CCEMTP

  1. The first use of helicopters for air medical transport occured as a result of:
    the Korean conflict of 1950
  2. Which of the following is not considered routine equipment on-board a Critical Care Transport unit?



    B. Neonatal isolette
  3. The law requiring that patients are provided written information on the right to make medical decisions is the:
    Patient Self Determination Act
  4. Which of the following areas are often cited in litigation involving malpractice?
    Failure to adequately monitor the patient's condition, adequately document findings, and advise more highly trained individuals of abnormalities
  5. A common problem of specimen collection associated with the breakdown of red blood cells and subsequent release of hemoglobin is known as:
    hemolysis
  6. Which of the following IS NOT seen with a normal or increased hematocrit and hemoglobin?



    C. anemia
  7. A 16-yo female presents with the following signs and symptoms: nervousness, anxiety, dizziness, with numbness and tingling of the extremities. The pt's ABG analysis shows the following values.
    pH=7.50
    PO2=100
    PCO2=30
    HCO3=24
    BE= -7



    A. respiratory alkalosis
  8. The primary intracellular cation important for repolarization of cardiac cells is:
    potassium
  9. The urine ouput of an average adult should be:
    30-70 cc/hr
  10. A test used to identify an organism
    Culture
  11. A test used to determine the best antibiotic to use against the organism.
    Sensitivity
  12. Which of the following is CORRECT with regard to shock?



    B. general systemic response to inadequate tissue perfusion
  13. As a result of Neurogenic shock, which of the following will occur?
    peripheral vasoconstriction and vasodilation
  14. A 31yo female is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the CORRECT medication to give to promote vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and inhibit further relese of further biochemical mediators?



    A. epinephrine
  15. Gram negative and gram positive bacteria have been implicated as the causative factors of:
    sepsis
  16. What is the proper infection control measures while caring for a tuberculosis pt?
    micron filter face mask
  17. In which of the following would the blood oxygen saturation be high, yet the pt still dies from hypoxia?



    D. carbon monoxide poisoning, hypovolemia and hypothermia
  18. PaCO2
    35-45
  19. FiO2 of Room Air
    21%
  20. After pleural decompression, assessment observations would include,
    hemoptysis, signs of hypoxia and lung sounds
  21. Volume of gas inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cylce
    tidal volume
  22. What are complications of pleural decompression?
    pneumothorax, infection, and lung contusion
  23. chest tube insertion site for air removal is the
    second intercostal space on the mid axillary line
  24. By increasing ventilation which of the following abnormalities can be corrected?



    D. respiratory acidosis
  25. Why is a tracheostomy wound not packed or surgically closed?
    to avoid subcutaneous emphysema
  26. When the anterior neck is palpated from superior to inferior, the cricothyroid membrane is
    between the first and second prominent structures
  27. How do you differentiate between a spontaneously wedged catheter to one that is occluded:
    aspirate for blood return
  28. Lack of an identifiable "wedge" waveform may possible be due to:
    Incorrect catheter position, insufficient volume of air used to inflate the balloon, and/or baloon rupture
  29. A disease that would increase the afterload of the heart would result in:
    a decrease in the stroke volume
  30. What would the effect of positive pressure ventilation be on hemodynamic waveforms?



    B. hemodynamic pressure waves wise during positive pressure ventilation
  31. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Rh factor?



    C. it is present in the blood plasma
  32. Which blood preparation contains the formed elements, clotting factors and antibodies?
    whole blood
  33. Which of the following test results would be the most helpful in assessing a pt with a bleeding disprder?



    D. platelet count
  34. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding diastole?



    C. it is a phase that is approximately twice as long as systole
  35. The term inotropic refers to the:
    contractile force
  36. QT interval measuring can help in the diagnosis of?
    hyperkalemia
  37. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding right atrial hypertrophy?



    • D. all of the above
    • often associated with right ventricular hypertrophy, tall, wide P wave morphology, and results from congenital heart disease or pulmonary hypertension
  38. To interpret the heart rhythm, the ICD:



    • D. all of the above
    • takes approx 30 sec to analyze the rhythm, considers rate, onset of rate increase and stability of the complex and requires placement of 2 endocardial leads in the right and left atria
  39. Placement of the intra-aortic balloon
    thoracic aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery
  40. Theraputic effects of IABP use:
    Positively affect afterload, preload, contractility and rate
  41. The effects of beta 2 stimulation include:



    A. bronchodilation
  42. Murphy's sign
    referred pain
  43. Which of the following IS NOT considered abnormal findings in urine?
    a. leukocytes
    b. erythrocytes
    c urochromes
    d. albumin
    c. urochromes
  44. diffusion is defined as:
    movement of particles from higher concentration to lower concentration
  45. a "fistula" is a
    surgically creasted anastomosis between an artery and a vein
  46. Romberg test
    A test used to check for cerebellar function. Conducted by having Pt stand with feet together, eyes open and then closed, observing for any sway or loss of balance
  47. Monroe-Kellie Doctrine, what compromises intracranial volume?
    • 10% CSF
    • 10% Blood
    • 80% Brain Mass
  48. Normal ICP
    0 and 15 mmHG
  49. What medications with help decrease ICP?
    • Mannitol
    • Thiopental
  50. Pediatric Narcan dosage
    0.1 mg/kg
  51. Pregnancy produces changes to the cardiovascular system, such as:
    • increased blood volume and cardiac output
    • decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure
  52. Pregnancy-induced hypertension can cause what fetal complications:
    • growth retardation
    • fetal distress
    • abruptio placenta
    • fetal death
  53. What are the major components of the immune system?
    • Leukocytes
    • Lymphocytes
    • Antibodies
  54. PaO2 will assist in obtaining information of what nature?
    the efficiency of gas exchange
  55. In regard to pleural decompression, the "angle of louis" is used to
    locate the second intercostal spac
  56. The ideal position for transporting a Pt with a chest tube
    Fowler's
  57. To preform retrograde intubation, the guide wire must be:
    approximately 70cm in length
  58. Non-tunneled catheters:
    • single or double lumens
    • inserted centrally or peripherally
    • used for short term therapy
  59. When a pulmonary artery catheter is wedged, what information is available?
    left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
  60. What is the purpose of zero referencing?
    It balances the transducer to atmospheric pressure
  61. How do you calculate MAP?
    • Systolic + (Diastolic x 2)
    • 3
  62. What would result in low values on the monitor?
    • Transducer above phlebostatic level
    • Air bubbles or clot in the catheter
  63. What type of blood preparation would eliminate disease transmission and the possibility of transfusion reaction?
    Autologous
  64. What should you give to reduce the risk of volume overload, when multiple units of blood are to be infused?
    Packed Red Blood Cells
  65. Hemolytic transfusions can occur as long as ____ after transfusion:
    14 days
  66. What criteria do you use to diagnose bifasicular blocks?
    • Widened QRS, "rabbit ears" in V1 aV2
    • A negative deflection lead AVF
  67. Indications for Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump
    • Cardiogenic shock secondary to infarction
    • Postoperative left ventricular failure
    • Severe unstable angina
  68. Contraindiction for the use of IABP
    • Aortic aneurysm
    • severe peripheral vascular occlusive disease
  69. What is a complication associated with IABPs?
    • arterial insufficiency
    • infection
    • gas ebolism
  70. What must be in place to monitor proper timin of the balloon pump?
    an arterial catheter
  71. What is the mechanism of action for benzodiazepines
    Inhibiting pre and post synaptic dopamine
  72. What is the Classification of Albumin and Dextran?
    Colloids
  73. Which of the following IS NOT a vasopressor?



    C. Dobutamine
  74. Similarities between Streptokinase and TPA include:
    Both convert plaminogen to plasmin
  75. A colostomy is a surgical procedure likely to required for patients with:
    • Obstruction of the small intestine
    • Rectal Cancer
    • Blood accumulation in the stomach
  76. An inappropriate motor response in a comatose patient characterized by flexion of the arms, wrists, and fingers, adduction of the upper extremities, and extension, medial rotation and plantar flexion of the lower extremities is known as:
    Decorticate Posture
  77. When documenting deep muscle reflex response, a grade of ____ is used to indicate a normal or expected response.
    2
  78. The intracranial volume-pressure curve demonstrates the relationship between:
    changes in volume and intracranial pressure
  79. Advantages of using an interventricular catheter
    • Ability to drain CSF to lower ICP
    • Increased accuracy in ICP monitoring
    • Reliability
  80. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) - Intracranial Pressure (ICP) =
    Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)
  81. What drugs will cause an increase in ICP?
    • Ketamine
    • Diazepam
    • Nitroprusside
  82. How much circulating blood volume should a neonate have?
    85-90 cc/kg
  83. In a pediatric patient with a fever, the heart rate increases ___ BPM for every 1 degree C above 37 degrees C
    20
  84. The antihypertensive medication of choice for managing severe pre-eclampsia is:
    Hydralazine
  85. What can cause fetal tachycardia?
    • Parasymatholytic drugs
    • Sympathomimetic drugs
    • Chorioamnionitis
    • Maternal fever
    • Fetal hypoxia
  86. Which of the following chemicals would produce the most serious burns?



    D. an alkali solution
  87. What is Boyle's Law?
    • Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of a gas at a constant temperature
    • (P1)(V1)=(P2)(V2)
    • Balloon...
  88. Boyle's Law effects during ascent and descent?
    • Ascent - Expansion of Gas
    • Descent - Contraction of Gas
  89. Boyle's Law effects on Pts
    • Barotitis media - Descent
    • Barondontalgia - Ascent
    • Barosinusitis - Ascent
    • Barobariatrauma (Bends) - Ascent
    • GI Complications
  90. Boyle's Law effects on equipment
    • ETT Cuffs
    • MAST pants
    • IV drip rates
  91. What is Charles' Law?
    • At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of a gas
    • V1/T1 = V2/T2
  92. Charles' Law effects on Pt's/equipment
    • Gas volume expands as temperature increases.
    • Gas volume shrinks as temperature decreases.
  93. Gay-Lussac's Law
    • Directly proportional relationship between temperature and pressure
    • P1/T1 = P2/T2
  94. What is Dalton's Law?
    The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture.

    Pt=P1+P2+P3+P4.....
  95. Stressors of Flight
    • Decreased partial pressure of oxygen
    • Barometric pressure
    • Thermal and Hydration
    • Noise and Vibration
    • Fatigue
    • G-forces
  96. Factors effecting flgiht stressors
    • D-Drugs
    • E-Exhaustion
    • A-Alcohol
    • T-Tobacco
    • H-Hypoglycemia
  97. Which of the following abnormal labs is indicative of DIC?

    a. Serum glucose level
    b. Clotting tests
    c. Liver function tests
    d. Renal function tests
    Clotting tests
  98. Which of the following is correct in regard to changing a patient's oxygen deliverey system prior to obtaining an ABG sample?

    a. Should not be done
    b. Can be done if noted on the sample
    c. May require 15 minutes for the patient to adapt
    d.  Requires the sample be tested on two machines, and results compared
    May require 15 minutes for the patient to adapt
  99. Which of the following is/are true with regard to the indications for clamping a chest tube?

    a. to locate the source of a water leak
    b. replacing the drainage unit
    c. suspicion the the tube has been accidentally dislodged
    d. all the above
    all of the above
  100. A dyspneic patient complains of sharp chest pain in the upper right chest.  It becomes worse on deep inspiration.  Which condition would you suspect?

    a. acute bronchospasm
    b. pleuritic irritation
    c. acute myocardial infarction
    d. bronchial obstruction
    pleuritic irritation
  101. choose the blood gas sequence that indicates the need for mechanical ventilation?
    a. decreasing PO2, decreasing PCO2, normal pH
    b. increasing PO2, decreasing PCO2, increasing pH
    c. decreasing PO2, increasing PCO2, decreasing pH
    d. increasing PO2, decreasing PCO2, decreasing pH
    Decreasing PO2, Increasing PCO2, decreasing pH
  102. Which of the following is not an indication for ETT sunctioning?

    a. the normal cough mechanism is lost
    b.  production of secrations increase
    c. to maintain patency of the device
    d. monitor tube position
    monitor tube position
  103. Which of the following is not a standard ventilator setting?
    a. peak inspiratory pressure less than 40lpm
    b. flow rate 80-100 lpm
    c. tidal volume 12ml/kg body weight
    d. respiratory rate 10-15 breaths per minute
    flow rate 80-100 lpm
  104. Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of Sellick's manuever?
    a. pressure is applied over the cricoid cartilage
    b. it cannot be used on children
    c. it serves to occlude the esophagus in the vomiting patient
    d. aids in visualization of the airway structures for intubation
    it cannot be used on children
  105. What is the correct order of steps for rapid sequence intubation in chronological order?

    Apply a cardiac monitor and pulse oximeter
    Pre-oxygenate the patient
    Medicate the patient with succinylcholine
    Medicate the pantient with pancuronium or vecuronium if necessary
    intubate the patient
    post intubation sedation/paralytic
    • cardiac monitor/pulse oximeter
    • pre-oxygenate
    • pancuronium/vecuronium
    • succinylcholine
    • intubate
    • post intubation sedate
  106. Which of the following is correct regarding why a tracheostomy wound is not packed or surgically closed?

    To allow rapid removal of the tube if neccesary
    To avoid subcutaneous emphysema
    To avoid the possiblity of infection
    The neck tape adequately secures the tube; no other stability is needed
    to avoid subcutaneous emphysema
  107. Which of the following is the correct procedure for a cricothyrotomy incision?

    a. a transverse incidion is made through the superficial cricothyroid membrane
    b. a transverse incision is made 1 cm superior to the suprasternal notch
    c. a transverse incision is made between the fourth and fifth ribs
    d. the subcutaneous tissues are infiltrated with lidocaine prior to starting the incision
    a transverse incision is made throught the superficial cricothyroid membrane
  108. Which of the following is not an indication for needle cricothyrotomy?

    a.  obstruction below the cricothyroid membrane
    b. manual measures for airway maintenance have failed
    c. central cyanosis
    d. endotracheal intubation is not possible
    obstruction below the cricothyroid membrane
  109. Which procedure allows rapid entrance into the airway by making a horizontal incision?

    a. percutaneous transtracheal jet insufflation
    b. needle cricothyrotomy
    c. surgical cricothyrotomy
    d. retrograde surgical intubation
    surgical cricothyrotomy
  110. Which of the following is correct is regarding an indication for retrograde intubation?

    a.  inability to fully open the patient's mouth
    b. a patient less than 5 years old
    c. lack of a laryngoscope
    d. the presence of subcutaneous emphysema
    inability to fully open the patient's mouth
  111. Which of the following are potential side effects or complications of retrograde intubation?

    Bleeding
    Hypoxemia
    Coagulation disorder
    The lack of a local anesthetic for the puncture site
    Bleeding and Hypoxemia
  112. Which of the following is FALSE regarding invasive line complications?

    a. Sluggish infusion is pften associated with catheter kinks
    b. If unable to withdraw blood, flush with 20ml of normal saline
    c. Infection of the exit site requires dressing changes every 2 days
    d. You can avoid catheter damage by keeping the catheter looped on the chest wall
    Infection of the exit site requires dressing changes every 2 days
  113. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding CVP monitoring?

    a. Allows accurate assessment of left ventricular function
    b. Allows rapid assessment of left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)
    c. CVP fluctuates with right ventricular compliance
    d. Accurately measures PCWP
    CVP fluctuates with right ventricular compliance
  114. PCWP stands for

    a. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
    b. The right atrial afterload
    c. The left atrial pressure
    d. The pulmonary artery diastolic pressure
    The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
  115. Which of the following is CORRECT when trying to differentiate between a spontaneously wedged catheter to one that is occluded:

    a. Aspirate for blood return
    b. Inflate the balloon
    c. Excessive catheter lengths are more prone to occlusion
    d. Reconfirm proper transducer placement at the phlebostatic axis
    Aspirate for blood return
  116. Lack of an identifable "wedge" waveform may possibly be due to:
    a. Incorrect catheter position
    b. Insufficient volume of air used to inflate the baloon
    c. balloon rupture
    d. All of the above
    All of the above
  117. A disease that would increase the afterload of the heart would result in a/an:

    a. Increase in the cardiac index
    b. Decrease in the stroke volume
    c. Increase in myocardial contractility
    d. decrease in arterial pressure
    Decrease in the stroke volume
  118. What would the effect of positive pressure ventilation be on hemodynamic waveforms?

    a. There would be no effects
    b. The same as those associated with spontaneous respirations
    c. Hemodynamic pressure waves rise during positive pressure ventilation
    d. Transducer calibration would need to reflect higher pulmonary pressures
    Hemodynamic pressure waves rise during positive pressure ventilation
  119. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to decreasing the danger of transfusion reactions?

    a. Administering a fluid bolus of normal saline
    b. Adding normal saline to the transfusion
    c. Monitoring the urine output
    d. Slowly infusing blood during the first 15 minutes
    Slowly infusing blood during the first 15 minutes
  120. If a patient experienced a transfusion reaction, which of the following would be carried out INITIALLY?

    a. Notify medical control
    b. Administer high flow oxygen
    c. Discontinue the transfusion
    d. Raise the patient's head and monitor vital signs
    Discontinue the transfusion
  121. Which of the following is FALSE regarding components of the electrocardiogram?

    a. Intervals are measured in fractions of seconds
    b. Waveforms are captured on ECG paper have three primary characteristics: amplitude, duration and configuration
    c. The first half of the P wave reflects right atrial depolarization
    d. The absolute refractory period is represented by the second half of the T wave
    The absolute refractory period is represented by the second half of the T wave
  122. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with regard to the QRS complex?




    B. B and C
  123. Which of the following is/are FALSE in regard to the electrical axis of the QRS complex?




    D.  All of the Above
  124. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding how to differentiate a right bundle branch block from a left bundle branch block?



    A.  RBBB has a characteristic RSR pattern in V1
  125. In regard to the deactivation of an ICD, which of the following is FALSE?



    A.  A critical care transport team can deactivate the device without a physician's order
  126. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the proper timing of the balloon pump?

    a. A patient with a heart rate of 80 bpm requires balloon inflation during diastole for 1450-1500 msec.
    b.  An arterial catheter must be in place to monitor timing
    c. The dicrotic notch identifies the point of balloon deflation during systole
    d.  The final step in timing is the identification of the begining of systole and diastole on the arterial waveform
    An arterial catheter must be in place to monitor timing
  127. Which of the following is/are a complication associated with IABPs?




    D.  All of the above
  128. Which of the following is/are correct regarding diastolic augmentation?




    D.  All of the above
  129. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding the proper positioning of the intra-aortic balloon?



    C. Requires balloon placement in the thoracic aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery
  130. A significant concern for prolonged paralysis is




    D. All of the above
  131. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the use of Theophylline?




    D.  Administration at a rate of greater than 10ml/min will result in hypertension
  132. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the administration of Dopamine?




    A.  It results in renal dilation at low dose
  133. Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the use of plasmanate?

    1.  It contains albumin, sodium, and globulin
    2.  It is given at a rate of 100ml/min
    3.  It expands 1 ml per every ml administered
    4.  It causes severe hypertension
    1, 3
  134. A 55-year-old female is experiencing a hypertensive emergency.  You may adminsiter a calsium channel blocker known as ____, or an ACE inhibitor, known as _____.




    C.  Nifedipine, Captopril
  135. Which of the folloing is CORRECT with regard to Magnesium sulfate?




    C.  Used after beta agonists have failed to correct bronchoconstriction
  136. Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding Class III Antidysrhythmics?




    A.  B and C
  137. Calcium Channel Blockers:




    C.  Include Diltiazem
  138. Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding thrombolytic therapy?




    C.  Their use can result in early reperfusion and limited infarct size
  139. You need to adminsiter a loading dose of 5mg/kg of Aminophylline to a 110 pound adult female with asthma.  This dose is to be administered over 30 minutes.  You have a 250ml bag of normal saline, a 500 mg vial of Aminophylline, and a 10 gtts/ml administration set.  What is the concentration of the Aminophylline when mixed in the bag?




    B. 2mg/ml
  140. What is the actual dose of Aminophylline to be administered to the patient?




    A. 250 mg
  141. How many mililiters of Aminophylline must be administer?

    a.  50 ml
    b.  100 ml
    c.  125 ml
    d.  250 ml
    125 ml
  142. How many drops would you run this initial drip?




    C.  42 gtts/min
  143. A trauma patient presents with left upper quadrant pain, and referred pain to the scapulae.  These complaints mist likely are from an injury to the:

    a.  Liver
    b.  Aortic arch
    c.  Gall bladder
    d.  Spleen
    Spleen
  144. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with regard to the presentation of patients with liver ailments?




    D.  A and B
  145. What is/are the diagnostic phenomenon known as when signals arising from nerves in one part of the body are mistaken by the central nervous for signals from another area:




    B.  Referred pain
  146. Which of the following patients would be a good candidate for placement of a nasogastric tube?




    C.  A patient with a distended abdomen
  147. After inserting a nasogastric tube 10 centimeters, you suddenly meet resistance and cannot further advance the tube.  Your next action should be




    B.  Remove the tube and reattempt placement
  148. Which of the following patients IS NOT a candidate for placement of a Foley catheter?




    A.  a 6-year-old male, in the ER for acute epiglottitis
  149. Which of the following is FALSE regarding assessment methods following the insertion of a Foley catheter?




    A.  Palpation of the kidneys
  150. During transport, the collection bag for the Foley catheter should be




    B.  Hung at lower level than the patient's bladder
  151. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the inclusion of risk factors for renal failure?




    A.  Diabetes
  152. Which of the following IS NOT a major component of a Neurological Examination?




    B.  Receptive nerve function
  153. The point at which displaced volume has been exhausted and a severe rise is ICP is caused by a small increase in volume is seen on an ICP monitor as




    C.  a vertical inflection point
  154. What is an abnormal wave formation involving plateau waves (resembling a pattern similar to ventricular fibrillation), and indication impending herniation and neurological deterioration?




    B.  A waves
  155. You are transporting a patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient starts to become restless, disoriented, and agitated.  The heart monitor shows a sinus rhythm with occasional PVCs.  Your initial treatment should include




    C.   100% of oxygen to reverse hypoxia
  156. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with regard to the results of an increase in intracranial pressure?




    D.  all of the above
  157. Which patient presentation would MOST concern you?




    B.  a 5 year old with a respiratory rate of 12, sever intercostals retractions, abdominal breathing, mottled upper and lower extremities, and cool dry skin
  158. Which of the following statements is FALSE when trying to reduce fear in the pediatric patient?




    A.  Tower over the child when talking to him/her
  159. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with regard to the pediatric cardiovascular system?

    1.  immature sympathetic system
    2.  Hypotension is an early sign of shock
    3.  Cardiac output is rate dependent
    4.  Heart is proportionally larger than in an adult
    1, 3, 4
  160. When administering Colloids to a pediatric patient, what is the CORRECT flow rate?




    A.  10ml/kg
  161. Which of the following is/are CORRECT when assessing VP of VA shunt mechanical malfunctions?

    1.  vomiting
    2.  seizures
    3.  normothermic
    4.  signs of increased intracranial pressure
    1, 2, 3, 4
  162. When using a Buretrol to administer medications to a pediatric patient, which of the following would be the CORRECT way to calculate the dosage




    A. 6 mg of drug x a child's weight (kg) in 100ml fluid
  163. You are caring for a 3 year old, 15 kg child who requires reversal of a narcotic.  The CORRECT size ET tube to select is




    D.  4.5 uncuffed
  164. DIC may develop in pregnancy when the following conditions exist




    D.  Abruptio placentae, severe preeclampsia, sepsis or fetal death
  165. All of the following characterize rupture of membranes EXCEPT




    C.  fluid is brownish in color and foul-smelling
  166. Prior to interfacility transport of a patient in pre-term labor, the Critical Care Professional should obtain which of the following

    1.  fundal height
    2. dilitation
    3. effacement
    4. allergies
    5. station
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  167. With regard to major complications of electrical burns, which of the following IS NOT correct?




    A.  Extent of burn predicted by BSA
  168. Inhalation injuries are characterized by which of the following?




    D.  all of the above
  169. When caring for a critical burn patient, which of the following is of greatest concern within the first 24 hours?




    D. hypovolemic shock
  170. Morphine is the drug of choice for pain management in the burn patient? Whihc of the following is MOST appropriate route of administration?




    D. IV
  171. What is fluid resuscitation of a burn patient based upon?




    B.  Parkland formula
  172. A Critical Care Transport Team is composed of




    B.  EMT driver, RN, Paramedic
  173. Which of the following advanced procedures can be utilized by a Critical Care Transport Team?




    D.  all of the above
  174. If a patient needs to be transported to a facility approximately 110 miles away, the preferred mode of transport is




    A.  rotor
  175. An effective method for reducing the risk of liability is




    A.  b and c
  176. Patient diagnosis and treatment should be based on




    D.  all of the above
  177. a 35 year old female patient has been admitted with a chief complaint of severe headache, nausea and vomiting, and photophobia.  What do the following CBC values indicate?  HCT 40, Hgb 14, RBC 4.5 WBC 5000




    D.  normal values
  178. PO2 and PCO2 measure the ____ component of blood gases, while HCO3,  and base excess measure the _____ component.





    D. respiratory, metabolic
  179. Which of the following blood gas values reflects compensation?




    A.  pH 7.38, PCO260, HCO3 30
  180. As a critical care professional, you are legally obligated to a patient to




    A.  provide reasonable and prudent care
  181. Increased liver enzymes can indicate




    A.  hepatitis
  182. a 26 year old has undergone extensive surgery requiring blood transfusions.  Urinalysis reveals the presence of hemoglobinuria, a condition in which




    A.  hemoglobin is present in the urine, unattached to red blood cells
  183. A test used to determine the presence of occult blood in the GI tract is




    A.  Guaiac
  184. Shock can occur as a result of fluid shifting from the intravascular space to the extravascular space.  This can result from




    C.  decreased colloidal osmotic pressure
  185. The initial signs and symproms of ____ shock will be hindered if the patient is taking beta-blockers




    C.  compensated
  186. Which of the following is LEAST likely to develop multiple system organ failure?




    D.  a 12 year old with a spiral fracture of the left radius/ulna
  187. Which of the following physiologic data is useful in diagnosing sepsis?




    D.  all of the above
  188. Transmission of the Herpes Zoster virus results in a disease known as




    D.  Shingles
  189. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding right to left cardiac shunting?




    D.  the lungs fail to fully oxygenate the blood
  190. which of the following IS NOT a component of an arterial blood gas measurement?




    A.  hemoglobin
  191. which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding a tension pneumothorax?




    B. it occurs when air leaks into the pleural space during inspiration and is trapped
  192. Which of the following is FALSE with regard to the indications for the placement of a chest tube?




    B.  pulmonary embolism
  193. Which of the following is the best way to determine proper chest tube positioning?




    D.  a chest x-ray is performed
  194. which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of automatic ventilators?




    C.  some units can be safely used in all age groups
  195. A patient on a portable ventilator suddenly develops dyspnea and unilateral chest pain. Lung sounds are absent on one side. Hypotension and tracheal deviation are also present.  Which of the following is the CORRECT action for these findings?




    D.  suspect a tension pneumothorax
  196. Which of the following is the most serious drawback of using positive pressure/demand valves?




    C.  high airway pressures are created
  197. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding ET suctioning?




    D.  sterile technique is indicated when using a whistle-tip catheter
  198. Which of the following IS NOT a goal of rapid sequence induction?




    A.  allows visualization of airway anatomy for the intubation of c-spine injurer patients
  199. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of succinylcholine?

    a.  it effects can be reversed with narcan
    b.  it is administered at 1.5mg
    c.  it is contraindicated in patients with agonal respirations
    d.  It is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
    a, b, c, and d
  200. Which of the following IS NOT an indication for a tracheostomy?




    C.  when intubation is delayed
  201. Proper lung auscultation includes listening to breath sounds




    C.  for a full breath at the apex and base, anterior and posterior (6 places)
  202. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the most lethal early complication of tracheostomy?




    A.  accidental displacement of the tube
  203. Which of the following is CORRECT with regard to needle cricothyrotomy?




    A.  a more definitive airway is urgently warranted
  204. Airflow into the lungs during inspiration depends on all of the following EXCEPT




    B. relaxation of the diaphragm
  205. Which of the following procedures should be attempted prior to establishing a surgical airway?

    a.  needle cricothyrotomy
    b.  heimlich maneuver
    c.  intubation
    d.  mechanical removal of an obstruction with forceps
    b, c, d
  206. A Swan-Ganz catheter is in place.  Which of the following would be an inappropriate action if no waveform shows on the monitor?




    B.  flush the catheter
  207. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the nature of an abnormal SVR?




    D.  400 dynes/sec/cm^5
  208. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to reducing the risk of volume overload, when multiple units of blood are to be infused?




    A.  ABO blood groups and the Rh system
  209. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the primary importance when preparing to administer blood?




    C.  asking a second professional to confirm blood compatibility
  210. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?

    a.  The muscular layer of the heart is the endocardium
    b.  The two-layered sac surrounding the heart is the pericardium
    c.  The lining of the heart chambers is the epicardium
    d.  One of the three layers of tissue that form the wall of the heart is the endometrium
    a, c, d
  211. Which of the following is CORRECT is regard to the nervous system control of the heart?




    C.  The sympathetic nervous system innervates the heart through the cardiac plexus
  212. Which of the following is FALSE in regard to electrophysiology of the heart?




    C.  the normal electrical state of cardiac cells is known as the action potential
  213. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding lead placement fro the 12 lead ECG?




    C.  leads AVR, AVL, AVF are unipolar limb leads
  214. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the components of the electrocardiogram?




    B.  The shape and appearance of a waveform is referred to as the morphology
  215. A 59 year old male has been diagnosed with an inferior wall infarction.  Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding his 12 Lead interpretation?




    D.  all of the above
  216. Which of the following IS NOT a primary component of 12 lead ECG interpretation?




    C.  calculation of the electrical axis of the T wave and P wave
  217. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to aberrant conduction?




    D.  It results in a supraventricular bear conducted through the ventricles in a delayed manner
  218. Myocardial injury can be indicated on an ECG by




    D.  An elevated ST segment
  219. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to patients with an ICD?




    C.  should avoid hand held metal detectors
  220. Which of the following represents information that should be obtained to help troubleshoot a pacemaker problem




    D.  all of the above
  221. The IABP catheter is attached to a machine which




    C.  b and c
  222. Place the following steps in appropriate order to assess proper balloon pump timing:

    a.  identify the dicrotic notch, and determine that inflation occurs at this point
    b.  deflate the balloon just before systole
    c.  compare the slopes of systolic upstroke and diastolic augmentation
    d.  identify the beginining of systole and diastole on the arterial waveform
    e.  evaluate the systolic pressure peak to determine that is lower than the unassisted systolic pressure peak
    d, a, c, b, e
  223. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with regard to the proper positioning of the intra-aortic balloon?




    C.  requires balloon placement in the thoracic aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery
  224. Haloperidol is indicated for




    B. acute psychotic episodes
  225. The mechanism of action for Benzodiazepines includes




    B.  inhibiting pre and post synaptic dopamine
  226. Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regard to how Flumazenil works?




    C.  antagonzing benzodiazepine receptor sites
  227. Which of the following is/are true about Morphine?
    a.  it is a central nervous system stimulant
    b.  it binds with opiate receptors in the brain
    c.  nausea and Vomiting frequently accompany administration
    d.  its duration is 3-7 hours
    b, c, and d
  228. A nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent used to maintain paralysis following intubation, and lasting approximately 30 minutes




    C.  vecuronium
  229. Which of the following is/are true regarding the use of dextran


    a.  it is a glucose polymer in normal saline or D5W
    b.  it has more colloid properties than albumin
    c.  it expands 3 ml per every 1 ml administered
    d.  it is administered at a rate of 2 gm/kg in the first 24 hours
    a and d
  230. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Dobutamine?




    A.  it has significant chronotropic effects
  231. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of albuterol?




    B.  it is administered via nebulizer at a dose of 0.25mg
  232. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to anticholinergics?




    B.  produce bronchodilation in cholinergic mediated bronchoconstriction
  233. An example of a Class III antiarrhythmics would be




    C.  amiodarone
  234. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the use of amiodarone?




    C.  it is administered in an initial dose of 300mg for cardiac arrest due to shock resistant v-fib
  235. Which of the following is/are CORRECT regarding the use of beta blockers?

    a.  The higher the dose, the more they lose selectivity
    b.  their adverse effects include fatigue and malaise
    c.  they are indicated for hypertension
    d.  caution should be exercised when giving to CHF patients
    a, b, c, and d
  236. You need to administer a loading dose of 5mg/kg of Aminophylline to a 110 pound adult female with asthma.  Their dose is to be administered over 30 minutes.  You have a 250ml bag of normal saline, a 500mg vial of Aminophylline, and a 10 gtts/ml administration set.  

    What will be the concentration of the Aminophylline when mixed in the bag?




    D.  2 mg/ml
  237. You need to administer a loading dose of 5mg/kg of Aminophylline to a 110 pound adult female with asthma.  Their dose is to be administered over 30 minutes.  You have a 250ml bag of normal saline, a 500mg vial of Aminophylline, and a 10 gtts/ml administration set. 

    What is the actual dose of Aminophylline to be administered to the patient?
     



    B.  250 mg
  238. You need to administer a loading dose of 5mg/kg of Aminophylline to a 110 pound adult female with asthma.  Their dose is to be administered over 30 minutes.  You have a 250ml bag of normal saline, a 500mg vial of Aminophylline, and a 10 gtts/ml administration set. 

    How many mililiters of Aminophylline must you adminster?




    C.  125 ml
  239. You need to administer a loading dose of 5mg/kg of Aminophylline to a 110 pound adult female with asthma.  Their dose is to be administered over 30 minutes.  You have a 250ml bag of normal saline, a 500mg vial of Aminophylline, and a 10 gtts/ml administration set. 

    How many gtts/min would you run this initial drip?




    B. 42 gtts/min
  240. You must administer a Dopamine infusion at 10mcg/kg/min to a 176 pound male with hypotension associated with cardiogenic shock.  You have a 200 mg of Dopamine, a 250 ml bag of D5W and a 60 gtts/ml administration set.  How many drops per minute should you infuse?




    D.
  241. A patient presenting with profuse hematemesis with frank red blood, and a history of significant alcohol abuse is/are mostly likely caused by





    B. esophageal varice
  242. Which of the following IS NOT an abnormal finding in the abdominal assessment




    D.  bowel sounds heard approximately every 15-30 seconds
  243. A thin female patient is supine on the cot during your assessment.  You palpate a strong pulse at her umbilicus.  This is likely due to:





    B.  The normal condition of her abdominal aorta
  244. You have just received a patient with a nasogastric tube already in place.   When you inject air into the tube and auscultate the epigastrium, nothing is heard.  Your next action is to:




    A.  remove the tube and reattempt placement
  245. Which of the following actions can help prevent diarrhea and other gastrointestinal complications associated with enteral feedings?




    D.  changing the adminstration set every 24 hours
  246. Which of the following statesments is/are CORRECT with regard to the purpose of a Foley catheter?




    D.  all of the above
  247. No urine is found in the foley catheter after placement.  This could be caused by




    D.  all of the above
  248. Following placement of a Foley catheter, the patient develops an infection.  Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of that infection?




    A.  clear urine
  249. Which of the following will be altered by renal failure?




    D.  all of the above
  250. Which of the following IS NOT a risk factor for a patient undergoing peritoneal dialysis?




    B.  fistula graft rejection
  251. Which of the following is/are a cause of hypotension during or following dialysis?

    a.  disequilibrium syndrome
    b.  anxiety about the procedure
    c.  excessive filtration of the blood
    d.  infectious processes associated with the procedure
    excessive filtration of the blood
  252. A 42 year old patient with serious head trauma has an intracranial pressure of 19 mmhg.  This indicates that his ICP is:




    B.  slightly elevated
  253. In order to decrease ICP, the patient's head should be:




    A.  aligned with neck
  254. When comparing the adult and pediatric respiratory systems, which of the following is CORRECT with regard to the pediatric patient?




    B.  the diaphragm is the chief muscle of respiration
  255. When adminstering medications via the ETT to neonates and pediatrics, which of the following IS NOT given at 2-3 times the usual dose?




    A.  Epiphrine
  256. You are preparing to perform RSI on a 6 year old child with multiple system trauma.  Of the following medications used for RSI which has the CORRECT dosage listed:




    D.  Succinylcholine 1-4 mg/kg IV/IO
  257. An early sign of shock in a pediatric patient is:




    A.  prolonged capillary
  258. In regard to third trimester bleeding which of the following is/are CORRECT?




    D.  All of the above
  259. Which of the following is CORRECT with regard to pre-term labor?




    D.  Terbutaline is administered at 0.25mg SQ every 15 mins times 3 doses
  260. Treatment of a prolapsed umbilical cord includes the following:




    A.  Changing the materal position to knee-chest
  261. a 25 year old male has been burned on the anterior portion of his left arm from the elbow to the wrist, on one half of his chest and on his left side of his face.  Based on the "Rule of Nines" what is the percentage of total body surface area burned?




    C.  18%
  262. When transporting a patient with a circumferential burn of the extremity, the Critical Care Professional must be concerned with which of the following:




    D.  All of the above
  263. Which of the following chemicals would produce the most serious burns?




    C.  An alkali solution
  264. Another method for measuring the percent of total body surface area burned is:




    B.  Rule of the palm
  265. Severity of a burn is determined by which of the following:
    1.  Depth
    2.  Age
    3.  The color of the flame
    4.  History
    5.  Method used to extinguish the flame
    1, 2 and 4
  266. Which of the following parients meets the criteris for transport to a burn center?




    C.  Partial and full thickness burns of >20% BSA
Author
jennyluvstrucks
ID
122564
Card Set
CCEMTP
Description
Critical Care Transport Review
Updated