Respiratory Disease Final

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Author:
maschone
ID:
121676
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Respiratory Disease Final
Updated:
2011-12-07 21:50:16
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disease
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micro teaching questions
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  1. Appropriate ways to ensure that a patientor caregiver is competent to perform a procedure is to which of the following:
    A. Instruct them thoroughly
    B. Have them do a good return demonstration
    C. Let them practice and ask questions
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  2. Which of the following would not be part of the environmental assessment?
    A. Assessment of vital signs
    B. Identifying potential safety hazards and recommending potential remedies
    C. Evaluating space requirements for ambulation and equipment
    D. Determining adequacy of electrical service to accomodate electrically powered equipment
    A. Assessment of vital signs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is true about the RT's evaluation in an initial home care visit?
    A. A and C
    B. It involves educating the patient and caregiver on the equipment and ongoing care
    C. It is performed by a physician
    D. If often includes clinical evaluation of the patient
    A. A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following procedures would not generally NOT be assessed during a respiratory home care visit?
    A. Vital signs
    B. Breath sounds
    C. Mixed venous blood gas analysis
    D. Physical inspection of the patient
    C. Mixed venous blood gas analysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following is true about the patient's plan of care?
    A. It identifies issues and establishes goals for the patient
    B. It includes activities consistent with attaining such goals
    C. It should be reviewed and updated to reflect changing patient needs
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  6. State 3 of the 5 pathologic changes associated with ARDS.
    • Interstial and intra-alveolar edema and hemorrhage
    • Alveolar consolidation
    • Intra-alveolar hyaline membrane formation
    • Pulmonary surfactant deficiency or abnormality
    • Atelectasis
  7. True of False? Upon percussion of an ARDS patient, hyperresonant percussion notes are heard?
    False - dull percussion notes are heard
  8. Which of the following is or are recommended ventilation strategies for most patients with ARDS?
    1. High tidal volumes
    2. Low respiratory rates
    3. High respiratory rates
    4. Low tidal volumes

    A. 1 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 3 and 4 only
    C. 1 and 3 only (high tidal volumes and high respiratory rates)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. True or False? A chest x-ray will reveal increased opacity of an ARDS patient?
    True
  10. True or False? ARDS is an obstructive lung disease.
    False. Restrictive lung disease
  11. Guillain-Barre is an autoimmune disorder of the ________ (peripheral, autonomic) nervous system.
    Peripheral
  12. The paralysis os the skeletal muscles results from the ___________ of the nerves which inhibits the neurons ability to transmit resulting in paralysis
    A. Demyelination
    B. Inflammation
    C. Edema
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  13. Greater incidence of Guillain-Barre has been noted in people of what age?
    A. 45 and older
    B. 25 and older
    C. 35 and older
    D. 55 and older
    A. 45 and older
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Guillain-Barre typically has elevated levels of what immunoglobin against the mylin?
    A. IgG
    B. IgE
    C. IgM
    D. IgA
    C. IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. True of False? Deep tendon reflexes are usually absent.
    True
  16. Approximately 1.3 million people per year in the U.S. are diagnosed with:
    A. Pulmonary effusion
    B. Pulmonary edema
    C. Lung Cancer
    D. Tension pneumothorax
    A. Pulmonary effusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (Transudative, Exudative) pleural effusions are usually caused by inflammation, infection, or malignancy
    Exudative
  18. What is the most commone cause of transudative pleural effusion?
    Congestive heart failure
  19. Pleural effusions will present as a (obstructive, restrictive) lung disorder in pulmonary function testing
    Restrictive
  20. A procedure that causes inflammation and irritation between the parietal and visceral pleura that causes them to stick together, preventing subsequent fluid build up in the pleura is called:
    A. Thoracentesis
    B. IPPB
    C. Open thoracotomy
    D. Pleurodesis
    D. Pleurodesis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Typical symptoms of right-sided heart failure in clued of the following except which one?
    A. Hepatomegaly
    B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
    C. Jugular venous distention
    D. Cyanosis
    B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Syncope is associated with standing up quickly may be the result of which of the following?
    A. Hyoperthermia
    B. Orthostatic hyperstension
    B. Orthostatic hypotension
    D. Pulmonary hypertension
    C. Orthostatic hypotension
  23. Which serum value may decrease as a result of the normal aging process?
    A. Calcium
    B. Glucose
    C. Creatinine
    D. Cholesterol
    A. Calcium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Based on current data, which of the following is the estimated PaO2 of a heathly 74 year old person?
    A. 74.7 mmHg
    B. 84.2 mmHg
    C. 80.0 mmHg
    D. 87.2 mmHg
    B. 84.2 mmHg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Ageism is defined as which of the following?
    A. The realization that all older adults are sick and frail
    B. A discriminatory attitude against older people
    C. A study of the effects of aging on older adults
    D. Sociologic consequences of aging and how they effect people
    B. A discriminatory attitude against older people
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive gene disorder caused by mutations in a pair of genes on what chromosome?
    7
  27. What percent of patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis by the age of two?
    A. 30%
    B. 50%
    C. 70%
    D. 90%
    C. 70%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is the most popular test used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?
    A. Genetic test
    B. Sweat test
    C. Stool fecal fat test
    B. Sweat test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. True or False? Lung expansion therapy such as IPPB may be used to offset alveolar atelectasis in patients with cystic fibrosis?
    True
  30. All of the following is a sign or symptom of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
    A. Nasal polyp
    B. Persistent cough accompanied by phlegm
    C. Salty tasting skin
    D. Bradycardia
    D. Bradycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following are a major pathologic and structural change of the lungs associated with pulmonary edema?
    1. Alveolar flooding
    2. Frothy white (or pink) secretions
    3. Hyperinflation of distal alveoli
    4. Atelectasis

    A. 1,2
    B. 1,2,4
    C. 2,3,4
    D. 2,4
    B. 1,2,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. What is the most common cause of cardiac pulmonary edema?
    1. Allergic reaction to drugs
    2. Central nervous system stimulation
    3. Left sided heart failure (CHF)
    4. Pulmonary embolus
    3. Left sided heart failure (CHF)
  33. During an assessment of a patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema, chest assessment findings would include:
    1. Increased tactile and vocal fremitus
    2. Crackles, wheezing, and rhonchi
    3. Decreased tactile and vocal fremitus
    4. Bronchial breath sounds

    A. 1,4
    B. 1,2
    C. 1,2,4
    D. 2,3
    B. 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Some common findings on a chest radiograph of a patient with pulmonary edema would include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Kerley A lines
    B. Dilated pulmonary arteries
    C. Right ventricular enlargement
    D. Pleural effusion
    C. Right ventricular enlargement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The common therapeutic interventions used for pulmonary edema are?
    1. Restriction of sodium and water intake
    2. Albumin
    3. Exercise
    4. Atropine

    A. 2,3,4
    B. 1,2,3,4
    C. 1,3
    D. 2,4
    B. 1,2,3,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following is a pulmonary effect of starvation?
    A. Increased FEV1
    B. Increased risk of pneumonia
    C. Increased DCLO
    D. None of the above
    B. Increased risk of pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following might hinder attempts at nutritional repletion in patients with respiratory distress?
    A. The use of bronchodilators
    B. Simple oxygen therapy
    C. Intubation
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  38. What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
    A. Magnesium
    B. Zinc
    C. Calcium
    D. Iron
    D. Iron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which of the following should the majority of dietary intake be made up of?
    A. Protein
    B. Carbohydrate
    C. Fat
    D. None of the above
    B. Carbohydrate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. How much of our diet is composed of fat?
    A. 30%
    B. 35%
    C. 10%
    D. 20%
    A. 30%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. When mechanical ventilation is used to stablize a flail chest, how much time generally is needed for adequate bone healing to occur?
    A. 10 to 15 days
    B. 20 to 25 days
    C. 5 to 10 days
    D. 15 to 20 days
    C. 5 to 10 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A flail chest consists of a double fracture of at least?
    A. 3 or more adjacent ribs
    B. 5 or more adjacent ribs
    C. 2 or more adjacent ribs
    D. 4 or more adjacent ribs
    A. 3 or more adjacent ribs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The physician usually elects to evacuate the intrathoracic gas when the pneumothorax is greater than?
    A. 15%
    B. 10%
    C. 20%
    D. 5%
    C. 20%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following may cause a pneumothorax?
    1. Belbs
    2. COPD
    3. Pneumonia
    4. Tuberculosis

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. When gas enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to leave during expiration, the patient is said to have an?
    1. Iatrogenic pneumothorax
    2. Valvular pneumothorax
    3. Tension pneumothorax
    4. Open pneumothorax

    A. 1 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 3 and 4 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    B. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. What is another name for small cell lung cancer?
    A. Grain cell
    B. Oat Cell
    C. Rice cell
    B. Oat Cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. This type of tumor does not travel through the blood stream or lymphatics
    A. Malignant
    B. Benign
    C. None of the above
    B. Benign
  48. What is the leading cause of lung cancer?
    A. Farming
    B. Drinking too much jack daniels then attempting to drive
    C. Construction
    D. Cigarette smoking
    D. Cigarette smoking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. This type of cancer has the strongest correlation to smoking
    A. Squamous cell
    B. Small cell carcinoma
    C. Adrenocarcinoma
    D. Large cell carcinoma
    B. Small cell carcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. This is a partial removal of a lung lobe.
    A. Segmentectomy
    B. Lobectomy
    C. Pneumonectomy
    D. Bilobectomy
    E. Wedge resection
    E. Wedge resection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Myasthenia gravis causes all the following EXCEPT:
    A. Decreased VC
    B. Increased VT
    C. Decreased IC
    D. Decreased FRC
    B. Increased VT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which of the following are clinical manisfestations of myasthenia gravis?
    1. Ptosis
    2. Diplopia
    3. Difficulty in breating, speaking, chewing and swallowing
    4. Facial muscle fatigue
    5. Continuous, irreversible weakness in arms, hands, fingers, legs, and neck

    A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
    B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
    C. 1 and 5 only
    D. 1, 3, and 5 only
    E. 2, 3, and 5 only
    B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The receptor sites for ______________ are blocked or destroyed by antibodies in patients with myasthenia gravis.
    A. Aceytocholine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Dopamine
    D. Norepinephrine
    A. Aceytocholine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Ventilatory failure in patients with myasthenia gravis may be accompanied with all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Atelectasis
    B. Alveolar consolidation
    C. Pneumothorax
    D. Mucous accumulation
    C. Pneumothorax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Myasthenia gravis causes which of the following alterations to arterial blood gas measurements?
    1. Decrease in pH
    2. Increase in PaCO2
    3. Increase in HCO3
    4. Decrease in PaO2

    A. 1, 2, and 3 only
    B. 1 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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