Brad\'s Final Part 2.txt

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Brad\'s Final Part 2.txt
2011-12-03 20:48:45
Final RESP132

Final RESP132
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  1. WBC's that are normally seen in the peripheral blood are:
    Neutophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes
  2. Neutophils, eosinophilsm and basophils are included in the general catagory of?
  3. Are also known as polymorphonuclear neutrophilic leukocytes and segmented neutrophilic granulocytes.
  4. Neutrophils usually constitute __________of the blood's WBCs
  5. less mature neutophil in which the nucleus has not yet segmented.
  6. Bands make up _______ of the WBCs but increase dramatically with severe infection.
  7. In various abnormal conditions, the more immature cells may be seen:
    metayelocyte, myelocyte, promyelocyte, and myeloblast
  8. Contain enzymes that destroy bacteria and other invaders. They are capable of phagocytosis.
  9. WBCs come in five different types, the most commonof which is the?
    Neutrophil (1st major line of defence)
  10. are produced in the bone marrow where they are stored in lerge numbers.
  11. How long are neutophils in the blood before they pass into the tissues where they perform therir primary function and die soon after.
    6-12 hours
  12. The life span of a neutrophil is about ______ from myeloblast in the bone marrow to its death in the tissues.
    10 days
  13. The neutrophil spends a shorter time in the bone marrow pool when?
    significant infection is present.
  14. Once neutrophils pass into the circulating blood, they are continuopusly and rapidly exchanged between two intravascular pools:
    the circulating and marginated pools
  15. Represents neutophils that are freely circulating in the bloodstream.
    Circulating pool
  16. represents a large number of neutrophils that are adhering to the walls of the blood vessels.
    Marginated pool
  17. Marginated neutrophils are not counted in the?
  18. Neutrophils shift from one pool to the other based on?
    physiological conditions
  19. Physical or emotional stress causes a sudden release of catecholamines that liberates a large number of marginated neutrophils and results in what is called:
  20. occurs when a large number of the neutrophils in the circulating pool shirt to the marginated pool.The actual number of neutrophils in the intrvascular pool is not decreased with this.
  21. a type of granulocyte with large granules that stain bright red.
  22. have large granules that strongly take up the basic stain (dark blue to purple)
  23. These cells appear to hvae complementary interactions in allergic reactions.
    Eosinophils and basophils
  24. these also help defend the body against parasitic infestations.
  25. Eosinophils make up _______ of WBCs
  26. Basophils make up _____ of WBCs
  27. These cells are important in defence agains viral, TB and fungal infections
  28. two types of lymphocytes
    T cells and Bcells
  29. lyphocytes involved with cell mediated immunity
  30. lymphocytes that are involved in antibody production
    B cells
  31. Lymphocytes make up _______ of WBCs. Most are T cells
  32. separation of T cells abd B cells can be done only with special studies. These studies have a spcial anitbody that react with the T or B cell. That antibody is called
  33. T cells ahve two sub groups:
    helper and suppressor cells.
  34. AKA inducer cells provide help for anibody production and other immune responses and identified by a unique surface antigen known as CD4.
    Helper (T4 cells)
  35. these cells play a role in suppressing or dampening immune responses. Uniques antogen CD8 and called T8 cells.
    Suppressor cells
  36. CD4 counts provide infor about PT's w/?
  37. the largest WBC, make sup 2-10% of leukocytes and is know as a macrophage
  38. The primary function of the monocyte is?
  39. In the lung, these play a key role in clearing inhaled particualte matter.
  40. is an abnormal increase in the WBC count
  41. An abnormal decrease in the WBC count is known as
  42. an increase in neutrophils is called neutrophilia or a
    neutrophilic leukocytosis
  43. a decrease in neutrophils is called
  44. Increase of neutophils as a result of proliferation of cells in the bone marrow.
  45. Increase of neutrophils as a result of stimulation of the bone marrow secondary to other diseases or disorders,
  46. is common responce to inflamation and infection
  47. Significant leukocytosis with a left shift (increase in bands) indicates the bone marrow is attempting to respond to
  48. occurs when marginated neutrophils are shifted to the circulating pool and are counted in the CBC
  49. aka eosinophilic leukocytosis (increase in eosinophils) is often seen in allergic states and parasitic infestations
  50. eosinophilic leukocytosis (increase in eosinophils) is often seen in allergic states and parasitic infestations ______, but it can also be seen in certain skin and gastrointestinal disorders
  51. increase in basophils) is associated with many of the same disorders that cause eosinophilia and myeloproliferative disorders.
  52. is a generic term that includes spirometry and flow volume loop (FVL) before and after bronchodilator inhalation, lung volume studies, and diffusion capacity (DL) studies.sometimes also includes airway resistance (Raw), arterial blood gas (ABG) measurements, pulmonary response to exercise, and bronchial provocation.
    Pulmonary function testing (PFT)
  53. measures inspiratory and expiratory airflow rates and usable lung volume
  54. evaluate both usable and residual lung volumes
    Lung Colume Studies
  55. measure lung alveolar surface area available for gas exchange
    DL studies
  56. assess the balance between ventilation and lung perfusion
    ABG measurements
  57. measures physical responses to exercise.
    Pulmonary exercise stress testing (PEST)
  58. measures the airway response to noxious stimuli and is useful in identifying patients with asthma.
    Bronchoprovocation testing
  59. is the most important factor influencing lung size and predicted values.
  60. Weight is relatively unimportant in determining lung volumes and flow rates unless they have a BMI of
  61. Males generally have larger lung volumes and flow rates, but who achieves max. lung volume at a younger age?
  62. may be relatively accurately calculated by measuring the inside of the chest wall to determine total intra-thoracic volume, then measuring the outside of the heart and great vessels to determine intrathoracic tissue volume
  63. is the amount of gas left in the lung after the patient exhales all that is physically possible. It is obtained from the studies already described in the TLC section
    Residual volume (RV)
  64. can be determined by subtracting the SVC from the TLC or by subtracting the ERV from the FRC (described later). It is usually increased when air trapping is present.
  65. is the volume that can be maximally exhaled from a resting lung status. It can be easily measured with a spirometer. Obesity, poor effort, and restrictive lungs reduce it.
    expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
  66. is the amount of gas left in the chest when the patient is at resting lung status. It is obtained with the studies already described in the TLC section. It represents a balance between the expanding chest wall forces and the contractile rebound forces of elastic lung tissue.
    Functional residual capacity (FRC)
  67. an age-related, progressive, bilateral hearing loss, is the most common cause of auditory impairment in the United States. This condition affects about 23% of adults between the ages of 65 and 75 years. In the 70- to 80-year-old age group, as many as 50% of older adults have hearing impairment that actually affects their communication skills
  68. defined as a symptom rather than a disease, is also more prevalent in the an auditory perception not caused by external sounds. It may be described as ringing, buzzing, roaring or chirping.
  69. is defined as a damaging effect on the eighth cranial nerve or in the organs of hearing or balance. The diminished hearing capacity that health care practitioners observe in institutionalized patients may be inflated
  70. Simple and accurate methods assess the presence or absence of hearing loss. Some that are commonly used are :
    whispered voice, a tuning fork, finger rub, a portable AudioScope, and the Hearing Handicapped Inventory for the Elderly-Screening (HHIE-S) questionnaire.
  71. a normal age-related change in the lens of the eye, usually results in correctable farsightedness. can occur in adults as early as age 40, it is much more common in older adults
  72. has been identified as the second most prevalent disability in adults over age 65 years
    Visual impairment
  73. Low pH of plasma. An abnormal buil-up of hydrogen ions in the blood.
  74. A pH less than normal.
  75. High pH of plasma. An abnormal decrease in they hydrogen ion concentration of the blood.
  76. A pH elevated above normal.
  77. Occurs when the portion of the tidal volume (VT) that does not come into contact with blood flow is increased.
    Dead Space Ventilation
  78. Abnormal elevation of PaCO2.
  79. Abnormal elevation of arterial CO2 levels.
  80. Abnormal decrease of PaCO2.
  81. Abnormal decrease of arterial CO2 levels.
  82. An abnormal reduction in the partial pressure of O2 in the arterial blood.
  83. A lack of oxygen.
  84. The maximum amount of air the patient exhales after a fall, deep inspiration.
    Forced Vital Capacity
  85. Adding two or more of the lung volumes together results in _________.
    Lung Capacity
  86. Are clinically useful measurements of lung function such as VT, IRV, or ERV.
    Lung Volumes
  87. The vlume of air inhaled or exhaled in 1 min.
    Minute Volume (VE)
  88. A piece of equipment that measures a patient's airflows and volumes of gas moved over time.
  89. Apiece of equipment that measures a patient's airflows and volumes of gas moved over time and is capable of displaying the information in graphic form.
  90. The tracing produced by a spirograph.
  91. These studies provide vital Info. about the patient's cardiopulmonary status. They measure the ability of the lungs to put O2 into, and remove CO2 from, the blood.
    Arterial blood gas
  92. In the ABG test this is also analyzed. is often important to evaluate in the patient w/ cardiopulmonary disease.
    Acid-Base status
  93. What is the common site where and ABG is drawn?
    radial artery
  94. How do you transport and ABG?
    in an ice bath
  95. What must be removed from the blood sample before it is sent for analysis?
    air bubbles
  96. How long should you compress the site from and ABG draw?
  97. means the partial pressure of O2 in the arterial blood.
  98. reflects the ability of the lungs to allow the transfer of O2 from the enviroment to the circulating blood.
  99. will be affected with diffusion defect and by overall hypoventilation and may lead to hypoxemia
  100. is a PaO2 below the predicted or normal range
  101. Means SaO2
    Oxygen saturation
  102. is an index of the actual amount of O2 bound to hemoglobin expressed as a percentage of the total capacity and can be determined only from a co-oximeter.
  103. What is CaO2
    Arterial oxygen content
  104. is a function of the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin and dissolved in the plasma.
  105. O2 assesment involves two basic steps.
    The measurement provided by ABGs and the patient's tissue oxygenation status.
  106. O2 in the blood i primarily bound to?
  107. A smaller portion of O2 compaired to the Hb is carried by?
    Blood plasma
  108. SaO2 represents what?
    the amount of O2 bound to Hb
  109. Is the measurement of the pressure or tention of oxygen in the plasma of the arterial blood,
  110. PaO2 reflects the ability of the lungs to allow the transfer of O2 from the enviroment to _______?
    the circulatting blood
  111. Normal PaO2 is based on three things, what are they?
    Barometric pressure, Age, and FiO2
  112. As age increases the efficientcy of the lungs to oxygenate the blood is ___?
  113. The Formula for PaO2.
  114. One of the causes of hypoxemia, occurs in most patientswhen th inhaled gas does not match up with pulmonary cpillary blood flow.
    V/Q mismatch
  115. Means ventilation/perfusion mismatch
    V/Q mismatch
  116. A cause of hypoxemia, pulmonary capillary blood, which flows by alveoli that are not ventilated, does not pick up and O2 and thus returns to the systemic circulation unchanged.
  117. Causes hypoxemia, is abnormalities in the lung structure that slow the diffusion of O2 from the inhaled gas through the alveolar-capillary membrane.
    diffusion defect
  118. Hypoxemia caused by low breathing
    pure hypoventilation
  119. A patient with lung disease will usually have hypoxemia due to both ______ and ______.
    V/Q mismatch and hypoventilation
  120. hypoxemia can be cause by breathing in____ or from a faulty machine?
    low PiO2
  121. Normal value of SaO2
  122. is an index of actual amount of O2 bound to Hb and is expressed as a percentage of the total capacity.
  123. True reliable SaO2 can only be calculated by a?
  124. PaO2 and SaO2 have a non-linear relationship. True or false?
  125. Normal value of HbCO.
  126. is a reflection of quantity of CO bound to the Hb molecules and can be obtained only from the co-oximeter
  127. is a highly diffusable, odorless, and colorless gas that has an inffiinty for Hb 200 to 250 times that of O2.
  128. Inhalation of gas containing CO will result in shifts of the oxyhemoglobin curve dissociation curve. It will curve to the ____?
  129. Presence of CO does what to the CaCO2?
    it decreases
  130. CO promoted Tissue
  131. It reduces the O2 carrying capacity of the Hb and inhibits unloading of O2 at the tissue.
  132. Occurs when the respiratory system fails to oxygenate arterial blood adequately.
  133. Large P(A-a)O2 indicates?
    severe respiratory abnormality.
  134. Hypoxemia occuring with a normal P(A-a)O2 may be the result of?
    low PiO2
  135. if the sum of PaO2 and PaCo2 is 110 - 130 mmHg then the cause of hypoxemia is?
    Low PiO2
  136. if the sum of PaO2 and PaCO2 is less than 110 mmHg then the cause of hypoxemia is?
    defects in the lung's ability to oxygenate the blood.
  137. if the sum of PaO2 and PaCO2 is greater than 130 mmHg than the cause of hypoxemia is?
    is on supplimental breathing or an error.
  138. Assessment if the Hb concentration from either the complete blood cell count or co-oximetry measuremtn is crucial for identiofying the potential for?
  139. A reduction of CaO2 can occur with?
    CO poisoning
  140. is identified when trhe O2 level drops below 90%
  141. Cyanosis is not recognized in patients with ____.
  142. remove a small amount of acid but help restore the buffer capacity of the body fluids by adding HCO3.
    The Kidneys
  143. Resp. and renal disfunction may cause.
    acid-base disorders
  144. is an abnormal condition in which there is a primary reduction in alveolar ventilation relative to the rate of CO2 production. It indicates that ventilation is inadequate.
    Respiratory acidosis
  145. in acute respiratory acidosis Plasma HCO3 increases ____ for every 10-15mmHg that PaCO2 increases.
  146. In chronic respiratory acidosis plasma HCO3 increases ____ for every 10-15 mmHG that PaCO2 increases.
    4 mEq/L
  147. is an abnormal condition in which there is a primary increase in alveolar ventilation relative to the rate of CO2 production.
    Respiratory Alkalosis
  148. Acute Resp. Alkal. will result in a decrease of HCO3 of ____ for every 5mmHg of PaCO2 decreases.
  149. Chronic resp. alkal. will result in a decrease of HCO3 of _____ for every 10mmHG of PaCO2 decreases.
  150. is a generic term that includes spirometry, flow volume loop, before and after bronchodialtor inhalation, lung volume studies, and diffusion capacity testing.
    Pulmonary function testing.
  151. Average Tidal Volume?
  152. Normal VE is?