Brad\'s Final Part 1.txt

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  1. The RT is often called upon to assist the physician in the process of?
    diagnostic reasoning
  2. Is th euse of cognitive skills in communicating, selecting assessment tests, interpreting results, formulating solutions, and evaluating treatment plans.
    diagnostic reasoning
  3. The RT does not determine?
    The medical diagnosis
  4. In this stage you review the PT's chart to identify the name, age, gender, chief complaints, history, present illness, and the physician's initial orders?
  5. in this stage you would enter the PT's room and introduce yourself. Should take place 4-12 feet, this sets the tone, introduce yourself and adress the PT by their formal name.
    Introductory stage
  6. How many ft from the PT is the social space.
  7. what are the ways to show genuine concern.
    Face the patient squarely, use eye contact appropriately, maintain an open posture, Concider appropriate touch, and be an active listener.
  8. This term is used for the precuationary measures that clinicians should take to prtect themselves against possible axposure to the body fluids of patients.
    universal precautions
  9. are needed in all situations in which you may contact blood, saliva, or sputum.
  10. if you are in contact with splashes, airborne droplets of body fluids you should wear?
    masks and protective eyewear
  11. Most common way in shich health care workers are exposed to transmissible diseases.
    accidental needle stick
  12. Patients that are experiencing _____ or ______ have a hard time concentrating on the content of an interview until thier compfort is restored.
    Pain or duifficulty breathing
  13. Sighing, restlessness, looking into spacem and avoiding eye contact may be clues that the PT is experiencing?
    Physical or pychological discomfort
  14. Asking for clarification tells the patient that you wan to make sure?
    you get it right
  15. Patient feeld free to talk about important personal things, projecting a snese of undivided attention, introduction establishes your professional role and expresses interest in the patient, professional conduct shows respect for the PT, and you are relaxed/conversational style of communication with questions and statements that communicate empathy that ecourages patients to express their concerns.
    Well structured interview
  16. Contains demographic data, date and source, brief description of patient's condition at the time or patient profile, chief complaint, history of present illness, past history or past medical history, family history, social and enviromental history, review of systems, and signature are all apart of?
    the complete health history
  17. Usually found on the fist page of chart. contains the name, addressm age, birth date, birthplace, race, antionality, marital status, religion, occupation, and source of referal.
    demographic data
  18. is the estimate of reliability of historian
    date and source of history
  19. reason for seeking health care.
    chief complaint
  20. chronological description of each symptom: onset, frequency and duration, location and radiation, severity,quality, aggravation/alleviating factors, and associated manifestations.
    History of present illness
  21. contains childhood diseases and development, hospitalizations, surgeries, injuries, accidents, major illnesses, allergies, drugs and medications, immunizations, habits, and general heath and sources of previous health care.
    Past history or past medical history
  22. contains familial disease history, family history, marital history, and family relationships.
    Family history
  23. contains education, military experience, occupational history, religious and social activities, living arrangements, hobbies and recreation, satisfaction.stress with life stiuations, and recent travle or other events that might affect health
    social and enviromental history
  24. although variations in recording styles do exist, all histories contain the following:
    general background, screening info, and descriptions of present illness/status
  25. Is the health of the current family of a patient who was adopted important for identification of communicable and environmentally related diseases?
  26. A history of the patients's true blood relatives is needed to assess?
    gentically transmitted diseases or illnesses
  27. In addition to documenting the current health status of the family membersm a review of diseases with ________________is also performed.
    strong hereditary or familial tendencies
  28. frequently review dieases known to occur in the PT's family
    pertinent positives
  29. diseases denied by the patient to be in their history.
    pertinent negatives
  30. if the patient has a cough what should you inquire?
    a brief description in their won words: productive, posstion, worsen with exprcises, sleep with more than one pillow, etc.
  31. is the substance expelled from the tracheobronchial tree, pharynx, mouth, sinusesm and nose by coughing or clearing the throat.
  32. Refers stricktly to secretions from the lungs and tracheobronchial tree.
  33. The tracheobronchial tree normally secretes sputum up to how much a day?
  34. Sputum is moved upward by the wavelike motion of ________, lining the larynx, tracheam and bronchi, and it is usually swallowed unnoticed
  35. Excessive sputum is most often caused by inflammation of the mucous glands that line the _______________.
    tracheobronchial tree
  36. Inflammation of the glands in the tracheobronchial tree most often occur from:
    Infection, smoking, and allergies
  37. Sputum should be described by:
    color, consistency, odor, quantity, time of day, adn presence of blood or other matter.
  38. should be monitored and recorded as often as necessary for the safety of the patient.
    Vital signs
  39. The initial vital sign reading is referred to as?
    the baseline
  40. A series of vital sign measurements over time establishes?
    a trend
  41. To evaluate whether a patient has "normal" vital signs, you must understand what is normal for the patient's:
    age, disease, and enviroment.
  42. In the field of medicine, compairison of vital signs, other signs, and symptoms is called?
    differential diagnosis
  43. The key to expert assessment of vital signs at the bedside is to be constantly aware:
    look, listen, touch, question, validate, reassess, analyze, and trend
  44. Are routinely measured aas part of the physical examination and usually as part of every putpatient appointment.
    Height and weight
  45. For hospitalized PT's, the admitting height and weight is obtained and recorded either when the PT goes to pre-admitting testing services (PATS) or by the admitting nurse; thereafter, weight is usually measured how often?
    every day or two
  46. if there is a question of either dehydration or fluid overload, fluid intake and output (I&O) what is monitored?
  47. is suggested by labored, rapid, irregular, or shallow breathinf that may be accompanied by coughing, choking, wheezing, dyspnea, chest pain, or a bluich color of the oral mucosa, lips, and fingers. Often speaks in short, choppy sentences.
    Cardiopulmonary distress
  48. is recognized by restlessness, fidgeting, tense, looks, and difficulty communication normally and may be accompanied by cool hands and sweaty palms.
  49. is suggested by drawn features, moaning, shallow breathing, guarding (protecting the painful area), and refusal to deep breathe or cough.
  50. These are signs of extreme distress that require immediate intervention.
    Bleeding and loss of conciousness
  51. Sounds generated during percussion of the chest that are moderately low-pitched sounds that can be easily heard.
    Normal resonance
  52. Percussion may produce a sound with characteristics just the opposite of resonance is referred to as?
    dull or flat.
  53. If the sound from percussion is high ptched, short in duration, and not loud it is simply described as?
    decreased resonance
  54. Increased resonance to percussion indicates?
    excessive air trapped in the pleural space or lung
  55. decreased resonance to percussion indicates?
    fluid in the pleural space or consolidation of the lung
  56. Abnormalities of the lungs are hard to detect if the PT's chest wall is?
    obese or overly muscular
  57. The PT is instructed to take a deep, full inspiration and to hold it. The examiner then determines the lowest margine of resonance by percussing over the lower lung field and moving dowward in small increments until a definite change in the percussion is detected. This is a method to:
    estimate diaphragm movement.
  58. is a slight variation to the tracheal breath sound and is heard around the upper half of the sternum on the anterior chest and between the scapulae on the posterior chest. Not as loud as the tracheal breath sound, lower in pitch, and has equal inspiratory components.
    bronchovesicular breath sounds
  59. The involvement of multiple nerve roots suggest the presence of inflammatory processes such as?
    Guillian-Barre syndrome
  60. The two spinal nerves important for respiratory function are the?
    right and left phrenic nerves
  61. arise from the cervical spine roots of C3 to C5
    phrenic nerves
  62. Damage to this area and it nerves can result in complete paralysis of the diaphragm and make the PT dependent of ventilator for life.
    C3-C5 phrenic nerves
  63. is being unaware that one is ill
  64. is the ability to locate one's own body parts.
  65. is typically the first out of the three areas of orientation that is lost when brain injury ir present, followed by place and person.
  66. Are the most important parts of the neurological examination. Change in either is usually the first clue to CNS dysfunction.
    Level of consciousness (LOC) and mentation
  67. Whena an abnormality that affects a local area of the brain causes loss of consciousness, it usuallly does this by?
    increasing pressure over the brainstem.
  68. When excessive pressure is applied, brainstem functions are lost _________.
    in a predictable sequence.
  69. It is the most widely used instrument for quantifying neurologic impairment. Used to test the best motor responcem best verbal responsem and eye opening.
    Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
  70. GCS is poorly suited for patients who have impaired verbal responces caused by:
    Aphasia, hearing loss, or tracheal
  71. GCS scale goes from:
    3(deep coma/death) to 15( fully awake)
  72. Patients w/ GCS scores of ________ often are admitted to a non-ICU observational unit unless neurological examinationor a diagnostic test reveals a lesion or abnormality that warrants ICU.
  73. Scores of _______ on the GCS indicate a significant insult with a moderate coma
  74. Patients with a GCS score less than ____ have a severe coma and typically require endotracheal intubation.
  75. is the most widely used instrument for quantifying neurologis impairment.
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Brad\'s Final Part 1.txt
2011-12-04 01:47:49
Final RESP132

Final RESP132
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