Genetics Test 3

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kingbken
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123286
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Genetics Test 3
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2011-12-13 04:05:42
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Genetics Test
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Genetics Test 3
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  1. In general, diseases that result from a deficiency of a single lysosomal enzyme are called ____.

    A. ancestral lysosomal disorders
    B. lysosomal storage disorders
    C. ancestral disorders
    D. Tay-Sachs Disease
    E. lysosomal dissociation disorders
    B. lysosomal storage disorders
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. ____ plays a key role in replicating DNA at the ends of chromosomes.

    A. polyA polymerase
    B. protein kinase
    C. DNA polymerase
    D. phosphodiesterase
    E. telomerase
    E. telomerase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Alternative splicing accounts for the fact that ___.

    A. DNA is double stranded
    B. genes are so big
    C. the actual number of proteins encoded by the human genome is at least several times greater than the number of genes it contains
    D. proteins often fold incorrectly
    E. the actual number of proteins encoded by the human genome is smaller than the number of genes it contains
    C. the actual number of proteins encoded by the human genome is at least several times greater than the number of genes it contains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What is evidence that ribosomes are nonspecific in carrying out their function?

    A. Bacterial ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes
    B. ribosomes are all exactly the same
    C. Every protein has a particular ribosome that synthesizes it.
    D. Bacterial ribosomes work faster than eukaryotic ribosomes
    E. Bacterial ribosomes can be used to make proteins encoded by human mRNAs.
    E. bacterial ribosomes can be used to make proteins encoded by human mRNAs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The ____ is located about 10 bases upstream from the initiation site. It has the consensus sequence ____ and is responsible for identifying the orecise nucleotide at which ___ begins.

    A. Portnoy box, TATAAT, translation
    B. Pribnow box, TATAAT, translation
    C. Portnoy box, TATAAT, transcription
    D. Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription
    E. Pribnow box, TTGACA, transcription
    D. Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which type of cytoskeletal element is characterized as a hollow, rigid, cylindrical tube with walls composed of tubulin subunits.
    A. microfilaments
    B. microtubules
    C. intermediate filaments
    D. minitubules
    A. microfilaments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. From what structure do cilia and flagella emerge?
    A. centromeres
    B. basal bodies
    C. spindle
    D. MTOC
    E. centrioles
    B. basal bodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What globular protein protein complex contacts both the actin and tropomyosin components of the thin filament?

    A. troponin
    B. actinin
    C. myosin
    D. titin
    E. manuitin
    A. troponin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. What seems to control the assembly and disassembly of intermediate filaments?
    A. sulfation
    B. hydrolysis
    C. denaturation
    D. phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
    E. hydroxylation
    C. denaturation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A cellular phenomenon called RNA interference is a process in which cells produce small RNAs called ____ that bind to specific mRNAs and inhibit the translation of these mRNAs into proteins.
    A. isRNAs
    B.siRNAs
    C. snRNAs
    D. mRNAs
    E. RNAsi
    C. snRNAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. What was the original strain of fruit flies called?

    A. normal type
    B. wild type
    C. wild ones
    D. dominant type
    E. original
    B. wild type
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Proteins destined for the inner mitochondrial membrane or the mitochondrial matrix must pass through the ______.

    a. TOM complex
    b. TIM complex
    c. at least one protein-lined channel
    d. intermembrane space
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
  13. The microtubule wall is composed of globular proteins arranged in longitudinal rows called ____.
    A. protofilaments
    B. microtubular units
    C. prototubules
    D. prototubulins
    E. microfilaments
    A. protofilaments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The ends of a polynucleotide chains are the ___ end and the ___ end.

    A. 3', C-terminal
    B. 3', 5'
    C. 3', 4'
    D.N-terminal, C-terminal
    E. 5', N-terminal
    B. 3', 5'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following molecular motors is associated with microfilaments?
    A. dyneins
    B. both kinesins and dyneins
    C. both kinesins and myosins
    D. myosins
    E. kinesins
    D. myosins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The site on DNA to which RNA polymerases bind before initiating transcription is called the ____.
    A. promotor
    B. silencer
    C. enhancer
    D. operator
    E. terminator
    A. promotor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The reverse reaction of nucleic acid synthesis almost never happens. What prevents?

    A. Polynucleotides are too stable to depolymerize
    B. H bonds holding the strands together are too strong
    C. nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis.
    D. there is a large uptake of free energy.
    E. The enzyme does not work in reverse.
    C. Nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. What is the name of the proteins that make up the nuclear lamina and of what protein superfamily are they a member?

    A. keratin, laminins
    B. actin, microfilaments
    C. lamins, laminins
    D. lamins, intermediate filaments
    E. keratin, intermediate filaments
    D. lamins, intermediate filaments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. In what form do mRNAs and rRNAs usually move from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

    A. as compacted molecules
    B. complexed with lipids
    C. as linear molecule
    D. as ribonucleoproteins
    E. as denatured molecules
    D. ribonucleoproteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The process of membrane fusion and subsequent content discharge is called ____ and is usually triggered by a release of _____.
    A. exocytosis, Ca2+ ions
    B. endocytosis, K+ ions
    C. exocytosis, K+ ions
    D. endocytosis, CA2+ ions
    E. secretion, K+ ions
    A. exocytosis, CA2+ ions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Kinesin movement along a microtubule is said to be ___ meaning that it can move long distances along an individual microtubule without falling off.
    A. excessive
    B. processive
    C.depressive
    D. egressive
    E. progressive
    B. processive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What causes unequal crossing over?
    A. A pair of homologous chromosomes aligns imperfectly during meiosis followed by genetic exchange.
    B. Pieces of chromosomes are translocated from one place to another.
    C. Sections of the chromosome are replicated spontaneously.
    D. A pair of homologous chromosomes aligns perfectly during meiosis followed by genetic exchange.
    E. Chromatids on different chromosomes align imperfectly followed by genetic exchange.
    A. A pair of homologous chromosome aligns imperfectly during meiosis followed by genetic exchange.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The intermediate stage that group II introns pass through while undergoing self-splicing is called the _____.
    A. longolier
    B. lanyard
    C. lasso
    D. lariat
    E. elsesser
    D. lariat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Why must RNA splicing be absolutely precise?
    1. A single base error at a splice junction will cause a large deletion.
    2. A single base error at a splice junction will cause a large addition.
    3. A single base error at a splice junction will change the reading frame and result in mRNA mistranslation.
    4. A single base error at a splice junction will cause a large inversion

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 1
    E. 2 and 3
    B. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The core of a cilium is called the _____.
    A. troponeme
    B. axoneme
    C. flagelloneme
    D. cilioneme
    E. dynomeme
    B. axoneme
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The thin filamentous meshwork within the nucleus that is bound by integral membrane proteins of the inner surface of the nuclear envelope is animal cells is called the ___.
    A. basal lamina
    B. nuclear limulus
    C. nuclear lamina
    D. nucleon
    E. basement lamina
    C. nuclear lamina
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. What group of proteins associated with DNA could be described as a small, well-defined basic protein group that exhibits very high lysine and/or arginine content?
    A. acidic proteins
    B. histones
    C. succinate dehydrogenases
    D. DNA helicase
    E. nonhistone proteins
    B. histones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Once an organelle to be destroyed, like a mitochondrion, has been surrounded with a double membrane, the outermost of the two membranes fuses with a lysosome. what is the resultant structure called?
    A. autophagolysosome
    B. phagosome
    C. autophagosome
    D. phagolysosome
    E. bacteriophage
    A. autophagolysosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The uptake of relatively large particulate matter into the cell is called the ____.
    A. exocytosis
    B. pinecytosis
    C. autophagy
    D. phagocytosis
    E. endocytosis
    D. phagocytosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Nuclear pores contain a complex, basketlike apparatus that appears to fill the pore like a stopper, projecting into both the cytoplasm and the nucleoplasm. What is this apparatus called?
    A. nuclear pore complex
    B. porosity
    C. cytoplasmic-nuclear transporters
    D. nucleon
    E. poron
    A. nuclear pore complex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is normally associated with the ciliar of organisms from protists to mammals?
    A. 9+1 pattern
    B. microtubules
    C. 9+2 pattern
    D. 9+0 pattern
    C. 9+2 pattern
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. When a gene is duplicated one or more times, it gives rise to a group of genes that may diverge by mutation, but their sequences will generally remain closely related and they will encode similar polypeptides. The proteins and genes produced in this way can be referred to as:
    A. gene isoforms
    B. gene families
    C. isotopes
    D. isomers
    E. isosceles
    B. gene families
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. How many X chromosomes are transcriptionally active in a male and female mammalian cell, respectively.
    A. 0,1
    B. 2,1
    C. 1,1
    D. 1,2
    E. 2,2
    C. 1,1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following enzymes are typically found in lysosome?
    a. hydrolytic enzymes (acid hydrolases)
    b. oxidoreductases
    c. transferases
    d. lyases
    e. ligases
    a hydrolytic enzymes (acid hydrolases)
  35. What happens to the breakdown products of materials brought into many single-celled organisms from the extracellular environment?
    A. Peptides produced during digestion are posted on cell surface
    B. they are used to build the nuclear envelope and are released into the cytoplasm.
    C. They are used as nutrients and are released to the extracellular space.
    D. they are maintained within the lysosome and used for building new lysosomes.
    E. They are used as nutrients and are released into the cytoplasm.
    E. They are used as nutrients and are released into the cytoplasm.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The slower phase of microtubules assembly in which a small portion of the microtubule is intially formed is called ____.
    A. insulation
    B. nucleation
    C. centrosome
    D. elongation
    E. translation
    B. nucleation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The structure that contains two barrel-shaped centrioles surrounded by amorphous, electron-dense pericentriolar material is called a(n) ____.
    A. centrosome
    B. aster
    C. pericentriosome
    D. nucleus
    E. spindle
    A. centrosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of the following is NOT a function of a cilium?
    A. a role in sensory function in monitoring the properties of extracellular fluids
    B. moving fluid and particulate material past the cell
    C. all of these are functions of the cilium.
    D. moving the cell from place to place
    E. moving vesicles down the nerve cell axon
    E. moving vesicles down the nerve cell axon.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. In which of the following organisms is polyploidization particularly common?
    a. flowering plants
    b. wheat
    c. bananas
    d. coffee
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  40. What technique supplied the data that led Watson and Crick to the double helical structure of DNA?
    A. polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
    B. ion exchange chromatography
    C. autoradiography
    D. X-ray diffraction/crystallography
    E. sucrose density centrifugation
    D. X-ray diffraction/crystallography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What is the major determinant of RNA folding?
    A. formation of complementary base pair regions
    B. ionic bonds
    C. hydroponic interactions
    D. van der Waals forces
    E. hydrophobic interactions
    D. van der Waals forces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What statement below explains the uniform width of the DNA molecule along its entire width?
    A. Attraction between phosphate groups keeps the strands a uniform distance apart.
    B. A pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with a purine nitrogenous base.
    C. a pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with another pyrimidine nitrogenous base.
    D. A purine nitrogenous base always pairs with another purine nitrogenous base
    E. Repulsion between phosphate groups keeps the strands a uniform distance apart.
    B. A pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with a purine nitrogenous base.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. ___ refers to the fact that the sequence of one DNA strand specifies the sequence of the other strand in the double helix.
    A. compulsivity
    B. similarity
    C. complementarity
    D. complexity
    E. indirectionality
    C. complementarity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The information encoded in DNA resides in _____.

    A. the DNA base sequence
    B. the sugars and phosphate groups together
    C. sugars in the backbone
    D. phosphates in the backbone
    E. the phosphodiester linkages
    A. the DNA base sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. With what structure is the outer membrane of the nuclear envlope continuous?
    A. RER
    B. the plasma membrane
    C. Golgi complex
    D. the spindle
    E. SER
    A. RER
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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