AUD FINAL 1

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Author:
amykath
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121994
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AUD FINAL 1
Updated:
2011-12-08 21:02:39
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Audiology SLP
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Audiology Final review
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  1. Dynamic range of hearing is the difference between ______ and ______.
    • threshold curve
    • loudness discomfort level
  2. Dynamic range of hearing defines the range of hearing for a certain _______.
    frequency
  3. Dynamic range of hearing is greatest when the ear is most _________.
    sensitive
  4. Dynamic range of hearing is called the ________ when referring to the dynamic range across frequencies.
    audibility area
  5. Although SPL numbers are different they ceome ___ dB HL because _________.
    • 0
    • it is normal hearing
  6. dB SPL is a ______ measurement of sound and dB HL is a ______ measurement.
    • physical
    • perceptual
  7. What kind of hearing loss?
    None - normal
  8. What kind of hearing loss?
    Conductive
  9. What kind of hearing loss?
    Sensorineural
  10. What kind of hearing loss?
    Mixed
  11. Shadow audiogram
    Flat audiogram with threshold differences between right and left at about 40-55 dB
  12. Speech detection threshold is the detection threshold for speech in ______ and _______ is the stimulus.
    • dB HL
    • any speech signal
  13. The goal of SDT is to find the level in dB HL at which the patient can detect ____ % of the target words/sentences. Used most frequently with _____.
    • 50
    • children
  14. Speech recognition threshold is measured in _____ using _____ as stimuli.
    • dB HL
    • spondees (two syllable words with equal stress on both syllables)
  15. SRT is the lowest level at which at least _____ correct responses were given at that intensity.
    3
  16. Word recognition testing is NOT __________.
    a threshold measure
  17. Word recognition score is the _______ at a given level.
    percent correct
  18. Word recognition testing is often used to _________.
    obtain PB max
  19. 30 dB SL means __________.
    30 dB above an individual listener's threshold
  20. The SRT test is used to _____ and _______.
    • verify PTA
    • use as a reference level for administering word-recognition tests
  21. Familiar objects or names are often used to determine ______.
    SDT
  22. Many times, SRT may be predicted from the ______.
    pure tone audiogram
  23. Word recognition scores for a listener with normal hearing or a conductive hearing loss would usually be _____.
    100%
  24. PTA and SRT are usually _______.
    about equal or within 10 dB
  25. SDT is usually ________ the SRT.
    about 10 dB below
  26. Acoustic immittance examines the integrity of ____, _____ and ______.
    • the middle ear
    • the inner ear
    • the 8th nerve
  27. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is high, then the admittance of the tympanic membrane is _____.
    low
  28. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is low, then the admittance of the tympanic membrane is ____.
    high
  29. If the level of probe tone detected by the microphone is low, then the impedance of the tympanic membrane is ____.
    low
  30. Patients with retrocochlear pathology often show _____ in PI function.
    roll-over
  31. Patients with neural loss have difficulty processing/understanding sounds at high _________ level.
    INTENSITY
  32. A screening audiometer does not have the capability for what?
    bone conduction testing
  33. A device used for the calibration of an audiometer in sound field (using loud speakers) should include _____ but not ____ or _____.
    • a sound level meter
    • not an artificial mastoid
    • not a 6 cc coupler
  34. Air bone gap is indicative of what kind of hearing loss?
    either conductive or mixed
  35. Air conduction can be the same or _____ than bone conduction but never _____.
    • poorer
    • better
  36. Sensorineural hearing loss may be produced by damage to ____ or ______.
    • the inner ear
    • the auditory nerve
  37. Which clinical practice in audiology is used to identify a person with potential hearing loss?
    screening
  38. Dynamic range of hearing is _____ across frequency.
    different
  39. The middle ear does what?
    • impedance matching transformer
    • Transmit sound from TM to the inner ear
    • Amplify the sound around 1500 Hz
  40. Which of the following is true of masking dilemma?
    A. BCTE + IA = IMLNTE
    B. BCTE + IA < IMLNTE
    C. IMLNTE - ABGNTE < ACTE
    D. BCTE + IA-10 dB = IMLNTE
    B. BCTE + IA < IMLNTE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The most efficient type of masking noise for pure-tone testing is ___.
    narrow band noise
  42. Minimum masking for bone conduction at 250 Hz is:
    AC (non-test ear) + 10 + 30
  43. The right contralateral acoustic reflex can be used to measure the integrity of ________.
    the left facial nerve
  44. When there is damage to the auditory nerve, acoustic reflexes are typically _________.
    absent or elevated
  45. Reflex decay at 500 Hz to half amplitude within 5 seconds suggests ___________.
    a retrocochlear lesion
  46. The tympanic membrane is maximally compliant when _______.
    middle earpressure equals outer ear pressure
  47. The acoustic reflex is present for ipsilateral but absent for both right and left contralateral suggests:
    lesion in the trapezoid body (in superior olivary complex)
  48. The general classification of surgical procedure for repairing damage of middle ear structure is _________.
    tympanoplasty
  49. Cytomegalovirus (CMV), syphilis, and rubella are ______.
    congenital infections that cause perinatal hearing loss
  50. Children with cleft palate have a higher incidence of otitis media with effusion because __________.
    they have chronic eustachian tube dysfunction due to disruptions of the tensor veli palatini muscle
  51. Ménière's disease and presbycusis will both have a _____ tympanogram.
    Type A
  52. A listener with normal hearing in both ears is presented with a 2000 Hz tone in his right ear at 40 dB HL and a 2000 Hz tone in his left ear at 70 dB HL. The listener should report (think about stinger effect):
    that he hears a tone in his left ear only
  53. What is a common type of finding with pseudohypacusis?
    lack of cross-hearing in profound unilateral hearing loss
  54. Cahart notch is most common in _____.
    women
  55. PE tube (pressure equalizing tube) is designed to function primarily as an artificial what?
    eustachian tube
  56. A pseudotumor in the middle ear composed of skin and fatty tissues is called what?
    cholesteatoma
  57. To calculate the dynamic range of the listener for speech:
    difference between SRT and LDL
  58. Cannot predict _____ easily from audiogram.
    word recognition
  59. •Rules for interaural attenuation for air conduction apply to speech audiometry:
    SRTTE – IA ≥ bestBC NTE
  60. UCL/LDL for normal listeners is ______ dB HL.
    100-110

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