Microbio Final Exam

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asu
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123386
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Microbio Final Exam
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2011-12-13 17:21:42
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Microbiology Final Exam Study Guide
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Chapters 10, 11, 17-20
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  1. Archaea is split into what two major groups?
    Crenarchaeota and Euryarchaeota
  2. Archaea share many characteristics with what two categories?
    Bacteria and Eukarya
  3. Which major group is Nanoarchaeum equitans part of?
    Euryarchaeota
  4. What do both the mitochondrion and hydrogenosome specialize in?
    chemotrophic energy metabolism
  5. What occurs in Mitochondrion?
    Respiration (citric acid cycle/TCA cycle) and oxidative phosphorylation occur here
  6. Describe Hydrogenosome
    Similar size to mitochondria, however, lacks TCA cycle enzymes and cristae. Oxidation of pyruvate to H2, CO2 and acetate
  7. What size is nanarchaeum equitans?
    0.4 um and it contains one of the smallest genomes known
  8. Describe crenarchaeota
    • 1. inhabit temperature extremes
    • 2. most cultured representatives are hyperthermophiles
    • 3. other representatives found in extreme cold environments
  9. Describe eukaryotes
    contains a membrane enclosed nucleus and several other organelles (mitochondria, golgi complex, peroxisomes, endoplasmic reticula, microtubules, and microfilaments)
  10. Define Chloroplast
    Chlorophyll containing organelle found in phototrophic eukaryotes
  11. The lumen of the chloroplast is called what?
    Stroma
  12. What does the stroma contain?
    Large amounts of RubisCO
  13. RubisCO is the key enzyme in what?
    Calvin cycle
  14. What is golgi complex? What happens in the golgi complex?
    Stacks of membrane distinct from, but functioning in concert with, the ER. It modifies products of the ER destined for secretion.
  15. Define lysosomes
    • 1. Membrane enclosed compartments
    • 2. Contain various digestive enzymes used for hydrolysis
    • 3. Allow for lytic activity to occur within the cell without damaging other cellular components
  16. What are peroxisomes?
    Oxidize various compounds (alcohols, fatty acids, toxins) Also funtion in synthesis of bile salts.
  17. Most fungi are multicellular, forming a network of what?
    Hyphae
  18. Hyphae grow together to form compact tufts called what?
    Mycelia
  19. Hyphae that extend above the surface can produce asexual spores called what?
    Conidia
  20. Define Mutation
    Heritable change in DNA sequence that can lead to a change in phenotype (observable properties of an organism)
  21. Define Mutant
    A strain of any cell or virus differing from parental strain in geotype (nucleotide sequence of genome)
  22. Define point mutations
    • 1. Mutations that cnage only one base pair
    • 2. Can lead to single amino acid change in a protein or no change at all
  23. Define silent mutation
    Does not affect amino acid sequence
  24. Define missense mutation
    amino acid changed; polypeptide altered
  25. Define nonsense mutation
    codon becomes stop codon; polypeptide is incomplete
  26. Define frameshift mutations
    • 1. Deletions or insertions that result in a shift in the reading frame
    • 2. Often result in complete loss of gene function
  27. Define revertant
    Strain in which original phenotype that was changed in the mutant is restored
  28. Name the 1 type of revertant and define
    Same-site revertant: mutation restoration activity is at the same site as original mutation
  29. What are the 6 techniques used to alter genetic material in lab?
    • Restriction enzymes
    • Gel electrophoresis
    • Nucleic acid hybridization
    • Nucleic acid probes
    • Molecular cloning
    • Cloning vectors
  30. Define restriction enzymes
    recognize specific DNA sequences and cut DNA at those sites
  31. Explain purple phototrophic bacteria
    • 1. They carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis; no oxygen evolved
    • 2. Contain bacteriochlorophylls and carotenoid pigments
  32. Explain purple nonsulfur bacteria
    • 1. Most can grow aerobically in the dark as chemoorganotrophs
    • 2. Some can also grow anaerobically in the dark using fermentative or anaerobic respiration
    • 3. Most can grow photoheterotrophically
  33. Explain hydrogen oxidizing bacteria
    Most can grow autotrophically with H2 as sole electron donor and O2 as electron acceptor
  34. Define pseudomonas
    • Straight or curved rods with polar flagella
    • chemoorganotrophs
    • obligate aerobes
  35. Enteric Bacteria
    Facultative aerobes
  36. Streptococcus
    • Play important roles in production of buttermilk, silage, and other products
    • Some species are pathogenic
  37. Lactococcus
    genera of dairy significance
  38. Endospore-forming gram positive bacteria
    • generally found in soils
    • endospores are advantageous for soil microorganisms
  39. Clostridium
    • Lack a respiratory chain, anaerobic
    • Some clostridia perform stickland reactions
    • Mainly found in anaerobic pockets in the soil
    • Also live in mammalian intestinal tract
    • Some are pathogenic; others cause diseases such as botulism, tetanus, and gangrene
  40. Stickland reactions
    metabolism of pair of amino acids
  41. Actinobacteria: propionic acid bacteria
    valuable for antibiotics and certain fermented dairy products
  42. Propionic Acid Bacteria
    • first discovered in swiss cheese
    • gram-positive anaerobes
  43. Streptomyces, filamentous, gram-positive bacteria
    • Over 500 species of streptomyces are recognized
    • Streptomyces spores are called conidia
    • Primarily soil microorganisms, responsible for earthy odor of soil (geosmins)
    • Strict aerobes that produce many extracellular enzymes
  44. Streptomyces
    • 50% of all isolated streptomyces produce antibiotics
    • Over 500 distinct antibiotics produced by streptomyces
  45. Cyanobacteria
    • Key genera: synechococcus, Oscillatoria, Nostoc
    • Oxygenic phototrophs
  46. Planctomyces
    • Budding bacterium
    • Facultative aerobic chemoorganotroph
    • Stalked
    • Priarily aquatic
    • Extensive cell compartmentalization including a membrane enclosed nuclear structure
  47. Spirochetes
    gram-negative, motile, and tightly coiled
  48. Borrelia
    • Majority are human or animal pathogens
    • Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of Lyme disease
  49. What is the causitive agent of Lyme disease?
    Borrelia burgdorferi
  50. Gel electrophoresis
    • Separates DNA molecules based on size
    • Gels can be stained with ethidium bromide and DNA can be visualized under UV light
  51. Restriction enzymes
    • recognize specific DNA sequences and cut DNA at those sites
    • Essential for in vitro DNA manipulation
    • Sticky ends or blunt ends
  52. What type of gel do you stain with in gel electrophoresis?
    Ethidium bromide
  53. Nucleic acid hybridization
    Base pairing of single strands of DNA or RNA from two different sources to give a hybrid double helix
  54. Nucleic Acid Probe
    Segment of single stranded DNA that is used in hybridization and has a predetermined identity
  55. Southern blot
    Hybridization procedure where DNA is in the gel and probe is RNA or DNA
  56. Molecular cloning
    isolation and incorporation of a piece of DNA into a vector so it can replicated and manipulated
  57. Most vectors are derived from what?
    Plasmids or viruses
  58. DNA is generally inserted how?
    in vitro
  59. DNA ligase
    • enzyme that joins two DNA molecules
    • works with sticky or blunt ends
  60. Site directed mutagenesis
    • Performed in vitro and introduces mutations at a precise location
    • can be used to assess the activity of specific amino acids in a protein
    • Structural biologists have gained significant insight using this tool
  61. Reporter genes
    encode proteins that are easy to detect and assay
  62. Gene fusions
    promoters or coding sequences of genes of interest can be swapped with those of reporter genes to elucidate gene regulation under various conditions
  63. Plasmids as cloning vectors
    plasmids are natural vectors and have useful properties as cloning vectors
  64. pUC19
    • common cloning vector
    • contains ampicillin resistance and lacZ gene
    • contains polylinker (multiple cloning site) within lacZ gene
  65. Blue screening
    blue colonies do not have vector with foreign DNA inserted
  66. White screening
    White colonies have foreign DNA inserted
  67. Insertional activation
    • LacZ gene is inactivated by insertion of foreign DNA
    • inactivated lacZ cannot process Xgal; blue color does not develop

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