long time
    • 2. too much dopamine is released
    • 3. neurons that receive dopaminergic input are excessively sensitive to dopamine
  215. What endorphin is thought to be involved with schizophrenia and why?
    • MAO (monoamine oxidase)
    • it affects the body's synthesis of dopamine
  216. What is the neuroanatomical evidence for schizophrenia?
    • larger ventricles in brain=negative symptoms
    • frontal lobe= + symptoms
    • evidence is mounting that (-) symptoms are caused by brain damage
  217. What is the genetic evidence for schizophrenia?
    • there is no doubt it is a genetic disorder, but not entirely
    • the more closely related you are, the higher the risk
    • twin, adoption, family pedigree studies have been done
  218. How does the environment play into schizophrenia?
    • environmental risk factors:
    • social class
    • stressful life events
    • biological
    • influenza
  219. Which disorder displays social drift and therefore genetic drift?
    schizophrenia
  220. T/F: CO schizophrenia is higher when the mother has birth complications.
    true
  221. T/F: viral infections during pregnancy can cause CO schizo.
    true
  222. What is the seasonality effect and which symptoms does it produce in schizophrenia?
    • correlation with mother getting exposed to flu virus during 2nd trimester
    • (-) symptoms
  223. Is the effect of flu virus on the fetus direct or indirect?
    indirect
  224. What is the current hypothesis on flu virus and how it causes CO schizophrenia?
    • the virus creates an immune system reaction that changes brain chemistry or wiring at key developmental stages in fetus
    • the mother's immune system is attacking the baby, not the actual flu virus
  225. How much does the flu virus increase your risk of fetus having schizophrenia?
    risk goes up 3 times
  226. What are the goals of therapy for schizophrenia?
    • reduce symptoms
    • prevent return of symptoms
    • minimize side effects of meds
    • help them function more normally in society
  227. What does treatment for schizophrenia usually require (3 things)?
    • medication
    • hospitalization
    • supportive counseling
  228. T/F: the same drugs that work for treating adults also work for treating kids with schizophrenia.
    true
  229. Do you see more of a decrease in the (-) or the (+) symptoms when children with schizophrenia take meds?
    dec. in (+) symptoms (hallucinations/delusions)
  230. What is the main problem with kids taking meds for schizophrenia?
    • they are more prone to side effects regardless of the dose or length of use
    • must be monitored more closely
  231. What disease is the opposite of schizophrenia?
    Parkinson's
  232. How many kids with schizophrenia have to stop drug treatments?
    1/3
  233. What class of drugs is used to treat schizophrenia?
    neuroleptics/antipsychotics
  234. How do antipsychotics work?
    they block dopamine receptors in the brain
  235. Antipsychotics have been highly successful in treating the ____ symptoms of schizophrenia?
    (+)
  236. What is the primary side effect of neuroleptics/antipsychotics?
    • tardive dyskinesia
    • *motor problems
    • *drag feet when walk, shuffle
    • *tics
    • *tongue hangs out
    • also dystonia
    • *muscle spasms
  237. What disorder is dystonia associated with?
    CO schizophrenia
  238. What disorder is tardive dyskinesia associated with?
    CO schizophrenia
  239. What are some secondary complaints/side effects of antipsychotic drugs?
    • excessive weight gain
    • sexual impairment in males
    • constipation
  240. What kind of drug is thorazine?
    antipsychotic/neuroleptic
  241. What are some antipsychotics?
    • Zyprexa
    • Seroquel
    • Haloperidol
    • Risperidone
    • Chlorpromazine (thorazine)
    • Abilify (an add-on)
  242. What is the typical compliance rate for antipsychotics?
    40-60% (norm for any drug)
  243. What is the vital compliment to medications when treating schizophrenia?
    long term care
  244. T/F: group therapy is better for treating schizophrenia.
    true
  245. What are the different components of therapy for schizophrenia?
    • psychotherapy
    • group therapy
    • family support
    • psychosocial rehab and skills training
  246. What did people use to call learning disabilities?
    minimal brain damage
  247. What is the problem with the Education for All Handicapped Children Act?
    • there is no exclusion or inclusion criteria
    • problematic definition
    • each state has their own definition
  248. What was the old term used to describe a language disability?
    aphasia
  249. What term is used to describe a language disorder now?
    "specific language disorder"
  250. What is reception?
    comprehension of communications sent by others
  251. What is expression?
    production of language
  252. What comes first, expression or reception, in language?
    reception
  253. What are the basic components of expression?
    • phonology
    • articulation
    • morphology
    • syntax
    • pragmatics
  254. What is the sounds of language and the rules for combining them/
    phonology
  255. What is the actual production of speech sounds?
    articulation
  256. _____ is the formation of words, including the use of prefixes and suffixes to give meaning?
    morphology
  257. _____ is the organization of words into phrases and sentences?
    syntax
  258. What is the use of language in social contexts?
    pragmatics
  259. What are the 3 subtypes of language disorders defined by DSM?
    • phonological
    • expressive
    • receptive/expressive
  260. _____ is the failure to use age-appropriate and dialect-appropriate speech sounds?
    Phonological disorder
  261. T/F: most kids outgrow phonological disorder.
    true
  262. _____ is diagnosed when scores from standardized measures of expressive language are substantially below scores for nonverbal intelligence and receptive language?
    Expressive disorder
  263. ____ is diagnosed when a child has a problem with both phonological language and expressive language, and are given a nonverbal IQ test to rule our intellectual problems?
    receptive/expressive disorder
  264. Which language disorder is most severe?
    receptive/expressive
  265. T/F: Boys outnumber girls for language disorders, but not for phonological ones.
    true
  266. What is the prevalence of language disorders in clinical vs. regualar population?
    71% clinical vs. 5% for each type in real life
  267. T/F: most kids outgrow language disorders by 6 or 7 years old and if not then, by adolescence.
    true
  268. What are some potential causes of language disorders?
    • ear infections during the first year of life
    • temporal processing deficit
    • *differences in the way that neurons fire in response to various sounds
    • genetic (heritable)
  269. Wha did people used to think was the underlying cause of stuttering?
    emotional problem
  270. When does stuttering peak?
    5 years of age
  271. T/F: stuttering has a sudden onset.
    false; gradual
  272. How long does stuttering usually take to onset?
    2 years
  273. T/F: some children do not outgrow stuttering.
    true
  274. Is stuttering more common in boys?
    • yes
    • 3:1
  275. T/F: stuttering only occurs in low social classes.
    false; all social classes
  276. T/F: stuttering can be genetic.
    true
  277. T/F: stuttering is fairly rare
    true; only about 1%
  278. What is the treatment for stuttering?
    • regulated breathing
    • tell child to stop talking when stuttering starts
    • teach parents to slow their speech
    • teach parents to remove the pressure of speech
  279. What are the 3 types of learning disabilities?
    • dyslexia
    • dysgraphia
    • dyscalcula
  280. T/F: learning disabilities are very common in childhood
    true
  281. T/F: learning disabilities are lifelong problems, but they tend to get better with age.
    true
  282. What is the most common learning disability?
    reading disability
  283. How does DSM define a learning disability?
    • child's ability is substantially below the expected norm (2 STDs)
    • they may have an average IQ but in one area they struggle
    • struggle to pronounce words
    • limited vocab
    • not fluid
    • slow readers
    • low comprehension of what they read
  284. T/F: kids with learning disabilities are likely to have other problems.
    true
  285. What are some other problems that kids with a learning disability might have?
    • depression
    • poor self-worth
    • noncompliance
    • overactivity
    • social skill deficits
  286. What is the dropout rate of kids with learning disabilities?
    40%
  287. 75% (3/4) of kids with ______ still have problems by the time they reach high school?
    a learning disability diagnosed in elementary school
  288. What is the neurobiological cause of learning disabilities?
    • planum temporale in the brain is the same size on both right and left sides in kids with a reading LD
    • in normal kids, the left side is larger
  289. When do these abnormalities in the left hemisphere occur in the brain of a child with LD?
    between the 5th and 7th months of fetal development
  290. What are the 2 types of treatment for learning disabilities?
    • Code Emphasis Approach
    • Whole Language Approach
  291. The ______ approach to LDs focuses on decoding words and recognizing words. It works from the bottom up.
    Code emphasis
  292. The ________ approach starts from the top down and the child learns entire words and ideas.
    Whole language
  293. T/F: the best treatment for a child with an LD is to use both approaches.
    true
  294. What are the research supports for the Code Emphasis approach?
    kids show gains in achievement
  295. What are the research supports for the Whole Language approach?
    child's attitude towards reading improves
  296. According to DSM, what do you have to have to be diagnosed with Tourette's?
    • multiple motor tics
    • at least one vocal tic
    • before 18
    • tics may occur many times a day, everyday, for more than 1 year
  297. T/F: both motor and vocal tics in Tourette's are involuntary.
    true
  298. What are the premovement potential studies?
    • For Tourette's: show a lack of neuronal activity prior to a tic
    • proves that tics are completely involuntary
    • but stress seems to increase the tics
  299. What is the most common vocal tic?
    inarticulate sounds
  300. What is palilalia?
    repeating one's own last words, phrases or sentences
  301. What is coprilalia?
    • saying inappropriate things
    • only 15% suffer this
  302. What is echolalia?
    repeating someone else's last words, phrase or sentence
  303. T/F: the symptoms of Tourette's tend to disappear when the individual is focused.
    true
  304. T/F: the symptoms of Tourette's tend to wax and wane.
    true
  305. What disorder does Tourette's have a high comorbidity with?
    OCD
  306. What is the average age of onset for Tourette's?
    7 years old
  307. T/F: the symptoms of Tourette's might decrease in adolescence/adulthood.
    true
  308. T/F: it is fairly common to carry the gene for Tourette's but not display it. (1/200)
    true
  309. T/F: chronic tic disorder (partial expression)is more common than the complete form of Tourette's.
    true
  310. Is Tourette's more common in boys or girls?
    • boys
    • 3:1
  311. T/F: Tourette's is found in all races, but not across all social classes.
    false; found everywhere!
  312. Which disorder is autosomal dominant?
    Tourette's
  313. What is penetrance?
    • In Tourette's:
    • 30% of females with the TS gene don't show any symptoms
    • 1% of males with the TS gene don't show any symptoms
    • So, we don't know what makes it penetrant into the male phenotype
  314. What is thought to be the main cause of Tourette's?
    genetics
  315. T/F: the gene for Tourette's is found on a sex chromosome.
    false
  316. What is the main treatment for Tourette's?
    • to reduce tics:
    • antidopaminergic drugs/antipsychotics
    • ---they don't get rid of the tics, they only dampen them
  317. T/F: if someone has minor tics, they probably don't need any treatment.
    true

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