Bio Psy

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  1. T/F
    An evolutionary explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved.
  2. T/F
    Mentalism refers to the view that only the mind really exists and that the physical world could not exist unless some mind were aware of it.
  3. T/F
    Genes are the units of heredity.
  4. T/F

    It is possible for two heterozygous brown-eyed parents to have blue-eyed children.
  5. T/F
    The sex chromosomes X and Y are known as autosomal genes.
  6. T/F
    Sex-limited genes are found only on the X and Y chromosome.
  7. T/F
    Humans have stopped evolving.
  8. The primary difference between biological psychologists and neuroscientists is that biological psychologists place greater emphasis on studying:
  9. Understanding how genes, nutrition, and experience work together to produce a tendency toward a particular sexual orientation is an example of a(n) ____ explanation.
  10. Which type of explanation might describe the presence of a behavior in a particular species by showing how that behavior increased the reproductive success of the species?
  11. In a small population of sheep, the dominant male may produce many more offspring than the other males, spreading his genes. This is an example of:
    genetic drift.
  12. The amygdala appears to be an important part of the brain for experiencing fear. Which of the following is an example of a functional explanation of fear?
    describing why fear improves the chances for survival
  13. The notion that the mind and body are different in substance is called ____.
  14. Descartes suggested that the mind and brain interact in the:
    pineal gland
  15. A monist believes that mind and body are:
    the same thing.
  16. A researcher is interested in how the nervous system responds when the organism is in a certain emotional situation. This researcher might be identified as a(n):
  17. What are chromosomes composed of?
  18. Enzymes serve as ____.
    genetic templates
  19. Chemically, what is the route from genes to their expression?
    proteins to DNA to RNA
  20. Suppose "A" is a dominant gene and "a" is a recessive gene. One parent has genes Aa and the other parent has genes aa. What genes will the children probably have?
    Half will be Aa, half aa.
  21. A trait not expressed when combined with a dominant trait is called a(n) ____ trait.
  22. Color vision deficiency is more common in males than in females because it is controlled by a:
    Y-linked gene.
  23. A gene is found that controls the age at which a man grows bald, if at all. That gene seldom affects women, even if they have the gene. What kind of gene is this MOST likely to be?
    a sex-limited gene
  24. What is TRUE about a newborn baby with PKU?
    It can avoid becoming mentally retarded by following a strict diet.
  25. Mutations are:
    changes in single genes.
  26. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to evolution?
    Evolutionary success is assessed by the number of one's offspring surviving to reproduce
  27. Which statement about most psychological experiments using nonhuman animals is correct?
    The research is regulated by animal care committees.
  28. What are the two kinds of cells in the nervous system?
    neurons and glia
  29. Prior to the work of Santiago Ramon y Cajal, what did many investigators believe?
  30. The tip of an axon physically merged with the next neuron.
  31. The cell membrane is comprised of two layers of:
  32. Small, charged molecules can cross the cell membrane through:
    protein channels.
  33. The sites at which the cell synthesizes new protein molecules are called:
    endoplasmic reticula.
  34. The branching fibers that form the information-receiving pole of the nerve cells are called:
  35. Some dendrites contain additional short outgrowths. What are these outgrowths called?
    dendritic spines
  36. Which of the following is the correct order of transmission of information within a neuron?
    dendrite, cell body, axon
  37. What does myelin cover?
    some axons in vertebrates and none in invertebrates
  38. Gaps in the insulating material that surrounds axons are known as:
    nodes of Ranvier
  39. What is the point from which an axon releases chemicals into the synapse?
    the presynaptic terminal
  40. If you were to accidentally touch a hot stove with your hand, you would quickly pull your hand away. The information carried to the muscles in your arm to make them contract was carried by:
    efferent neurons.
  41. What would a neuron in the pons be called that receives information only from other cells in the pons and sends information only to other cells in the pons?
  42. Which of the following is NOT true of astrocytes?
    They make up the myelin sheaths in the periphery of the body.
  43. ____ in the brain and spinal cord and ____ in the periphery are specialized types of glia that build the myelin sheaths that surround neurons.
    oligodendrocytes; schwann cells
  44. What is the mechanism that prevents or slows some chemicals from entering the brain, while allowing others to enter?
  45. a blood-brain barrier
  46. Which of the following molecules would be able to passively cross the blood-brain barrier?
    small, uncharged molecules
  47. What is the main source of nutrition for vertebrate neurons?
  48. Why does the brain need thiamine?
  49. to enable it to metabolize glucose
  50. What leads to Korsakoff's syndrome?
    thiamine deficiency resulting from alcoholism
  51. The membrane of a neuron is composed of ____ with ____ embedded in them.
    fat molecules; proteins
  52. What is the difference in voltage called that typically exists between the inside and the outside of a neuron?
    resting potential
  53. The resting potential is mainly the result of?
    negatively charged proteins inside the cell
  54. What is the approximate resting potential of the inside of a neuron's membrane, relative to the outside?
  55. -70 millivolts
  56. When a neuron’s membrane is at rest, the concentration gradient tends to move sodium ____ the cell and the electrical gradient tends to move it ____ the cell.
    into, into
  57. The sodium-potassium pump, repeatedly transports three ____ ions out of the cell while drawing two ____ ions into it.
    sodium; potassium
  58. Concentration gradients lead to what kind of movements?
    the movement of ions to areas of their lowest concentrations
  59. When a membrane is at rest, what attracts sodium ions to the inside of the cell?
    both an electrical gradient and a concentration gradient
  60. What is the result if a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative potential?
  61. What is the result if a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly closer to zero?
  62. A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches what level?
    the threshold of excitation
  63. Stimulus A depolarizes a neuron just barely above the threshold. Stimulus B depolarizes a neuron to 10 mV beyond threshold. What can we expect to happen?
  64. Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce the same response in the neurons.
  65. A drug would prevent an action potential if it:
    blocks the movement of sodium across the membrane.
  66. The primary feature of a neuron that prevents the action potential from traveling back from where it just passed is the:
    refractory period.
  67. The presence of myelin and the diameter of the axon:
    affect the speed of an action potential
  68. The function of a myelin sheath is to:
    increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.
  69. In a myelinated axon, where are sodium gates abundant?
    at the nodes of Ranvier
  70. Saltatory conduction ____ the velocity of action potentials, and ____ the amount of energy used by the neuron.
  71. increases; decreases
  72. Multiple sclerosis is one of several:
    demyelinating diseases
  73. A local neuron:
    is a small neuron with no axon or a very short one
  74. T/F
    Most neurons have a spontaneous firing rate, a periodic production of action potentials even without synaptic input.
  75. Specialized junctions between neurons are called:
  76. The proper order of a reflex arc is:
    sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron.
  77. Sherrington deduced that transmission at a synapse must be slower than conduction along an axon. This was based on what kind of evidence?
    the speed of reflexive responses
  78. Sherrington found that repeated stimuli within a brief time have a cumulative effect. He referred to this phenomenon as:
    temporal summation
  79. The primary difference between an EPSP and an action potential is that
    EPSPs are subthreshold events that decay over time and space.
  80. Depolarization is to ____ as hyperpolarization is to ____.
    excitation; inhibition
  81. Spatial summation refers to:
    multiple weak stimulations that occur at the same time.
  82. Which of the following patterns of post-synaptic excitation will most likely result in an action potential?
    rapid sequence of EPSPs
  83. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the same leg at the same time. Why not?
    When the interneuron sends excitatory messages to one, inhibitory messages go to the other.
  84. Which of the following would most likely result in an IPSP?
    chloride ions entering the cell
  85. An EPSP is to ____ as an IPSP is to ____.
    depolarization; hyperpolarization
  86. After one frog's heart has been stimulated, an extract of fluid from that heart can make a second frog's heart beat faster. What conclusion did Otto Loewi draw from these results?
    Transmission at synapses is a chemical event.
  87. The correct sequence of chemical events at a synapse is:
    synthesis, transport, release, reuptake
  88. In addition to influencing other neurons, ____ dilates the nearby blood vessels, thereby increasing blood flow to that area of the brain.
    nitric oxide
  89. What provides the building blocks for synthesizing all neurotransmitters?
    substances found in the diet
  90. The catecholamines include:
    epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine.
  91. If you eat a food containing tryptophan, what can you consume with it to increase its entry to the brain?
  92. Neurotransmitter filled packets in the presynaptic neuron are called?
  93. The release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic terminal is most dependent on the influx of what ion?
  94. Exocytosis is the process by which neurotransmitters are:
    excreted into the synaptic cleft.
  95. What is the synaptic cleft?
    the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron
  96. In general, a single neuron releases ____ neurotransmitter(s), and can respond to ____ neurotransmitter(s).
    several; many
  97. What determines the effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic neuron?
    the receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
  98. What does it mean to say that acetylcholine exerts ionotropic effects?
    It opens gates for a particular ion.
  99. Receptor molecules for neurotransmitters that exert metabotropic effects are proteins that bind to ____ outside the membrane, and attach to ____ inside the membrane.
    neurotransmitters; G-proteins
  100. A hormone is a chemical that is:
    conveyed by the blood to other organs, whose activity it influences.
  101. The anterior pituitary is composed of ____, and the posterior pituitary is composed of ____.
    glandular tissue, neural tissue
  102. What would be the effect of a drug that inhibits the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?
    prolonged action of acetylcholine at its synapses
  103. After serotonin or one of the catecholamine transmitters stimulates the postsynaptic receptor, most of the transmitter molecules:
    are reabsorbed by the presynaptic cell.
  104. "Transporter" proteins transport neurotransmitters:
    back into the presynaptic neuron.
  105. COMT and MAO are:
    enzymes that convert catecholamines into inactive chemicals.
  106. Activation of autoreceptors tends to:
    decrease further neurotransmitter release.
  107. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is a(n) ____; a drug that mimics or increases the effects is a(n) ____.
    antagonist; agonist
  108. Which effect would be considered to be antagonistic?
    blocking the synthesis of neurotransmitters
  109. Which effect would be considered to be agonistic?
    stimulating the release of neurotransmitters
  110. If a drug binds to a particular receptor, it is said to:
    have an affinity for that type of receptor.
  111. With respect to drug effects, "efficacy" means the tendency of a drug to:
    activate a receptor.
  112. If a drug has high affinity and high efficacy, what effect does it have on the postsynaptic neuron?
  113. The brain area most often linked to drug addiction is the:
    nucleus accumbens.
  114. Most habit-forming drugs activate which type of synapse?
  115. Why do cocaine and amphetamine produce similar effects?
    Both increase the presence of dopamine in the synapses.
  116. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) is also known as?
  117. Opiate drugs bind to receptors in the brain for:
  118. A certain drug user experiences intensified sensations and the illusion that time is passing slowly. He also experiences problems with attention and memory. These symptoms are most characteristic of the use of which drug?
  119. Anandamide and 2-AG are believed to be the naturally occurring neurotransmitters that bind to the same receptors as which drug?
  120. LSD and other hallucinogenic drugs resemble which neurotransmitter?
  121. What are the two parts of the central nervous system?
    brain and spinal cord
  122. Together, the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system make up the ____ nervous system.
  123. When someone tickles you, the tickling sensation will be carried by neurons that are part of the ____ nervous system.
  124. An axon in your hand causes contraction of a muscle fiber in your finger as you write. This neuron belongs to which branch of the nervous system?
  125. The basal ganglia are a related cluster of cell bodies in the central nervous system. Technically, the basal ganglia should have been name the basal:
  126. The cell bodies of sensory neurons that are in clusters of neurons outside the spinal cord are called?
    dorsal root ganglia
  127. According to the Bell-Magendie law:
    ventral roots carry motor information while dorsal roots carry sensory information.
  128. In the spinal cord, white matter is comprised mostly of ____, while gray matter is mostly ____.
    myelinated axons, cell bodies
  129. You are walking after dark. A sudden noise frightens you. Your heart pounds, your pulse races, and your breathing rate increases. These responses are due to your:
    sympathetic nervous system.
  130. Digestive activity is increased by the activation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system?
    the parasympathetic
  131. Sympathetic is to ____ as parasympathetic is to ____.
    norepinephrine; acetylcholine
  132. The hindbrain consists of the:
    medulla, pons, and cerebellum.
  133. Breathing, heart rate, vomiting, salivation, coughing, and sneezing are all controlled by which structure?
  134. The raphe system ______ the brain's readiness to respond to stimuli, and sends axons to the ______.
    increases; forebrain
  135. Besides problems with balance and coordination, a person with damage to the cerebellum would also likely have problems with:
    shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli.
  136. Superior colliculus is to _____ as inferior colliculus is to _____.
    vision; hearing
  137. A group of forebrain structures is important for motivated and emotional behavior. What is the name given to this group of structures?
    limbic system
  138. One function of the thalamus is to:
    relay sensory information to the cerebral cortex.
  139. Sensory information which is not processed by the thalamus includes:
    olfactory information.
  140. An impairment of eating, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual behavior suggests possible damage to which brain structure?
  141. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in:
    a movement disorder.
  142. An individual has difficulty remembering certain things after brain damage, but all memories stored before the damage are intact. The brain area most likely damaged is the:
  143. What is contained in the ventricles of the brain?
    cerebrospinal fluid
  144. Membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord are called:
  145. A function of the cerebrospinal fluid is to:
    cushion the brain.
  146. Each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex receives most of its input from the ____ side of the body and controls the muscles on the ____ side.
    contralateral; contralateral
  147. The ______ constitutes a higher percentage of the brain in primates than in other species of comparable size.
    cerebral cortex.
  148. What deficits does a person suffer after damage to the striate cortex in the occipital lobe?
  149. The postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe is the primary area for which type of sensation?
  150. Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably suffered damage to what area of the cerebral cortex?
    parietal lobe
  151. The temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the primary target for which kind of sensory information?
  152. A tumor in the temporal lobe may give rise to:
    visual hallucinations.
  153. Which lobe contains the primary motor cortex and the prefrontal cortex?
  154. If the prefrontal cortex is damaged, an individual may:
    have difficulty remembering where they just put their keys.
  155. Which of the following brain imaging techniques does NOT provide a functional measure of brain activity?
  156. An electroencephalograph measures:
    the average activity of the cells in a given region of the brain.
  157. An ablation is:
    a brain area that has been removed.
  158. So far, it appears that the brain feature most strongly correlated with intelligence in humans is the:
    amount of gray matter.
  159. The law of specific nerve energies states that:
    every stimulation of the optic nerve is perceived as light.
  160. Light from the left half of the world strikes what part of the retina?
    the right half
  161. Why does the periphery of the retina detect faint lights better than the fovea does?
    More receptors converge their input onto each bipolar cell.
  162. In what order does visual information pass through the retina?
    receptor cells, bipolar cells, ganglion cells
  163. Cells in the retina that provide connections among themselves, as well as with bipolar and ganglion cells are known as:
    amacrine cells.
  164. The name of the point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina is called the:
    blind spot.
  165. Which of the following characterizes the fovea?
    It has the greatest perception of detail.
  166. In comparison to the rods, cones are more:
    sensitive to detail
  167. ____ are chemicals that release energy when struck by light.
  168. Chemicals that release energy when struck by light are called:
  169. In comparison to cones, rods:
    are more sensitive to dim light.
  170. If you wanted to see a faint star at night, you should:
    look slightly to one side.
  171. Initially, researchers determined how many types of receptors we have for determining color:
    through psychophysical observations.
  172. After you stare at a bright green object for a minute and look away, you see red. Which theory attempts to explain this finding?
    opponent-process theory
  173. After staring at your instructor’s red shirt for an entire class period, the negative afterimage will most likely be:
  174. Color constancy is the ability to:
    recognize the color of an object despite changes in lighting.
  175. Difficulty distinguishing between ____ and ____ is the most common form of color vision deficiency.
    red; green
  176. In the most common form of color vision deficiency people have difficulty distinguishing:
    between red and green.
  177. ____ cells axons makeup the optic nerve.
  178. The lateral geniculate nucleus is part of the:
  179. In the visual system, the ____ and ____ constantly feed information back and forth.
    thalamus; cortex
  180. The enhancement of contrast at the edge of an object is the result of:
    lateral inhibition in the retina.
  181. Horizontal cells receive their input from ____; they send output to ____.
    rods and cones; bipolar cells
  182. The enhancement of contrast at the edge of an object is primarily due to lateral inhibition by the:
    horizontal cells.
  183. Small receptive fields are to ____ cells as large receptive fields are to ____ cells.
    parvocellular; magnocellular
  184. Parvocellular neurons most likely receive input from:
    bipolar cells that receive input from cones.
  185. Being able to detect fine details of a color painting would depend most on which of the following types of ganglion cells?
  186. Once information is sent to the secondary visual cortex it:
    may return to the primary visual cortex.
  187. Within the cerebral cortex, the pathway in the visual system responsible for color information also seems to be responsible for what other information?
  188. Once within the cerebral cortex, the magnocellular pathway continues, with a dorsal branch important for:
  189. The pathway associated with integrating vision and movement progresses from the occipital cortex to the:
    parietal cortex.
  190. Damage to the ventral stream may interfere with:
    the ability to describe the shape or size of an object.
  191. In the visual system of the mammalian cerebral cortex, the dorsal stream is specialized for detecting ____, and the ventral stream is specialized for detecting ____.
  192. Which of the following would most strongly excite a simple cell in the primary visual cortex?
    square picture frame
  193. What is the shape of the receptive field to which a simple cell in the primary visual cortex responds?
    bar in a particular orientation
  194. What is one way to determine whether a given cell in the primary visual cortex is "simple" or "complex"?
    whether it can respond equally to lines in more than one location
  195. What would an investigator find concerning the properties of cells in a single column of the visual cortex?
    They have receptive fields of the same angle of orientation.
  196. Cells in the inferior temporal cortex respond vigorously to their preferred shape:
    regardless of its exact size or position on the retina.
  197. No known type of brain damage causes a person to lose the ability to recognize one person without impairing the ability to recognize others. What inference can we draw from this fact?
    No one cell is solely responsible for recognizing any one facial pattern.
  198. Color perception depends MOSTLY on the:
    parvocellular pathway.
  199. By comparing the slightly different inputs from the two eyes, you achieve:
    stereoscopic depth perception.
  200. What is the basis for differences in sensory abilities across species?
    Organisms detect a range of stimuli that are biologically relevant for that species.
  201. What is the intensity of a sound wave called?
  202. What is the perception of the intensity of a sound wave called?
  203. If two voices differ in their frequency, this means they differ in their:
    number of waves per second.
  204. The structure that we commonly refer to as the ear (on the outside of the head) is formally known as the:
  205. The eardrum is also known as the:
    tympanic membrane.
  206. The tympanic membrane connects to three tiny bones that transmit the vibrations to the:
    oval window.
  207. Which of the following are presented in the correct order when describing some of the structures that sound waves travel through as they pass from the outer ear to the inner ear?
    pinna, tympanic membrane, oval window, cochlea
  208. The malleus, incus, and stapes are small bones:
    which transmit information from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.
  209. What is the name of the receptor cells of the auditory system?
    hair cells
  210. How do sound waves ultimately result in the production of receptor potentials?
    hair cells in the cochlea vibrate, causing ion channels to open in their membrane
  211. At low frequencies, our perception of loudness is determined by:
    the number of activated hair cells.
  212. "Every sound causes one location along the basilar membrane to resonate, and thereby excites neurons in that area." This is one way to state which theory about pitch perception?
    place theory
  213. Where is the basilar membrane most sensitive to the vibrations of very high-frequency sound waves?
    closest to the cochlea
  214. To what lobe of the cerebral cortex is auditory information sent?
  215. Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in?
    difficulty in responding to sequences of sounds
  216. What kind of deafness is the result of damage to the cochlea or the hair cells?
  217. What can people with conductive deafness hear?
    their own voice better than external sounds
  218. Conductive deafness is to ____ as nerve deafness is to ____.
    the middle ear; the inner ear
  219. What does the vestibular system detect?
    movement of the head
  220. Which two structures provide information about vestibular sensation?
    semicircular canals and otolith organs
  221. The somatosensory system involves sensation of:
    the body and its movements.
  222. Each spinal nerve has:
    both a sensory and a motor component.
  223. Somatosensory information travels from the thalamus to which area of the cortex?
    parietal lobe
  224. What neurotransmitter is released by axons that carry pain information to the brain?
    substance P
  225. The current view of how endorphins decrease the experience of pain is that they:
    block the release of substance P.
  226. Small-diameter pain fibers:
    carry dull pain information.
  227. What are found in papillae?
    taste buds
  228. Taste perception in the brain depends on:
    relative activity of different taste neurons.
  229. Olfactory receptor sites are located:
    on cilia.
  230. Deleting a single gene for potassium channels in mice led to an amazing superpower related to the sense of:
  231. Studies indicate that pheromones may play a role in humans':
    sexual behaviors.
  232. Of the following, which one would be most closely associated with experiencing synesthesia?
    seeing colors of letter or words
  233. What does "endogenous" mean?
    generated from within
  234. Which of the following is most clearly under the control of a circadian rhythm in most animals?
  235. Based on research, it has been determined that the human circadian rhythm appears to be:
    just over 24 hours.
  236. What is a "free-running rhythm"?
    the activity cycle generated by a biological clock that is not reset
  237. What is the principal Zeitgeber for land animals?
  238. When traveling across time zones, adjustments are easier when traveling which direction?
    to the west
  239. A disruption of circadian rhythms due to crossing time zones is known as:
  240. What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm?
    SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.
  241. How is the circadian rhythm of adult hamsters affected after transplanting SCN tissue from hamster fetuses with abnormal (20 hour) circadian rhythms?
    The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue.
  242. The SCN produces circadian rhythms by altering:
    production of proteins.
  243. A small branch of the optic nerve, known as the ____ extends directly from the retina to the SCN.
    retinohypothalamic path
  244. The input from the eyes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, responsible for shifting the phase of the circadian rhythm, originates from:
    ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods.
  245. The proteins ‘Per’ and ‘Tim’, originally discovered in insect but now found in mammals also, influence circadian rhythms by:
    building up during the day and declining during sleep.
  246. The pineal gland releases the hormone which influences both circadian and circannual rhythms
  247. What does an electroencephalograph measure?
    the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain
  248. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are most characteristic of which sleep stage?
    stage 2
  249. Slow-wave sleep is comprised of:
    stages 3 and 4.
  250. What is one of the contradictions in "paradoxical" sleep?
    The brain is very active, while many of the muscles are deeply relaxed.
  251. REM sleep is characterized by which of the following?
    a high level of brain activity
  252. After entering stage 4 for the first time each evening, the sleeper typically:
    cycles back through stages 3 and 2.
  253. For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again) last?
    90 minutes
  254. The ____ is a structure that extends from the medulla into the forebrain.
    reticular formation
  255. Stimulation of the pontomesencephalon:
    awakens a sleeping individual.
  256. In response to meaningful events, the locus coeruleus releases:
  257. Which of the following structures is NOT a brain structure of arousal and attention?
    basal forebrain.
  258. Adenosine levels generally increase during periods of:
  259. PGO waves are associated with which of the following?
    REM sleep
  260. During ____, the pons sends inhibitory messages to the spinal cord.
    REM sleep
  261. One disadvantage in using tranquilizers as sleeping pills it that they may:
    cause sleeplessness on later nights.
  262. Which of the following has often been interpreted as an intrusion of REM sleep into wakefulness?
  263. Mice that lack orexin have difficulty:
    maintaining wakefulness.
  264. Night terrors are most common in ____ during ____.
    children; NREM sleep
  265. Which of the following claims would be made by the evolutionary perspective of sleep?
    The function of sleep is similar to that of hibernation.
  266. Migratory birds sleep less during the migratory season because they:
    decrease their need for sleep.
  267. Research suggests that ____ sleep is most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
  268. Whereas most theorists have proposed that REM serves functions in memory and brain development, according to one newer hypothesis, the role of REM is merely to:
    increase oxygen flow to the cornea.
  269. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of depression?
  270. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of depression?
  271. Your risk of depression is increased if you have:
    female relatives with severe depression.
  272. About one woman in a thousand enters a serious, long-lasting depression following the birth of a child. What is generally true about these women?
    They are predisposed to depression prior to the birth of their child.
  273. The Borna disease virus has been found in some of the people who suffer from:
  274. Most depressed people show ____ activity in the ____ prefrontal cortex.
    decreased; left
  275. Tricyclic drugs work by:
    preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing catecholamines
  276. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors operate similarly to:
  277. Which of the following would be considered a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant?
    fluoxetine (Prozac)
  278. Which category of antidepressant drugs operates by blocking the enzyme that metabolizes catecholamines and serotonin into inactive forms?
  279. What do tricyclic, MAOI, and SSRI antidepressants have in common?
    They prolong the activity of neurotransmitters at synapses.
  280. St. John’s wort works the same way as the:
  281. With long term use of antidepressants, there is increased production of brain-derived neurotrophin factor in the:
  282. ____ is a treatment for depression that electrically induces a seizure.
    Electroconvulsive shock therapy
  283. You are a psychiatrist dealing with a severely depressed patient and want to recommend a therapy. Your main concern is that it takes effect as rapidly as possible. Therefore, you recommend:
    electroconvulsive shock therapy.
  284. Someone with bipolar disorder alternates between:
    mania and depression.
  285. Lithium is most commonly prescribed for which disorder?
    bipolar disorder
  286. What is one of the best treatments for seasonal affective disorder?
    bright light
  287. A disorder characterized by deteriorating ability to function in everyday life and some combination of hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, movement disorder and inappropriate emotional expressions is:
  288. An example of a "negative symptom" of schizophrenia is:
    poor emotional expression.
  289. The psychotic cluster of positive symptoms of schizophrenia include:
  290. The belief that outer space aliens are trying to control one's behavior is classified a:
  291. The concordance rate for schizophrenia is around ____ percent for monozygotic twins.
  292. According to the neurodevelopmental hypothesis, schizophrenia develops as a result of:
    abnormalities in prenatal or neonatal development.
  293. Which of the following is sometimes taken as evidence that schizophrenia might be caused by a virus or bacteria?
    the season-of-birth effect
  294. All of the following brain regions show changes in schizophrenia EXCEPT:
  295. Another term for antipsychotic drugs is:
  296. According to the dopamine hypothesis, what causes schizophrenia?
    excessive activity at dopamine synapses
  297. Researchers have found that the brains of schizophrenics release:
    too little glutamate.
  298. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder in which both ____ and ____ play important roles.
    dopamine; glutamate
  299. A serious side effect that develops in some people after prolonged use of neuroleptic drugs is:
    tardive dyskinesia.
  300. Research has shown that ________ can be at least as effective as SSRIs to relieve symptoms of mild to moderate depression.
Card Set
Bio Psy
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