Final WB part 1

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Final WB part 1
2011-12-12 20:10:45

All workbook questions
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  1. Which are the principle parts of a eukaryotic cell?
  2. Which particle can penetrate cell membranes most easily?
    Lipid soluble, transport protein present
  3. For a cell to engage in active transport processes, it requires:
    • All of the Above
    • Mitochondria, appropriate fuel, ATP, enzymes
  4. Which is inconsistent with the others?
  5. Which can transport substances uphill against the concentration gradient?
    active transport
  6. Caveolae:
    • All of the above are correct
    • serve as repositories for some receptors, provide a route for tranport into the cell, relay signals into the cell
  7. Which statement is true for cytoplasm?
    • a,b, and c
    • it is located outside the nucleus, it provides support for organelles, it is mostly water
  8. The retinoblastoma (Rb) protein:
    • a, b and c
    • is a brake on the progress of the cell cycle, binds to gene regulatory proteins, slows cell proliferation
  9. A major function of connective tissue is:
    support and binding
  10. Signaling molecules cause all of the following except:
    conversion of intracellular signal into an extracellular response
  11. Identify the correct sequence of events for initiation and conduction of a nerve impulse
    • 3,1,5,2,4
    • sodium permeability changes, sodium moves inside, potassium permeability changes, potassium leaves cell, resting potential is reestablished
  12. Increased cytoplasmic calcium:
    decreases permeability at the junctional complex
  13. Cell junctions:
    • Both a and c are correct
    • coordinate activities of cells within tissues, hold cells together
  14. Which genetic disease is caused by an abnormal karyotype?
    Down syndrome
  15. Which is not characteristic of Down syndrome?
    it is a genetic error of metabolism
  16. Cri-du-chat syndrome is an abnormality of chromosomal structure involving:
  17. An individual's karyotype lacks a homologous X chromosome and has only a single X chromosome present. Which statement is not true
    The karyotype is 46, XY.
  18. If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, the disorder is:
  19. Cystic fibrosis has been mapped to chromosome:
  20. In autosomal dominant inherited disorders:
    affected persons mating with normal persons have a 50% risk of having an affected offspring
  21. When environmental influences cause varied phenotypic expressions of genotypes, the result is:
    a multifactorial trait
  22. Which likely is not a multifactorial inherited disorder?
    cystic fibrosis
  23. A cellular adaptation observable in uterine cervical epithelium is:
  24. What is the probable cause of cellular swellin in the early stages of cell injury?
    Na-K pump fails to remove intracellular Na+
  25. Dystrophic Calcification:
    • Both a and c are correct
    • occurs in dying or dead tissues, is observed in chronic lesions
  26. cellular swelling is
    evident early in all types of cellular injury
  27. Which is not reversible?
  28. Aging:
    none of the above are correct
  29. In aging, cross-linking implies that:
    cell permeability decreases
  30. The total water loss per day in adult is approximately:
    2.8 L
  31. Of the 60% of the body weight made up of water, about two thirds is:
    intracellular water
  32. Sodium is responsible for:
    ECF osmotic balance
  33. A milliequivalent is a unit of:
    chemical activity
  34. Which statement is true?
    The positive and negative charges in blood plasma must be equal to eachother
  35. The release of ADH is not stimulated by:
  36. Laboratory studies of an adult reveal the following:
    Plasma sodium- 110 mEq/l
    Plasma Chloride- 85 mEq/l
    Plasma Potassium- 4.8 mEq/l
    Plasma Calcium- 5.2 mEq/l
    Plasma bicarbonate- 26 mEq/l

    The most likely alteration is:
  37. An individual suffers from weakness, dizziness, irritability, and intestinal cramps. Laboratory studies relveal the following:
    Plasma sodium- 138 mEq/l
    Plasma potassium- 6.8 mEq/l
    Blood pH- 7.38
    Plasma Bicarbonate- 25 mEq/l
    An EKG with tall peaked T wave but otherwise normal
    The individual is suffering from:
  38. An acid is:
    A substance/chemical that donates a hydrogen ion or proton to the solution
  39. The blood pH is maintained near 7.4 by buffering systems. The sequence from fastest acting to the slowest acting system is:
    blood buffer, lungs, kidneys
  40. The pH of saliva is about 7 and the pH of gastric juice is about 2. How many times more concentrated is the hydrogen ion in gastric juice than in saliva?
  41. Which would not shift the blood pH toward alkalosis?
    bicarbonat ion secretion in the urine
  42. A young female became agitated and apprehensive and she eventually lost consciousness. At the hospital emergency room, the following laboratory values were obtained:
    Plasma sodium- 137 mEq/l
    Plasma potassium- 5.o mEq/l
    Blood pH 7.53
    Serum CO2 - 22 mmHg
    Plasma bicarbonate- 24 mEq/l
    Her immediate diagnosis was:
    respiratory alkalosis
  43. As HCO3- shifts from red blood cells to the blood plasma, it is expected that the plasma:
    Cl- shifts into the red blood cell
  44. An elevated anion gap is associated with an accumulation of:
    lactate anion
  45. Inflammation:
    • All of the above are correct
    • destroys injurious agents, confines injurious agents, stimulates and enhances immunity, promotes healing
  46. Inflammatory microcirculation changes involve all of the following except:
    days to develop
  47. a phagocyte's role begins with an inflammatory response. The sequence for phagocytosis is:
    margination, diapedesis, recognition, adherence, ingestion, fusion with lysosomes inside the phagocyte, destruction of the target
  48. Chemotactiv factors for phagocytes include all of the following except:
  49. Which is not a local manifestation of inflammation?
  50. Complement is:
    a series of proteins in the blood
  51. Diapedesis is a process in which:
    neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to an injured tissue site
  52. Interferon:
    Prevents viruses from infecting healthy host cells
  53. The complement system can be activated by:
    • A,b, and c are correct
    • the binding of complement 1 to a complement binding site of an antibody, components of other plasma protein systems, and the binding of complement 3 to bacteria
  54. Which is not a systemic manifestation of inflammation?
  55. the inflammatory response:
    minimizes injury and promotes healing
  56. scar tissue is:
    nondisfunctional collagenous and fibrotic tissue
  57. Repair involves processes that:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • fill in the wound, cover or seal the wound, shrink the wound
  58. Swelling during acute inflammation is caused by:
    fluid and cellular exudation
  59. Which is not released from mast cells during degranulation?
  60. Chronic inflammation is characterized by:
    lymphocytic and macrophagic infiltration
  61. Which is synthesized by mast cells?
  62. Primary intention healin:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • involve collagen synthesis, requires little wound contraction and epithelialization
  63. Interleukins:
    • All of the above are correct
    • provide messages btw leukocytes, are produced in response to tissue injury, stimulate cells to produce antiviral substances, increase antibody production and population of T cells
  64. Eosinophils:
    • Both b and c are correct
    • control the vascular effects of serotonin and histamine by lysosomal mediators, have a lysosomal protein that can dissolve the surface membranes of parasites
  65. APCs are:
  66. When antigen binds to its appropriate antibody:
    • All of the above are correct
    • agglutination may occur, phagocytosis may occur, antigen neutralization may occur
  67. Antibodies are produced by:
    plasma cells
  68. An immunoglobulin contains:
    two heavy and two light polypeptide chains
  69. The antibody class having the highest concentration in the blood is:
  70. Which antibody is matched with its appropriate role?
    IgM/first to challenge the antigen
  71. The primary immune response involves:
    a latent period followed by peak antibody production
  72. Which cells are phagocytic?
  73. When a child develops measles and acquires an immunity to subsequent infections, the immunity is:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • acquired and active
  74. Immunologic responses recognized as disease are:
    • both a and b are correct
    • immediate or delayed hypersensitivities
  75. Which is not characteristic of hypersensitivity?
    prior contact unnecessary to elicit a response
  76. When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, it is:
    an autoimmune disease
  77. Which hypersensitivitie is caused by poison ivy?
    Type IV
  78. The mechanism of hypersensitivity for drugs is:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • Type I, II, III
  79. Which is not an autoimmune disease?
    transfusion reaction
  80. Damage in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) results from the formation of antigen/antibody complexes mediated by:
    the humoral immune system and complement
  81. The classical complement cascade begins with:
    antigen/antibody complexes binding to a component of the complement system
  82. An alloimmune disorder is:
    erythroblastosis fetalis
  83. Immunodeficiencies occur because of impaired function of:
    • All of the above are correct
    • B and T cells, phagocytic cells, complement
  84. An x-linked recessive disorder of immune deficiency involves a defecit of:
  85. Deficiencies in B cell immune responses are suspected when unusual or recurrent severe infections are caused by:
    encapsulated bacteria
  86. Digeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
    congenital lack of thymic tissue
  87. Secondary or acquired immunodeficiencies:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • develop after birth, may be caused by viral infections, may develop following immunosuppressive therapy
  88. Rejection of a kidney transplant occurred after 2 weeks. The reaction was because of:
    • Both b and c are correct
    • immune response against donor HLA antigens, a type IV hypersensitivity
  89. SCID exhibits:
    B and T cell deficits
  90. A positive HIV antibody test signifies that the:
    individual is infected with HIC and likely so for life
  91. Which is incorrect regarding AIDS?
    The patient will have increased numbers of CD4 cells or helper T cells
  92. Which is not a characteristic of Seyle's stress syndrome?
    Adrenal atrophy
  93. Which characterizes the alarm stage?
    Increased sympathetic activity
  94. Glucocorticoids would be highest during the stage of:
  95. Which is a correct sequence for Seyle's hypothesis for stress?
    increased ACTH in the blood, hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex
  96. CRF is released by the:
  97. Stress may be defined as any factor that stimulates the:
    hypothalamus to release CRF
  98. Which statement is not true?
    Stressors are the same for all individuals
  99. What determines which stimuli are stressors for an individual?
  100. Which statement is not true?
    Generally, psychologic stress is independent of physiologic stress
  101. The production of cortisol in response to stress can be initiated by the:
    hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and adrenal cortex
  102. Cortisol:
    Increases protein catabolism
  103. Which would not occur in response to stress?
    constriction of the pupils
  104. Which would not be useful to assess stress?
    total blood cholesterol
  105. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes:
    cortisol and aldosterone
  106. Severe stress results in all of the following except:
    an overactive immune system
  107. Which characterizes cancer cells?
    • All of the above are correct
    • poorly differentiated, metastasis, infiltrative growth mode, poor cellular cohesiveness
  108. Which is not a malignant tumor?
  109. Endocrine hormone secretion is increased in:
    benign tumors
  110. Metastasis is:
    the ability to establish a secondary neoplasm at a new site
  111. Carcinoma in situ is:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • preinvasive and a glandular or epithelial lesion
  112. Known routes of metastasis include:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • continuous extension, lymphatic spread, and bloodstream dissemination
  113. Tumor suppresor genes are:
    genes that produce proteins that inhibit cellular division
  114. In the current theory of carcinogenesis:
    • Both b and d are correct
    • several mutagenic "hits" are required and sequential genetic changes occur
  115. Which is not involved in metastasis?
  116. Oncogenic viruses are:
    • All of the above are correct
    • DNA and RNA viruses, capable of incorporation into host genes, capable of transforming a normal cell into a cancerous cell
  117. The p53 gene:
    • All of the above are correct
    • enables cells to cope with DNA damage, blocks the prolifeation of cells that have suffered carcinogenic mutations, mutations are the most common genetic lesion in human cancer, mutations disable an emergency brake on cell proliferation
  118. Local invasive factors include all except:
    increased cellular adhesion
  119. The sequence of carcinogenesis is:
    viral infection, several mutagenic "hits' on DNA
  120. An adenoma is:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • benign and a glandular epitheilial neoplasm
  121. Likely causes for the fatigue observed in individuals with cancer include:
    • All of the above are correct
    • biochemical changes because of treatment, muscle loss, psychologic factors
  122. The pain experienced with cancer:
    • Both b and d are correct
    • occurs in bone metastasis and results from tissue necrosis
  123. The anorexia or loss of appetite seen in the syndrome of cancer cachexia may occur because of:
    altered blood serum levels of glucose and amino acids
  124. The anemia associated with malignancy can be:
    the result of depletion of hemoglobin building blocks
  125. Chemotherapy for cancer:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • prevents transcription, damages cells undergoing mitosis
  126. Immunotherapy for cancer:
    is augmented by memory cells
  127. BRMs:
    • All of the above are correct
    • directly kill cancer cells, augment the tumor-immune response, modify the cancer cell's susceptibility to lysis
  128. One function of the somatic nervous system that is not performed by the autonomic nervous system is conduction of impulses:
    to skeletal muscles
  129. A neuron with a single dendrite at one end of the cell body and a single axon at the other end of the cell body would be classified as:
  130. Neurons that carry impulses away from the CNS are called:
    Efferent neurons
  131. Neurons are specialized for the conduction of impulses, whereas neuroglia
    support nerve tissue
  132. There is one-way conduction at a synapse because:
    only the presynaptic neuron contains neurotransmitters
  133. Which contains the thalamus and hypothalamus?
  134. The reticular activating system:
    maintains wakefulness
  135. Which is not a protective covering of the CNS?
    cauda equine
  136. The composition of cerebrospinal fluid is:
    a plasma-like liquid with glucose, salts, and proteins
  137. An autonomic ganglion can be described as:
    the site of synapses between visceral efferent neurons
  138. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • mobilizes energy in times of need, is innervated by cell bodies from T1 through L2
  139. The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • conserves and stores energy, has relatively short postganglionic neurons
  140. Endorphins:
    decrease pain sensations
  141. Referred pain from upper abdominal diseases involves:
    T8, L1 and L2
  142. In the gate control theory of pain:
    stimulation of large A fibers "closes the gate"
  143. Which is not a neuromodulator of pain?
  144. Interleukin-1:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • reaises the hypothalamic set point, is an endogenous pyrogen, is stimulated by exogenous pyrogens
  145. Increased serum levels of epinephrine increase body temperature by:
    increasing heat production
  146. In heatstroke:
    core temperature increases as the regulatory center fails
  147. Which is involved in fever?
    • A, b, and c are correct
    • tumor necrosis factor, endotoxins, elevation of the set point in the hypothalamus
  148. In hypothermia:
    acidosis can develop
  149. Although non-REM and REM sleep are defined by electrical recordings, they are characterized by physiologic events. Which does not occur?
    During non-REM, levels of corticosteroids increase
  150. Meniere disease:
    distrupts both vestibular and hearing functions
  151. Acute otitis media (AOM):
    displays a tympanic membrane progressing from erythema to opaqueness with bulging
  152. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD):
    exhibits retinal detachment and loss of photoreceptors
  153. Vestibular nystagmus
    is the constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball caused by ear disturbances
  154. Sleep apnea:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • is lack of breathing during sleep, can result from airway obstruction during sleep
  155. Individuals affected by sleep apnea may experience:
    • All of the above are correct
    • polycythemia, cyanosis, and pulmonary hypertension