Final WB Part 2

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Final WB Part 2
2011-12-12 23:55:23

Workbook questions
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  1. Supraintentorial processes reduce arousal by:
    displacement of the brain stem
  2. An individual shows flexion in upper extremities and extension in lower extremities. This is:
    decorticate posturing
  3. Cerebral death:
    permits normal internal homeostasis
  4. Precipitating causes of seizure include all of the following except:
  5. Which epileptic seizure is characterized by temporal lobe spikes in the EKG?
  6. Postictal sleeping can be seen in _____seizures.
    grand mal
  7. Alzheimer disease:
    is most prevalant as a late-onset dementia
  8. Dystonia is:
    abnormal posture maintained by muscular contractions
  9. An individual with increased intracranial pressure from a head injury shows small and reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, and slowed breathing. Which stage of ICP exists?
    Stage 3
  10. Infratentorial herniation occurs with:
    shifting of the cerebellum
  11. In cerebral vasogenic edema:
    plasma proteins leak into extracellular spaces
  12. Which statement is not true regarding increasing intracranial pressures?
    Accumulating CO2 causes vasoconstriction
  13. Intellectual function is impaired in the dementing process. Which intellectual function is not impaired?
    • All of the above functions are impaired
    • anterograde and retrograde memory, abstraction, language deficits
  14. In blunt head trauma:
    the dura remains in tact
  15. In an automobile accident, an individual's forehead struck the windshield. The coup/countercoup injury would be the:
    frontal/occipital region
  16. In moderate diffuse axonal injury:
    • Both a and d are correct
    • coma lasts more than 24 hrs, tearing of axons in the cerebral hemisphere occurs
  17. Most spinal cord injuries occur in the:
    cervical and lumbar regions
  18. Injury of the cervical cord may be life threatening because of:
    diaphragmatic impairment
  19. Autonomic hyperreflexia is characterized by all of the following except:
  20. Intervetebral disk herniation:
    in the lumbosacral area causes pain over the gluteal region and into the calf or ankle
  21. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are:
    focal neurologic deficits that develop suddenly last for several minutes, and clear in 24 hours
  22. Which is a risk factor for the development of CVAs?
    • All of the above are risk factors
    • polycythemia vera, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperhomocysteinemia
  23. Which most typically characterizes the victims of a cerebral embolic stroke?
    middle-aged individuals with a history of heart disease
  24. Ruptured aneurysms are most likely in ____ cerebrovascular accidents
  25. Which is not a primary intracerebral neoplasm?
  26. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF has:
    neutrophilic infiltration
  27. Multiple sclerosis involves:
    activation of the syncytin gene
  28. Which is not a plasma component?
  29. Which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?
  30. Eosinophils:
    • A, b, and c are correct
    • can phagocitize, ingest antibody-antigen complexes, can be induced to attack parasites
  31. The precursor of granulocytes is the:
  32. Identify the correct sequence in the differentiation of erythrocytes:
    proerythroblast, normoblast, reticulocyte
  33. A differential count of WBCs includes all of the following except:
    3% reticulocytes
  34. The purpose of erythropoietin is to:
    control erythrocyte production
  35. The main regulator of platelet circulating mass is:
  36. About how many times mor RBCs than WBCs are there in a mm3 of blood?
  37. If the total leukocytic count of an individual was 7000/mm3, about how many neutrophils would normally be present in a mm3 of blood?
  38. Which granulocyte function is similar to that of tissue mast cells?
  39. Erythropoietin:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • is secreted by the kidney, production is stimulated by tissue hypoxia
  40. Which is not an agranulocyte?
    • Both a and d are correct
    • mast cell, reticulocyte
  41. Which are the most effective phagocytes?
    neutrophils and monocytes
  42. Which vitamins are needed for erythropoiesis?
    • Both a and b are correct
    • C and E, B2 and B12
  43. Kupffer cells are found in the:
  44. Which test reflects bone marrow activity?
    Reticulocyte count
  45. As an individual ages:
    lymphocyte function decreases
  46. Hemostasis involves all of the following except:
    protacyclin I
  47. When a blood vessel is damaged:
    • a, b and c are correct
    • sunendothelial collagen is exposed, platelets are attracted to collagen, platelets degranulate
  48. The biochemical mediators released by adhering platelets cause:
    vasoconstriction of the injured vessel
  49. Which is the correct sequence of coagulation?
    damaged tissue, VII, prothrombin
  50. Which is the correct sequence of fibrinolysis?
    plasmin, FDP
  51. Anemia regers to a deficiency of:
    • Both b and d are correct
    • erythrocytes, hemoglobin
  52. Morphologic classification of anemia is based on all of the following except:
  53. Hypoxemia causes:
    • Both a and b are correct
    • arterioles, capillariesm and venules dilate, the heart to contract more forcefully
  54. Which symptoms are consisten with aplastic anemia but not with pernicious anemia?
    Hemmorhage with tissues
  55. a cause of macrocytic-normochromic anemia is:
    antibodies against parietal cells
  56. An individual with chronic gastritis and tingling in the fingers requires which of the following for treatment?
    B12 by intramuscular injection
  57. Secondary polycythemia may be caused by:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • dehydration, COPD, living at high altitudes
  58. The symptoms of polycythemia are essentially caused by:
    increased blood viscosity
  59. Leukocytosis is found in all of the following except:
    Bone marrow depression
  60. What is the most notable characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
    the presence of heterophil antibody is diagnostically helpful
  61. Which likely does not play a role in leukemia?
  62. CML is characterized by its:
    presence of the philadelphia chromosome
  63. Clinical manifestation of multiple myeloma include all of the following except:
    decreased serum calcium
  64. A thrombocytopenia with a platelet count below 50,000/mm3 likly will cause:
    hemmorrhage from minor trauma
  65. Thromboembolic disease can be caused by all of the following except:
    deficient dietary intake of vitamin k
  66. DIC is associated with:
    • a, b and c are correct
    • endothelial damage, activation of factor x, release of tissue factor
  67. Oxygenated blood flows through the:
    pulmonary veins
  68. The hepatic vein carried blood from the:
    liver to the vena cava
  69. The position of the heart in the mediastinum is:
    between the lungs, superior to the diaphragm
  70. The pericardial space is found between the :
    visceral and parietal pericardium
  71. The QRS complex of the EKG represents:
    ventricular depolarization
  72. A person having a heart rate of 100, a systolic blood pressure of 200, and a stroke volume of 40 ml would have an average cardiac output of
    none of the above are correct
  73. Blood pressure is measured by the:
    pressure exerted on the arteries by the blood
  74. Identify the correct sequence of the portions of the pulmonary circulation:
    1. pulmonary veins
    2. pulmonary arteries
    3. lungs
    4. right ventricle
    5.left atrium
  75. The normal heartbeat is initiated by the:
    SA node
  76. If the sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart predominates over the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation, the heart will:
    increase its rate
  77. When blood exhibits turbulent flow:
    resistance increases
  78. Identify the normal sequence of an electrical impulse through the heart's conduction system
    1. atrioventricular bundle
    2. AV node
    3. Purkinje fiber
    4. SA node
    5. right and left bundle branches
  79. Which factor might increase resistance to the flow of blood through the blood vessels?
    decreased numbers of capillaries
  80. Depolarization of cardiac muscle cells occurs because of:
    the cell's interior becoming less negatively charged
  81. Which statement is true?
    Lymph from the entire body, except for the upper right quadrant, eventually drains into the thoracic duct
  82. Arteriosclerosis raises the systolic blood pressure by:
    decreasing arterial distensibility and lumen diameter
  83. Events in the development of atherosclerotic plaque include all of the following except:
    complement activation
  84. G.P. is a 50 yo male who was referred for evaluation of blood pressure. If he has high diastolic blood pressure, which of the following is G,P.'s reading?
    130/95 mmHg
  85. The complications of uncontrolled hypertension include all of the following except:
  86. Primary hypertension:
    is essentially idiopathic
  87. Orthostatic hypertension is caused by all of the following except:
    increased blood volume
  88. Localized outpouching of a vessel wall or heart chamber is:
    an aneurysm
  89. Which is a possible cause of varicose veins?
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • gravitaional forces on blood, long periods of standing, trauma to the saphenous veins
  90. A 76 year old male came to the ER after experiencing chest pain wile shoveling snow. Lab tests revealed essentially normal blood levels of SGOT, CPK, and LDH enzymes. The chest pain was relieved following rest and nitroglycerin therapy. The most probable diagnosis is:
    angina pectoris
  91. In pericardial effusion:
    • Both c and d are correct
    • tamponade compresses the right heart before affecting other structures, arterial blood pressure during expiration exceeps that during inspiration
  92. chamber volume increase is observed in ____cardiomyophathy
  93. Which is not an expected finding in acute rheumatic fever?
  94. Shock is a complex pathophysiologic process involving all of the following except:
  95. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) begins with an infection that progresses to:
    • All of the above are correct
    • bacteremia, sepsis, septic shock
  96. Which statement is incorrect concerning hypertension?
    Headache is the most reliable symptom
  97. A 53 year old male was admitted to the ER after experiencing SOB, weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and chest pain that did not subside after nitroglycerin therapy. Lab tests revealed the pt had an elevated serum CPK, troponin, and SCOT, or AST level. EKG trackings revealed a predominant Q wave and an elevated ST segment. The most probable diagnosis is:
    An acute myocardial infarct
  98. Considering the sequence of structures through which air enters the pulmonary system, the pharynx is to the trachea as the:
    respiratory bronchioles are to the alveolar ducts
  99. The cilia of the bronchial wall:
    propel mucus and trapped bacteria toward the oropharynx
  100. As the terminal bronchioles are approached:
    the epithelium becomes thinner
  101. The left bronchus:
    is more angled than the right
  102. The repiratory unit consists of:
    respiratory brochioles and alveoli
  103. Alveoli are excellent gas exhange units because of:
    • a, b, and c are correct
    • their large surface area, a vey thin epithelial layer, extensive vasoconstriction
  104. Sufactant:
    facilitates alveolar expansion during inspiration
  105. During expiration, which relationship is true?
    as the lung volume decreases, the pressure increases
  106. When the diaphagm and external intercostal contract:
    the intrathoracic volume increases
  107. Oxygen diffusion from the alveolus capillary occurs because:
    the PaO2 is less in the capillary than in the alveolus
  108. A shift to the right in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve:
    improves oxygen release and increases oxygen movement into the cells
  109. In which sequence does PaO2 progressively decrease?
    atmospheric air, aortic blood, body tissues
  110. Most O2 is carried in the blood______; most CO2 is carried in the blood_____.
    Bound to hemoglobin; associated with bicarbonat/carbonic acid
  111. Alveoli are well-suited for diffusion of respiratory gases because:
    they contain surfactant, which helps prevent alveolar collapse
  112. Which ordinarily brings about the greatest increase in the rate of respiration?
    excess carbon dioxide
  113. Given that the oxygen content of blood equals 1.34 ml of O2 per gram of hemoglobin times the arterial oxygen saturation percentage, if hemoglobin concentration is 15 g/dl and arterial saturation is 98%, what is the arterial oxygen content?
    19.7 ml/dl of blood
  114. The major muscles of inspiration are the
    • Both a and c are correct
    • diaphragm and external intercostals
  115. Stretch receptors:
    • All of the above are correct
    • are sensitive to volume changes in the lung, are located in airway smooth muscles, decrease ventillatory rate when stimulated, prevent lung overinflation when stimulated
  116. Which of the following increases respiratory rate?
    increased paco2 decreased pH and decreased pao2
  117. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of neurons
    sets the automatic rhythm of respiration