Volume 2 units review

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sraabney
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123032
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Volume 2 units review
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2011-12-12 17:12:53
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  1. (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    A. Air Combat Command (ACC).
    B. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    D. Air Training Command (ATC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. (201) Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?
    A. Cross utilization training.
    B. Continuation training.
    C. Ancillary training.
    D. Formal training.
    C. Ancillary training.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    A. General Technical Order System.
    B. Maintenance Orientation.
    C. Any 7-level course.
    D. Weight and Balance.
    B. Maintenance Orientation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. (201) Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?
    A. 11
    B. 12
    C. 13
    D. 14
    C. 13
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. (201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Trining Record
    B. Specialty Training Standard
    C. Career Field Education and Training Plan
    D. AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Trining Record
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. (201) All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except
    A. MAJCOMs.
    B. supervisors.
    C. commanders.
    D. unit training managers.
    D. unit training managers.
  7. (201) Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to teh special certitication roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?
    A. MAJCOM functional manager
    B. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    C. Squadron operations officer.
    D. Squadron commander (SQ/CC)
    B. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. (201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold minimum grade of
    A. master sergent (MSgt)
    B. chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
    C. senior master sergent (SMSgt).
    D. technical sergent (TSgt)
    A. master sergent(MSgt)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. (202) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    A. IV.
    B. III.
    C. I.
    D. II.
    D. II.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. (202) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    A. Maintenance refresher.
    B. Maintenance qualification.
    C. Ancillary.
    D. On-the-job.
    B. Maintenance qualification.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. (202) How oftern dose the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    A. Monthly.
    B. Semiannually.
    C. Quarterly.
    D. Annually.
    A. Monthly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. (202) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more that 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    A. 60
    B. 30
    C. 15
    D. 45
    B. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. (202) Who is responible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career developmnet course (CDC).
    A. Group commander.
    B. Operations officer
    C. Unit training manager.
    D. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
    C.Unit training manger
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. (202) Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to
    A. evaluate training.
    B. determine training needs.
    C. select training strategies.
    D. determine training capabilities.
    B. determine training needs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. (203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what Percentage of overhead manning?
    A. 5.
    B. 10.
    C. 15.
    D. 20.
    B. 10
  16. (203)Which element of a logistics composite model (LC
    OM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
    A. Maintenance requiremnets.
    B. Operations requirments.
    C. Support facilities.
    D. Support equirmnets.
    B. Operations requirments.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. (203) Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
    A. Aerospace ground equipment.
    B. Maintenance people.
    C. Training deployment.
    D. Spare parts.
    C. Training deploymnets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. (203) Manpower authorziations are
    A. both funded and unfunded.
    B. unfunded.
    C. unvalidated.
    D. funded.
    D. funded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. (203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
    A. show the name of person assigned to a particular position.
    B. show the required grade for a particular position
    C. show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular poition.
    D. provide detailed informaion about each manpower requirement.
    A. show the name of person assigned to a paritcular position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. (203) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
    A. quarterly
    B. semiannually.
    C. monthly.
    D. Weekly.
    C. monthly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. (203) Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the pffice of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?
    A. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).
    B. Programs and Resources Flights.
    C. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
    D. Maintenance oprations center (MOC)
    A. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. (204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    A. Maintenance operations center.
    B. Maintenance supply liaison.
    C. Maintenance data system analysis.
    D. Maintenance supply support.
    B. Maintenance supply liaison.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. (204) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    A. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
    B. Adviding supervisors on supply management documnts.
    C. Collecting and turning in exependable, exxcess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    D. Monitoring status of back-orderd requisitions.
    C. Collecting and turning in exependable, exxcess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. (204) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    A. 15.
    B. 60.
    C. 45.
    D. 30.
    D. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. (204) How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares package (RSPs)?
    A. Biennially.
    B. Annually.
    C. Monothy.
    D. Quarterly.
    B. Annually.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. (205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigine to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
    A. XD1.
    B. XD2.
    C. XF3.
    D. XB3.
    D. XB3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. (205) Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
    A. 60.
    B. 120.
    C. 30.
    D. 90.
    D. 90.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. (205) Provided it si still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration data with type of shelf life item?
    A. IV
    B. II
    C. III
    D. I.
    B. II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. (205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    A. Oil sheen on standing water.
    B. Stressed vegetation.
    C. Stains on ground.
    D. Cloudy water.
    D. Cloudy water.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. (205) Whoo is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    A. Section supervisor.
    B. Squadron safety moritor.
    C. Opreations officer.
    D. Squadron commander.
    A. Section supervisor.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. (205) In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsibel for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by teschnical guidance?
    A. MXG Vice Commander.
    B. MXG Superinternent.
    C. Maintenance Squardron (MXS) Commander.
    D. MXG Commander.
    D. MXG Commander.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. (205) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuing the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirement?
    A. MXG Commander.
    B. MXG Superintendent.
    C. MXG Vice Commander.
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Manitenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Manitenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. (206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipmnet account custodian?
    A. Squadron Commander.
    B. Flight Commander/Chief.
    C. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    D. Section supervisor.
    A. Squadron Commander.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. (206) An individual must receive wht specific block of supply training before assuming duties as
    A. IIB.
    B. IIA.
    C. III.
    D. I.
    A. IIB.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. (206) Which of the following is not covered in the Percious Metals Recovery Program?
    A. Copper.
    B. Rhodium.
    C. Silver.
    D. Iridium.
    D. Copper.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. (206) Which Percious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
    A. P.
    B. C.
    C. A.
    D. G.
    C. A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. (206) Which Precious Metals Indicatior Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    A. A.
    B. C.
    C. G.
    D. P.
    B. C.
  38. (207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    A. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    B. D18, Priortity Monitor Report.
    C. D04, Daily Document Register.
    D. D23, Repair cycle Asset Management List.
    C. D04, Daily Document Register.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. (207) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-orderes parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    A. D18, Priortity Monitor Report.
    B. D04, Daily Document Register.
    C. D23, Repair cycle Asset Management List.
    D. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    A. D18, Priortity Monitor Report.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. (207) Which supply tracking document provides a management profuct for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    A. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    B. D04, Daily Document Register.
    C. D23, Repair cycle Asset Management List.
    D. D18, Priortity Monitor Report.
    A. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. (208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    A. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
    B. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
    C. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    D. Flight Service Center (FSC).
    C. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
    A. F.
    B. D.
    C. B.
    D. A.
    D. A.
  43. (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
    A. F.
    B. D.
    C. B.
    D. A.
    A. F.
  44. (208) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    B. Flight commander/Chief.
    C. Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
    D. Maintenance Group commander.
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. (208) Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    A. Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
    B. Maintenance Group commander.
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    D. Flight commander/Chief.
    B. Maintenance Group commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. (208) Who ulitmately determines if the secrity provieded at a transient location is adquate for classified assets installe on an aircraft?
    A. Aircraft commander.
    B. Host installation commander.
    C. Operations Group Commander.
    D. Mission Support Group commander.
    A. Aircraft commander
  47. (208) Who is responible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes and emergency landing?
    A. Nearest military installation.
    B. Local law enforcement.
    C. Aircraft commander.
    D. local fire chief.
    C. Aircraft commander
  48. (208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    A. 2 hours.
    B. 3 hours.
    C. hour.
    D. 4 hours.
    B. 3 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 1
    D. 4
    A. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirmnets?
    A. 4
    B. 5
    C. 6
    D. 7
    B. 5
  51. (209) Which urgency justification fodes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    A. 1A or JA.
    B. BM or CM
    C. AA or AM
    D. AR or BR.
    D. AR or BR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. (209) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinte with?
    A. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
    B. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
    C. LRS material management element.
    D. Logistice Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight ServiceCenter.
    C. LRS material management element.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. (209) What is the accountability documnet used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out?
    A. custodian authorization/custody receipt listing.
    B. Qualified Reference List.
    C. Supply Point Listing.
    D. Repair Cycle Asset Management list.
    C. Supply Point Listing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. (209) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the pail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    A. Operations Officer.
    B. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    C. Aircraft Section flight chief.
    D. Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section.
    B. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. (209) When a back-ordered intim issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    A. Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section.
    B. Aircraft Sections flight chief.
    C. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    D. Operations Officer.
    A. Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. (209) When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), Which entery is not normally needed?
    A. Security classification.
    B. Noun.
    C. Status.
    D. Date received.
    A. Security Classification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. (210) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    A. Deficiency Report (DR)
    B. Supply Discrepancy Report.
    C. Product Quality Deficiency Reoprt.
    D. Maintenance cross-tell report.
    B. Supply Discrepany Report.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. (210) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the subitting orgaization or group?
    A. Originator.
    B. Action Point.
    C. Screening Point.
    D. Origingting Point.
    D Originating Point.
  59. (210) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    A. Action Point.
    B. Screening Point
    C. Originating Point
    D. Originator.
    A. Action Point
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. (211) Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?
    A. Manuals.
    B. Technical Orders.
    C. Policy Directives.
    D. Instructions.
    B. Technical Orders.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. (211) Who is responsible for estblishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activites?
    A. MXG Commander (MXG/CC)
    B. MXG Superintendent (MXG/SUPT)
    C. Maintenance Squadron Commander (MXS CC)
    D. MXG Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)
    A. MXG Commander (MXG/CC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. (211) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) B. Assising units in establighting additional TODO accounts
    C. Advising MXG.CC on TO availability.
    D. Resolving TO availability problems.
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA)
  63. (212) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)
    A. Maintenance Datat System Analysis.
    B. Engine Management.
    C. Maintenance Operations Center.
    D. Quality Assurance.
    D. Qualiry Assurance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. (212) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    A. Emergency.
    B. Urgent.
    C. Standard.
    D. Routine.
    C. Standard.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. (212) A improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance world be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?
    A. Standard.
    B. Emergency.
    C. Routine.
    D. Urgent.
    D. Urgent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. (212) Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?
    A. HQ USAF/A4MM
    B. HQ AFMC/A4BM
    C. HQ AFMC/A4YE.
    D. HQ ACC/A4MT.
    A. HQ USA/A4MM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. (212) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waiver or deviations?
    A. Telphone
    B. Signed letter
    C. Organizational e-mail
    D. Defense Massage System.
  68. A. Telphone
  69. (213) If a serally controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?
    A. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)
    B. Programs and Resources Flight.
    C. Quality Assurance.
    D. Plans, scheduling, and documentions (PS&D).
    D. Plans, scheduling, and documentions (PS&D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. (213) For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for haveing and aircraft down is
    A. 60-75 days
    B. 45-60 days
    C. 75-90 days
    D. 30-45 days
    B. 45-60 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. (213) How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?
    A. Unacceptable.
    B. Safe.
    C. Unshieded.
    D. Shielded.
    C. Unshiedled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. (213) When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
    A. Hot cargo pad.
    B. Compass rose.
    C. Radiographic inspection.
    D. Radar operational testing.
    B. Compass rose.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. (213) "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
    A. priority actions.
    B. a sense of urgency.
    C. specific local procedures.
    D. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
    D. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver.
  74. (213) During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to
    A. provide contact information for key personnel.
    B. verify time change parts.
    C. check supply delivery priorities.
    D. reduce the time needed to resarch parts.
    D. reduce the time needed to research parts.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. (213) Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?
    A. US Army.
    B. National Transportation Safety Board.
    C. Federal Aviation Administration.
    D. US Air Force.
    B. National Transportation Safety Board.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. (215) Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integriy Program (ASIP) project officer?
    A. MXG Commander.
    B. MXS Operations Officer/maintenance superitendents (MX SUPT).
    C. MXG Superintendent.
    D. MXG Vice Commander.
    A. MXG Commander.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. (213) What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?
    A. Specialist.
    B. Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief.
    C. Aircraft.
    D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documention.
    D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documention
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. (214) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and managemetn of tools/equipment used on theflight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
    A. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV)
    B. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
    C. Maintenance Group Deputy Commanader (MXG/CD)
    D. Wing Commander (WG/CC)
    B. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. (214) In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and documnet a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?
    A. Semiannually.
    B. Monthly.
    C. Quaterly.
    D. Annually.
    D. Annually
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. (214) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    A. 8
    B. 9
    C. 11
    D. 10
    B. 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. (214) In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?
    A. Specific tool
    B. Unit.
    C. Base.
    D. Shop.
    B. Unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. (214) Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?
    A. Squadron commander (CC).
    B. Flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) chief.
    C. Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
    D. Fight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) commander (CC)
    C. Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. (215) Who is the Quanlity Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardizatino and Exaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
    B. MAJCOM Inspector General.
    C. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
    D. Wing Insperctior General.
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. (215) Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?
    A. 6
    B. 12
    C. 3
    D. 9
    A. 6
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment fingding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipmnet?
    A. Minor.
    B. Major.
    C. Category I.
    D. Category II.
    B. Major.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    B. Quality Verification Inspection.
    C. Management Inspection.
    D. Special Inspection.
    B. Quality Verification Inspection.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. (216) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
    A. Quality Assurance section
    B. Maintenance Flight.
    C. Engine Managemnet section.
    D. Maintenance Operations Center
    A. Quality Assurance section
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. (216) the wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    A. 24
    B. 8
    C. 48
    D. 12
    A. 24
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. (216) What dollar amount of damage must be exeeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?
    A. $20,000.
    B. $30,000.
    C. $40,000.
    D. $10,000.
    A. $20,000.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. (216) What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?
    A. Engine start to engine shut down.
    B. Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park.
    C. Take-off to landing.
    D. Crew-show unitil aircraft relased to maintenance
    A. Engine start to engine shut down.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. (216) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be prported IAW
    A. AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting.
    B. AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
    C. AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports
    D. AFI 91-221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports
    A. AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting.
  92. (217) Which AF publication provides general gudance for execution an effective maintenane recoveryoperation?
    A. AFTTP 3-21.1. Aircraft Maintenance.
    B. AFI 10-403, Deploymnet planning and Execution.
    C. AFI 33-103, Requiremnts Developmnet and Processing.
    D. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipmnet Maintenance Management.
    D. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipmnet Maintenance Management.
  93. (The maximum total intial duty time (includeng travel) that a manitenance recovery team member may be workd before being given 8 hours of uninterruped rest is
    A. 16 hours
    B. 14 hours
    C. 18 hours
    D. 20 hours
    A. 16 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. (217) Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibilly (OPR) for the maintenance group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instuction?
    A. Accessories Flight.
    B. Maintenance Flight.
    C. Fabrication Flight.
    D. Aerospace Ground Equipment Flight.
    B. Maintenance Flight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. (217) How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recover (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?
    A. Annually.
    B. Quarterly.
    C. Semiannually.
    D. Monthly
    A. Annually
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. (217) After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?
    A. Semiannually.
    B. Annually.
    C. Quarterly.
    D. Biennially.
    B. Annually
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. (218) Which AF Portal link provide access to recurring AF peridoicals like Airman Magazine and the Air & Space Journal?
    A. AF Electronic Publighting (AF e-Publishing)
    B. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS)
    C. AF Information Technology E-Learning (Af IT E-Learning)
    D. AF Center of Excellence for Knowledge Management (AFKM)
    A. AF Electronic Publishing (AF E- Publishing)
  98. (218) Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?
    A. AF Center of Excellence fo Knowledge Management (AFKM).
    B. AF Information Technology E-Learning (AF It E-Learning)
    C. Air & Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Online.
    D. AF Center for Electronic Distributions of Systems (AFCEDS)
    D. AF Center for Elecronic Distribution of Systems (AFCEDS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. (219) Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew teams members in support of aircraft generation planning?
    A. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operation Officer.
    B MXD Production Superintendent.
    C. Wing Weapons Manger.
    D. Munitions leadership
    C. Wing Weapons Manger
  100. (219) You are primarily concerned with answering the question:"What steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area?
    A. Aircraft generation flow sequence.
    B. Aircraft generation actions.
    C. Aircraft generation timing.
    D. Aircraft generation action timing
    B. Aircraft generation actions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. (219) You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during which airecraft generation planning area?
    A. Aircraft generation action timing
    B. Aircraft generation actions.
    C. Aircraft generation flow sequence.
    D. Aircraft generation timing.
    A. Aircraft generation action timing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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