NP610DBquizes

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NP610DBquizes
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2011-12-10 16:49:00
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  1. All of the following are risk factors for DVT except:
    A) recent surgery
    B) estrogen use
    C) prolonged inactivity
    D) infection
    E) hx of previous DVT
    D) infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following are classic signs of DVT?
    A) leg edema
    B) a&b
    C) calf tenderness
    D) tenderness over the superficial vein
    e) all of the above
    B) a&b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is the most likely to be found in deep vein thrombophlebitis DVT?
    A)warmth over affected area
    B) positive Homan sign
    C) unilateral leg edema
    D) leg pain
    C) unilateral leg edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Major side effects of statins include which of the following?
    A) alopecia
    B) pruritis
    C) rhabdomyolosis
    D) leukocytosis
    C) rhabdomyolosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The most common form of skin cancer is:
    A) squamous cell carcinoma
    B) basal cell carcinoma
    C) cutaneous carcinoma
    D) malignant melanoma
    B) basal cell carcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The American Cancer Society uses an ABCDE mnemonic to help patients and healthcare providers identify suspicious skin lesions. What does "B" represent?
    A) Black
    B) Border
    C) Benign
    D) Bleeding
    B) Border
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A 72 y/o woman presents with a newly formed, painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with an overlying telangiectasis on the upper lip. This most likely represents:
    A) a basal cell carcinoma
    B) molluscum contagiosum
    C) a squamous cell carcinoma
    D) an actinic keratosis
    A) a basal cell carcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A 49 y/o man presents with a skin lesion suspicious for malignant melanoma. You describe the lesion as having:
    A) variable pigmentation
    B) sharp borders
    C) deep black-brown coloring throughout
    D) a diameter of 3mm or less
    A) variable pigmentation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Risk factors for malignant melanoma include:
    A) History of blistering sunburn
    B) Asian ancestry
    C) Family history of psoriasis vulgaris
    D) Presence of atopic dermatitis
    A) History of blistering sunburn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When are surgical measures (total hip and knee replacements) necessary to provide symptomatic and functional improvement of symptoms?
    A) when involvement of the joint severely restricts walking
    B) when involvement of the joint severely causes pain at rest
    C) both a & c
    D) when the systemic manifestations become too difficult to control
    C) both a & c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Degenerative joint disease (DJD) can affect all of the following joints except:
    A) Wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints
    B) The hips, knees, and cervical and lumbar spine
    C) DIP and PIP joints of the fingers
    D) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb and the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe
    A) Wrist and MCP joints
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Signs and symptoms of DJD include which of the following:
    a) insidious onset
    b) pain on motion of the affected joint which is made worse by activity but is relieved by rest
    c) there is no ankylosis, but limitation of motion of the affected joints is common
    d) all of the above
    d) all of the above
  13. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of joint disease and is chiefly a disease of aging. This disease is also associated with which of the following:
    A) degeneration of cartilage and hypertrophy of bone at the articular margins
    B) hereditary and mechanical factors may be involved
    C) inflammation with possible infection of the affected joints
    D) both a & c
    D) both a & c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Cholelithiasis is
    A) the presence of pancreatitis secondary to gallstones
    B) the presence of stones in the common bile duct
    C) the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
    D) the presence of inflammation of the gallbladder
    C) the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Acute cholecystitis is almost always caused by gallstones.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true: 90-95% of cases of acute cholecystitis is due to stones
  16. Risk factors for gallstone disease include:
    a) female
    b) obesity
    c) age
    d)fertility
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  17. A HIDA scan can detect both acute calculous cholecystitis and chronic acalculous cholecystitis.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true: gallstones and biliary dyskinesia can be detected by HIDA scans
  18. Indications for cholecystectomy include which of the following:
    a) acalculous cholecystitis
    b) biliary colic
    c) acute or chronic cholecystitis
    d) all of the above
    d) all of the above
  19. 1st line therapeutic measures for TIA include all of the following except:
    a) anti-thrombolytic therapy
    b) diagnostics to determine etiology
    c) medications to lower bp unless contraindicated
    d) all of the above
    d) all of the above
  20. The difference b/w TIA and Stroke is:
    a) TIAs have sxs lasting 30 min or less while stroke sxs last 1 hour or more and is associated with brain infarct
    b) TIAs are not strokes, they are the body's warning of impending doom
    c) Stroke sxs resolve, TIA sxs last
    d) TIAs do not affect the nervous system while strokes do
    • a) sxs 30min or less= TIA
    • 60min or more= stroke
  21. Following a TIA, the risk of stroke is:
    A) there is no associated risk
    B) 90% w/in 3 yrs
    C) 30% w/in 5 yrs
    D) 100% w/in 2 yrs
    C) 30% w/in 5 yrs of TIA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Crescendo TIAs are defined as:
    a) tinnitis that increases in amplitude during the ischemic attack that resolves once the episode completes
    \b) there is no such thing
    c) TIAs that become more frequent and present with increasing intensity
    d) TIAs associated with worsening headaches
    c) more freq and intense
  23. The NIH Stroke Scale is a tool used to:
    A) determine if the pt has had a TIA or Stroke
    B) determine if there will be residual sx after resolution of the ischemic event
    C) determine how much neurological impairment is present during the event
    d) none of the above
    C) level of deficit due to ischemic event
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Fecal incontinence can occur w/o the pt being aware. Which of the following health conditions can cause this to occur:
    a) CVA
    b) Spinal cord injury
    c) Multiple sclerosis
    d) all of the above
    d) all of the above
  25. Which of the following techniques is used to define the severity of rectal weakness, assess rectal sensation, and to predict response to biofeedback training?
    A) anal manometry
    B) proctosigmoidoscopy
    C) ultrasonography
    D) electromyography
    A) anal manometry

    US- for anatomical defects
    EMG - sphincter neuropathy and myopathy
    proct-oscopy - CA or proctitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The main causes of fecal incontinence are:
    a) impaction
    b) recto-sphincter dysfunction
    c) reservoir incontinence
    d) all of the above
    d) all
  27. All of the following are initial measures taken to treat fecal incontinence except:
    A) increasing fiber in diet
    B) habit training
    C) biofeedback
    D) surgery
    D) surgery - last measure to tx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. When pts relearn to perceive distention with intra-rectal balloons and to adequately contract the external sphincter with visual manometry is called:
    A) biofeedback
    B) anal endosonography
    C) pudenal nerve latency studies
    d) none of the above
    A) biofeedback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What is the initial imaging of choice to diagnose appendicitis in pregnancy?
    A) ultrasound, CT scan
    B) CT scan, MRI
    C) MRI, ultrasound
    D) x-ray, CT scan
    A) US, CT scan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. All of the following are common outcomes of untreated appendicitis except:
    A) small bowel obstruction
    B) perforation
    C) necrosis
    D) gangrene
    A) small bowel obstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. All of the following are common signs associated with appendicitis except:
    A) obturator sign
    B) Rovsing sign
    C) psoas sign
    D) McBurney sign
    D) McBurney sign - it's McBurney POINT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Without surgery or antibiotics, mortality for appendicitis is:
    A) 10%
    B) 25%
    C) 50%
    D) <1%
    C) 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. A pt with pulmonary embolus may have which of the following manifestations?
    a) dyspnea
    b) tachypnea
    c) substernal chest discomfort
    d) all of the above
    d) all
  34. Which of the following is the #1 preventable cause of cardiovascular disease worldwide?
    A) HTN
    B) excessive alcohol intake
    C) physical inactivity
    D) smoking
    D) smoking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Angina may occur in the absence of coronary artery obstruction as a result of which of the following:
    a) severe aortic stenosis
    b) hypothyroidism
    c) paroxysmal tachycardias
    d) all of the above
    d) all
  36. The current US guidelines recommend initiating antihypertensive medications in pt with BP >/= 140/90 or w/ BP >/= 130/80 in high risk pts.
    a) True
    b) False
    a) true
  37. The pathophysiology of venous ulcers, though unclear, is due to venous incompetence and venous HTN.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  38. What are the goals of treatment for venous ulcer stasis?
    a) reduce edema
    b) improve ulcer healing
    c) prevent recurrence
    d) all of the above
    d) all
  39. Factors that may lead to venous incompetence include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) ineffective pumping of the calf muscle
    B) congenital absence
    C) venous valve dysfunction from trauma
    D) mobility
    D) mobility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. What are the risk factors for developing venous stasis ulcers?
    a) older age
    b) obesity
    c) previous leg injuries
    d) DVT/phlebitis
    e) all of the above
    e) all
  41. What are the symptoms of venous ulcers?
    a) aching
    b) edema
    c) cramps
    d) restless legs
    e) all of the above
    e) all
  42. The most common causative organism in UTI's is:
    A) Enterobacter
    B) E coli
    C) Staphyloccus saprophyticus
    D) Candida
    B) E coli - 85% of cases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Risk factors for a UTI include which of the following:
    a) DM
    b) pregnancy
    c) sexual activity
    d) all of the above
    d) all of the above
  44. Which of the following statements about UTI's are false?
    A) Fever and flank pain are uncommon in patients with cystitis.
    B) The female urethra is long thereby prohibiting the transport of bacteria to the bladder.
    C) UTI's typically result from colonization of urine with fecal bacteria which grow aerobically.
    D) Anaerobic bacterial growth in the urine indicates a communication between the intestines and urinary tract.
    B) The urethra is short.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 1st line treatment for a pt with an uncomplicated UTI caused by E. coli and who has NKDA includes:
    A) Cipro 500mg PO BID x7 days
    B) Amoxicillin 500mg PO TID x 7 days
    C) Phenazopyridine 200mg PO TID x2 days
    D) TMP-SMZ 160/800 PO BID x 3days
    D) Bactrim - 1st line tx

    Cipro - for uncomplicated pyelonephritis
    Phenazopyridine for urinary analgesic to relieve discomfort of dysuria.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Antibiotic prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs may be indicated with 2 or more symptomatic UTIs in 6 months or 3 or more in 12 months.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  47. Pain, discomfort, tiredness, aching and cramping caused by classic claudication, a sx of PAD:
    A) is relieved when activity is increased
    B) is reproducible with a similar level of walking from day to day
    C) occurs at the same distance once walking has resumed
    D) disappears after several minutes of standing
    B) reproducible with similar walking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The single most modifible risk factor for the development of peripheral artery disease is:
    A) blood sugar
    B) BP
    C) stress
    D) smoking
    D) smoking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which of the following is NOT a physical finding of PAD?
    A) shiny, atrophied skin
    B) poor wound healing over areas of diminished perfusion
    C) absence of hair
    D) unilateral cool extremity
    D) unilateral cool extremity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following pts is at risk for having PAD?
    a) age 70+ years
    b) abnormal lower extremity pulse exam
    c) age 50-69 yrs w/ hx of smoking or DM
    d) known atherosclerosis at other sites
    e) all of the above
    e) all
  51. Which type of evaluation is necessary in order to make a definitive diagnosis of mucosal inflammation?
    A) laboratory diagnostic studies
    B) CT scan with contrast
    C) MRI of the abdomen
    D) endoscopic biopsy under microscope
    D) bx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. A pt presents stating that he is concerned about getting ulcers. It would be appropriate for the NP to tell this pt that an aspirin/day will help to preven them.
    a) true
    b) false
    b) false
  53. What is MOST frequently associated with peptic ulcers?
    A) H. pylori colonization
    B) smoking
    C) high caffeine diet
    D) stressful school conditions
    A) H. pylori
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Appropriate differential diagnoses for a pt complaining of ulcer-like sxs would be:
    A) pancreatitis
    B) kidney stones
    C) gallstones
    D) a & b
    D) pancreatitis and gallstones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following bacteria is the main causative agent for UTI?
    A) E. coli
    B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C) Enterobacter
    D) Staph saprophyticus
    A) E. coli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following would be least likely to contribute to urinary incontinence?
    A) non-smoker
    B) obesity
    C) advanced age
    D) grand multigravida
    A) non-smoker
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Urinary incontinence impacts a woman's quality of life as much as:
    A) anxiety and asthma
    B) heart disease
    C) COPD and colitis
    D) diabetes type 1 and depression
    D) DM type 1 and depression
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. All of the following are true of urinary incontinence except:
    A) 25% of all women have UI.
    B) Pelvic floor muscles exercise is the 1st line tx of choice.
    C) 33% of all women have UI.
    D) It is a major cause of falls and admissions to nursing homes.
    C) 33% is too much!
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The following clinical manifestations are seen in Parkinson's disease except:
    A) cogwheel rigidity w/ facial masking
    B) emotional incontinence
    C) difficulty initiating involuntary movement
    D) pill-rolliing tremor
    B) emotional incontinence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Early tx of Parkinson's consists of nonpharmacologic therapies and initial sx treatment.
    a) true
    b) false
    a) true
  61. The following autonomic dysfunctions are common in Parkinson's except:
    A) seborrhea
    B) constipation
    C) sexual dysfunction
    D) symmetric bilateral weakness
    D) symmetric bilateral weakness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following factors is implicated on the pathogenesis of Parkinson's.
    A) vascular dilation
    B) Oxidative stress
    C) viral neuropathy
    D) tau tangles
    B) oxidative stress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Despite the many etiologies of neuropathic pain, it is usually:
    A) intermittent and dull, resolving rapidly
    B) spontaneous, continuous, burning and evoked by various mechanical or thermal stimuli
    C) rarely bothersome to pts w/ uncontrolled plasma glucose levels
    D) triggered by an injury to the limb affected by neuropathy and resolves spontaneously
    B) yes?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Preventive foot care and teaching for pts with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy would include all of the following except:
    A) test water temp w/ elbow before stepping into a bath to prevent burns
    B) cut toenails curved around each toe; ingrown toenails are not usually a concern for diabetics
    C) wear socks and shoes at all times
    D) apply a thin coat of moisturizing cream or a lotion over tops and bottoms of feet to prevent cracks from dry skin
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. In a pt presenting w/ sxs of peripheral neuropathy, pressure sensation can be measured with a ____ and vibration with a _____.
    A) ball point pen, reflex hammer
    B) 10 g monofilament, reflex hammer
    C) 10 g monofilament, 128 Hz tuning fork
    D) dull safety pin, 128 Hz tuning fork
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. All are true statements about peripheral neuropathy except:
    A) Neuropathy can be easily diagnosed, however it is often more difficult to identify the true cause.
    B) If neuropathy is present, the pt always has DM and screening is prudent.
    C) Causes of neuropathy can include metabolic, hereditary, autoimmune, and infectious dz, drugs, toxins, tumors.
    D) Diseases that affect nerves may have peripheral neuropathy as their only presenting sx.
    B)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Risk factors for lung cancer include:
    a) exposure to radon and metal dust
    b) radiotherapy
    c) pulmonary fibrosis
    d) genetic factors
    e) all of the above
    f) a & b
    e)
  68. Chronic cough:
    a) some may experience for years w/o evident cause
    b) most commonly due to postnasal drip, asthma, and GERD.
    c) is present in a significant # of cases of bronchogenic lung CA
    d) the 1st priority of management is to find it's etiology
    e) all of the above
    e)
  69. Lung cancer in never smokers
    A) higher intake of fruits/veggies may be protective
    B) has a greater incidence in men than women
    C) a, c, & d are true
    D) may have viral etiology
    E) ethnicity does not appear to be a risk factor
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Systemic screening for lung CA is not currentlly recommended by any major professional organizations
    a) true
    b) false
    a)
  71. The leading cause of small bowel obstruction is:
    A) crohn's disease
    B) adhesions
    C) tumors
    D) hernia
    B) adhesions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Complications of SBO are which of the following?
    a) sepsis
    b) intra-abdominal abscess
    c) perforation
    d) all of the above
    d) all
  73. Sxs of SBO can include all EXCEPT:
    A) excessive gas passing through the rectum
    B) crampy abdominal pain (generally in waves)
    C) nausea/vomiting
    D) rapid pulse/breathing
    A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Sxs of large bowel obstruction can include:
    a) bloated abdomen
    b) abdominal pain, sharp, severe
    c) diarrhea
    d) all of the above
    d)
  75. The leading cause of large bowel obstruction is:
    A) incarcerated hernia
    B) stricture (diverticular or ischemic)
    C) volvulus
    D) neoplasm (benign or malignant)
    D) neoplasm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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