a&p2 final

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lkorkowski
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121384
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a&p2 final
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2011-12-09 22:20:08
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a&p2 final
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  1. Type A+ blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • A antigen on RBC
    • Anti-B antibodies in plasma
    • Donates to A+ ,AB+
    • Receive from A+, A-, O+, O-
  2. Type B+ blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • B antigen on RBC
    • Anti-A antibodies in plasma
    • Donate to B+, AB+
    • Receive from B+, B-, O+, O-
  3. Type AB+ blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • AB antigen on RBC
    • No antibodies in plasma
    • Donate to AB+ ONLY
    • Receive from all blood types (universal recipient)
  4. Type O+ blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • No antigen on the RBC
    • Anti-A and Anti-B in plasma
    • Donates to A+, B+, AB+, O+
    • Receives from O+ and O- ONLY
  5. Type A- blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • A antigen on RBC
    • Anti-B in plasma
    • Donates to A-, A+, AB-, AB+
    • Receives from A- and O-
  6. Type B- blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • B antigen on RBC
    • Anti-A in plasma
    • Donates to B-, B+, AB-, AB+
    • Receives from B-, O-
  7. Type AB- blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • AB antigen on RBC
    • No antibodies in plasma
    • Donates to AB-, AB+
    • Receives from AB-, A-, B-, O-
  8. Type O- blood has which antigens on its RBC's?
    which antibodies in its plasma?
    Can donate to whom?
    Can receive from whom?
    • No antigen on RBC
    • Anti-A and Anti-B in plasma
    • Donates to all blood types (universal donor)
    • Receives from O- ONLY
  9. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn happen when the mother is ? and the father is ? and the baby is ?
    • Mother is Rh-
    • Father is Rh+
    • Baby is Rh+
  10. Which baby is at risk for distruction by the mothers anti-Rh antibodies?
    The second baby if the mother has not been desensitized by injection
  11. Each impule produces one cycle by depolarization and repolarization of the heart muscles. What is the terms for the depolarization phase and the repolarization phase?
    • Systole is the depolarization or heart muscle contration phase
    • Diastole is the repolarization or heart muscle relaxation phase
  12. What is the term for the alternating heart muscles systoles and diastoles cycles?
    They produce the cardiac cycle
  13. What does 1 cardiac cycle consist of?
    • 1. Artial and ventricular diastole
    • AV valve opens
    • Ventricle fills %70
    • 2. Atrial systole
    • Completion of ventricular filling
    • 3. Ventricular systole
    • Ventrical fills
    • AV valve closes (lubb s1 sound)
    • SL valve opens, %50-%60 of blood ejected
    • 4. Atrial and ventricular diastole
    • Ventricles relax and return to diastole
    • SL valve closes (dubb s2 sound)
  14. How long does one full cardiac cycle take and list the steps?
    • 0.8 seconds for a full cycle
    • 1. Atrial systole begins
    • Artial contraction forces a small amount of additional blood into relaxed ventricles
    • 2. Atrial systole ends, Atrial diastole begins
    • 3. Ventricular systole
    • 1st phase - Ventricular contraction pushes AV valve closed but does not create enough pressure to open semilunar valves.
    • 4. Ventricular systole
    • 2nd phase - as ventricular pressure rises and exceeds pressure in the arteries, the SL valve opens and blood is ejected.
    • 5. Ventricular diastole
    • early - As ventricles relax, pressure in ventricles drops; blood flows back against cusps of SL valves and forces them closed. Blood flows into the relaxed atria
    • 6. Ventricular diastole
    • late - All chambers are relaxed, ventricles fill passively
  15. What is blood pressure?
    Blood Pressure is the force that push blood through the blood vessels
  16. What is pressure gradient?
    Difference in blood pressure (pressure gradient) along vessels cause blood to flow
  17. Blood flows from low to high or high to low pressure?
    Blood flows from high to low pressure
  18. Where is blood pressure the highest?
    In the Aorta
  19. Where is blood pressure the lowest?
    The vena cavae
  20. What is the Arterial Pressure Gradient?
    What is its average?
    • Difference in arterial pressure from the Aorta at 95 mmHg to arterioles at 35 mmHg.
    • Averages is about 60mmHg
  21. What is the capillary pressure gradient?
    What is its average?
    • Difference in pressure from the arterioles side at 35mmHg to the venule side at 15mmHg of the capillary beds
    • Averages 20mmHg
  22. What is the Venous Pressure Gradient?
    What is its average
    • Difference in pressure from venules at 15mmHg to the vena cavae at 0mmHg
    • Averages 15mmHg
  23. What are the 4 measurements of blood pressure?
    • Systolic Pressure SP
    • Diastolic Pressure DP
    • Pulse Pressure PP
    • Mean Arterial Blood Pressure MAP
  24. What is Systolic Pressure (SP)?
    • Pressure in the arteries when left ventricle is contracting
    • Higher number on the blood pressure reading
    • Ventricular systole
    • High in Aorta
  25. What is Diastolic Pressure (DP)?
    • Pressure in ateries when the left ventricle is relaxing
    • Lower number in the blood pressure reading
    • Ventricular diastole
    • Low in the aorta
  26. What is Pulse Pressure (PP)?
    • Difference between the systolic and diastolic presure
    • PP = SP - DP
  27. What is Mean Arterial Blood Pressure (MAP)?
    • A single measurement of arterial blood pressure
    • MAP = DP + (PP/3)
  28. What item is used to take blood pressure?
    Manometer
  29. What is the average blood pressure?
    120mmHg/80mmHg
  30. What is Hypertension?
    Blood pressure 140/90 or higher
  31. What are the 2 specific defense - immunity of body defenses?
    • Innate immunity
    • Acquired immunity
  32. What is innate immunity of the specific body defenses - immunity?
    • Genetically specific and determined at birth.
    • Makes us unable to catch animal diseases
    • Develops by induced (vaccine) or natural exposure (get sick) to antigens
  33. What is acquired immunity of the specific body defenses - immunity?
    • Produced by exposure to antigens or by the transfer of antibodies
    • Develops by induced (immune system is compromised and needs antibody to survive) or natural transfer of antibodies (mothers womb or breast milk)
  34. What is Induced Active Immunity?
    • Develops after administration of antigen to prevent disease.
    • Vaccine
  35. What is Naturally Acquired Active Immunity?
    • Develops after exposure to antigens in enviornment
    • You get sick
  36. What is Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity?
    • Conferred by transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta or in breast milk
    • 0-6 months
  37. What is Induced Passive Immunity?
    • Conferred by administration of antibodies to combat infection
    • ie. AIDS
  38. What is Active Immunity?
    • Produced antobodies that develop in response to antigens
    • Immune Response
  39. What is Passive Immunity?
    Produced by transfer of antibodies from another person
  40. What is Innate Immunity?
    Genetically determined - no prior exposure or antibody production involved
  41. What is Acquired Immunity?
    Produced by prior exposure or antibody production
  42. What is Specific Resistance (Immunity)?
    Responds to threats on an individualized basis
  43. Immunity is provided by the coordinated activity of what cells in response to the presence of specific antigens?
    T and B Lymphocytes
  44. What are the 2 types of immune responses?
    • Cell-mediated immunity
    • Antibody-mediated immunity
  45. What is cell-mediated immunity?
    T-Lymphocytes respond to intracellular antigens such as virus infected cells and tumor cells
  46. What is Antibody-mediated immunity?
    B-Lymphocytes respond to extracellular antigens such as bacteria (floating in blood not inside cells)
  47. What are the types of T-Lymphocytes?
    • Supressor T Cells
    • CD4 Cells
    • CD8 Cells
  48. What are Suppressor T Cells?
    • They are the brake
    • Limit immune system activation by a single stimulus
  49. What are CD4 Cells?
    • activated when antigen presented by Antigen Presenting Cells (APC) (which is needed to activate CD4 Cells)
    • Develops into Helper T-Cells and Memory Cells
    • Helper T-Cells mst stilumate CD8 Cells to become fully activated Cytotoxic T Cells
  50. What are CD8 Cells?
    • Activated by contact with virus infected body cells
    • Develop into Cytotoxic T-Cells (toxic to every single infected cell) and Memory T-Cells
    • Flags the infected cells for the CD8 Cells
  51. What are Antibody Mediated Immunity?
    • B-Lymphocytes stay in lymph organs and tissues (where they are made)
    • Extracellular antigen in lymph fluid enters lymph tissue and binds to B-Lymphocytes receptors
    • B-Lymphocytes become activated then divide into Plasma Cells and Memory Cells
    • Plasma Cells secrete various types of antibodies
    • Antibodies cause the destruction of the antigens
  52. What are the 7 ways antibodies destroy antigens?
    • 1. Neutralization - of antigens such as toxins
    • 2. Agglutination and precititation - removing antigen bearing cells from solution in blood or body fluids (clumping)
    • 3. Activation of Compliment Proteins - that destroy the antigen by various means (antimicrobial proteins)
    • 4. Phagocytosis Activation - (neutrophils/macrophages)
    • 5. Opsonization - Coating of antigen by antibodies to increase the phagocytes attachment to antigen surface
    • 6. Stimulation of Inflammation - by activation of mast cells and basophils
    • 7. Prevention of Antigens Adhesion - to cell surfaces
  53. Where is Growth Hormone (GH) secreted from?
    Anterior Pituitary
  54. Where is Adrenal Corticotropic Hormone (ACTH) secreted from?
    Anterior Pituitary
  55. Where is Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) secreted from?
    Anterior Pituitary
  56. Where is Prolactin (PRL) secreted from?
    Anterior Pituitary
  57. Where are Gonadotropins FSH ans LH secreted from?
    Anterior Pituitary
  58. Where is Oxytocin (OT) secreted from?
    Posterior Pituitary
  59. Where is Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) secreted from?
    Posterior Pituitary
  60. Where is Thyroxine and triiodothyronine secreted from?
    Thyroid Gland
  61. Where is Calcitonin (CT) secreted from?
    Thyroid gland
  62. Where is Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) secreted from?
    Parathyroid glands
  63. Where are Glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone, cortisol, corticosterone) secreted from?
    • Adrenal Cortex
    • (Suprarenal Cortex)
  64. Where is Mineralcorticoid (aldosterone) secreted from?
    • Adrenal cortex
    • (Suprarenal Cortex)
  65. Where are Catecholamines (epinepherine, norepinephrine) secreted from?
    Adrenal (suprarenal) medulla and SNS
  66. Where is insulin secreted from?
    Pancreas Beta Cells
  67. Where is glucagon secreted from?
    Pancreas Alpha Cells
  68. Where is somatostatin secreted from?
    Pancreas Delta Cells
  69. Where is Pancreatic Polypeptide secreted from?
    Pancreas PP Cells
  70. Where is Cholecystokinin, Gastrin, VIP and GIP secreted from?
    Intestinal tissues
  71. Where is thrombopoietin ans erythropoietin secreted from?
    Liver tissues
  72. Where is Calcitriol, thrombopoietin, Erythropoietin, Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone secreted from?
    Kidney tissues
  73. Where is Natriuretic peptide secreted from?
    Heart tissues
  74. Where is Leptin secreted from?
    Adipose tissue
  75. Where are thymoxins secreted from?
    Thymus
  76. Where are testosterone, estrogen and progesterone secreted from?
    Gonads
  77. Where are estrogen and progesterone secreted from?
    Placenta
  78. What is Tidal Volume (Vt)?
    Volume of air in one breath at rest
  79. What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)?
    Volume of air inspired in addition to Vt or the yawning volume
  80. What is Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)?
    Volume of air expired in addition to the Vt or the cough/sneeze volume
  81. What is Residual Volume (RV)?
    Volume of air that cannot be expired even with maximum forced expiration
  82. What is the Inspiratory Capacity (IC)?
    Inspiratory Capacity = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume
  83. What is Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)?
    Functional Residual Capacity = Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume (which can not be removed)
  84. What is the Vital Capacity (VC)?
    Vital Capacity = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
  85. What is Total Lung Capacity (TLC)?
    Total Lung Capacity = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume
  86. What does FEV1 stand for?
    Forced Expiratory Volume in ONE SECOND
  87. What does FEV1 or Forced Expiratory Volume represent and what are the normal ranges?
    • Represent the percentage of vital capacity that is forcedly expired in one second
    • Should be 75% or higher in healthy adults
    • Lower values than 75% indicate airway obstruction, lung disease or weakness of the respiratory muscles
  88. Describe the Pancreas and its two types of cells.
    • Five inches long extending from the duodenum to spleen.
    • Consists of the - Head, Neck, Body and Tail
    • Most cells (95-98%) are exocrine producing digestive enzymes
    • Endocrine cells (2-5%) in pancreatic islets produce hormones
  89. What are the two cells of the pancreas?
    • Acinar Cells - exocrine cells that secrete the digestive enzymes into ducts
    • Ductal Cells - secrete a Bicarbonate Solution that neutralizes the acidic chyme from the stomach and protects the mucosa of the duodenum
  90. What is protein digestion by pancreatic enzymes?
    • Done by Proteolytic Enzymes
    • Four enzymes secreted as inactive proenzymes
    • Proenzymes sequentially activated in the duodenum to form active enzymes
    • These enzymes digest proteins and polypeptides to tripeptides, dipeptides and single amino acids
  91. What is starch digestion by pancreatic enzymes?
    • Remaining starch is digested in the intestine by Pancreatic Amylase Enzyme to disaccharides
    • Digestion is the same as in the mouth
  92. What if the fats digestion of the pancreatic enzymes?
    • Triglycerides digested in the small intestine by pancreatic lipase enzyme
    • Digestion of each trigylceride yield a monoglyceride molecule and two fatty acid molecules
  93. What does ADH do to the Collecting Ducts and the Distal Convoluted tubules?
    • ADH makes them more permable to water and increase water reabsorption back into the capillary blood
    • Produces small volume of dark yellow, concentrated urine
  94. What does decreased body water trigger the hypothalamus to release?
    Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary
  95. With optimal body water what does the hypothalamus stop secreting?
    • Antidiuretic Hormone ADH
    • Less water is then reabsorbed into the Collecting Duct and the Distal Convoluted Tubule
    • Produces a large volume of light yellow, dilute urine
  96. What is Obligitory Urine Volume?
    The minimum urine volume that must be excreted by the kidneys to get rid of excess metabolic waste and excess ions = 0.5 L/day
  97. What is the Urinary Bladder body made of?
    Sheet of smooth muscle called the Detrusor Muscle
  98. What is the name of the part of the bladder where the two ureters in the bladder which opens into the neck of the bladder?
    Trigone
  99. What is the internal urethral shpincter made out of?
    Detrusor smooth muscle fibers
  100. What is the external uretheral sphincter made out of?
    Skeletal muscle fibers under conscious control by the pudendal nerve
  101. What are the phases of the ovarian cycle?
    Follicular phase, Ovulation, Luteal phase
  102. Describe the Follicular Phase of the Ovarian Cycle?
    • FSH from the anterior pituitary stimulates follicular growth
    • Primordal follicles grow into Graffian (mature) follicles
    • Granulosa cells of follicles secrete estrogens and inhibin
    • Increasing levels of estrogens and inhibins INHIBIT secretions of FSH
    • Increasing levles of estrogens STIMULATES secretion of LH
  103. Describe the Ovulation Phase of the Ovarian Cycle?
    • LH stimulates rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of oocyte from ovary into the fallopian tube
    • Fimbriae of Fallopian tube picks up the ovulated oocyte
  104. Describe the Luteal Phase of the Ovarial Cycle?
    • LH stimulates development of Corpus Luteum from the remains of the ruptured Graffian Follicle
    • Corpus Luteum secretes mostly progesterone and some estrogens
    • Progesterone prepares endometrium for possible pregnancy
  105. What are the Phases of the Uterine Cycle?
    Proliferative Phase, Secretory Phase and the Mensturation Phase
  106. Describe the Proliferative Phase of the Uterine Cycle?
    Rising estrogen levels from the growing follicle stimulates growth of the functional layer of the uterine endometrium to 4-10 mm thickness
  107. Describe the Secretory Phase of the Uterine Cycle?
    • Progesterone from the corpus luteum stimulates
    • - Increased thickening of the functional layer of the endometrium to 12-18 mm thickness
    • - Increased blood supply into the endometrium
    • - Growth of endometrial glands and secretion of uterine milk
  108. Describe the Mensturation Phase of the Uterine Cycle?
    • Decline in progesterone levels that causes functional layer of the endometrium to be discharged resulting in vaginal bleeding called mensturation
    • Marks the end of one cycle and the start of the next

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