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  1. The classic triad of preeclampsia includes:
    A. Hypotension, ketonuria, and edema
    B. Hypertension, glycosuria, and edema
    C. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
    D. None of the above
  2. A patient with preeclampsia is at risk for developing HELLP.

  3. Your patient’s blood pressure becomes normotensive 5 weeks postpartum. This type of hypertension would be classified as:
    A. Chronic hypertension
    B. Transient gestational hypertension
    C. Preeclampsia
    D. Light hypertension
  4. You suspect your patient is developing preeclampsia. What laboratory tests would you assess for?
    A. Proteinuria
    B. Elevated AST and ALT
    C. Elevated bilirubin
    D. All of the above
  5. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable therapy for treatment of patients with Lyme disease?
    a) Doxycycline
    b) Cefuroxime
    c) Vancomycin
    d) Amoxicillin
  6. Erthyma migrans (EM) can appear at what point following a tick bite?
    a) 3-30 days
    b) 1-7 days
    c) 14-30 days
    d) 1 year
  7. Which of these is NOT true about Lyme disease?
    a) Symptom relief is achieved with analgesics, anti-pyretics, and anti-inflammatories.
    b) Prompt administration of antibiotics can prevent the development of Lyme disease.
    c) Doxycycline is the drug of choice for all patients with Lyme Disease.
    d) Patients with history of tick bite and presence of EM can be treated without serologic confirmation of Lyme Disease.
  8. 1st line FDA approved tests for Lyme Disease include:
    a) Enzyme Immunoassay and Western Blot
    b) Polymerase Chain Reaction and Western Blot
    c) Western Blot and Lyme Dot Blot Assay
    d) ANA and ESR
  9. Causes of physiologic jaundice in infants include:
    a. Decreased rate of hemolysis
    b. Increased rate of conjugation
    c. Immaturity of bilirubin conjugate
    d. ABO compatibility
  10. Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding consistent with neonatal sepsis?
    a. Tachypnea
    b. Tachycardia or Bradycardia
    c. Pallor
    d. Appropriate tone & perfusion
  11. Which of following is an important safety concern to educate parents of a newborn about?
    a. Checking smoke alarms every 6 months
    b. Setting the hot water heater to >120 F
    c. Putting the baby back to sleep
    d. Place the car seat forward facing
  12. Select the incorrect response. Family history may include the following risk factors for the development of hyperbilirubinemia:
    a. Significant hemolytic disease, anemia
    b. Hepatobiliary disease
    c. Inborn errors of metabolism
    d. Parent received phototherapy
  13. What is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    C. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
    D. Streptococcus pyogens including B-hemolytic groups A, C, and G2.
  14. Viruses are the most common cause of acute pharyngitis. Which of the following viruses cause(s) viral pharyngitis?
    A. Adenovirus
    B. Rhinovirus
    C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
    D. All of the above
  15. Which two viruses below account for the majority of mononucleosis syndrome?
    A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and cytomegalovirus (CMV)
    B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    C. Adenovirus and enterovirus
    D. EBV and HIV
  16. For the treatment of GABHS bacterial pharyngitis, Penicillin V is the drug of choice due to low cost, safety, and efficacy. Which other antibiotic(s) could be used for the treatment of GABHS bacterial pharyngitis?
    A. Azithromycin
    B. Erythromycin
    C. Cefazolin
    D. All of the above
  17. Which of the following forms of syncope is the most common inadolescents?
    A. Cardiac
    B. Cerebral
    C. Neurocardiogenic
    D. Vascular
  18. All of the following statements are correct regarding hypertrophic cardiomopathy except:
    A. It is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in people between the ages of15 to 35.
    B. It is often inherited.
    C. It is diagnosed with an echocardiogram.
    D. It is associated with hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
  19. Which of the following is an assessment tool that measures symptoms and concerns characteristic of eating disorders?
    A: Disordered Eating Assessment
    B: Eating Attitudes Test
    C: Eating Disorder Questionnaire
    D: Behavioral Eating Test
  20. In ruling out a cardiac cause of syncope, the NP uses which of the following diagnostics?
    A: EKG
    B: Implanted loop monitor
    C: Tilt table testing
    D: Holter monitor
  21. What is the most effective measure to diagnosis childhood asthma?
    a. PFT
    b. Family/medical History
    c. Lab tests including CBC and IgE?
    d. None of the above
  22. The most common form of asthma in children under the age two?
    a. allergic asthma
    b. extrinsic asthma
    c. reactive airway disease
    d. laryngal asthma
  23. A patient controlled on a current therapy will always continue that medication regime without change.
    a. True
    b. False
  24. Asthma patients always present with which of the following?
    a. cough
    b. wheezing
    c. respiratory distress
    d. none of the above
  25. When should warm compresses be applied to a contusion?
    A. Immediately
    B. In 12 hours
    C. After 48 hours
    D. In 24 hours
  26. Minimal stretching of the ligament with no major change in the affected joint is classified as what grade of sprain?
    A. Grade II
    B. Grade I
    C. Grade III
    D. None of the above
  27. What percentage of fractures account for all childhood injuries?
    A. 15%
    B. 10%
    C. 20%
    D. 25%
  28. What is the acronym used to treat contusions?
    A. RASH
    B. RICE
    C. RICH
    D. RISK
  29. A disruption in the continuity of bone tissue is called?
    A. Sprain
    B. Strain
    C. Contusion
    D. Fracture
  30. All of the following are causative organism of PID except?
    a) N. gonorrhoeae
    b) C. trachomatis
    c) Mycoplasma
    d) Candida albicans
  31. Women with PID may present with all of the following signs and symptoms except?
    a) abdominal pain
    b) cervical motion tenderness
    c) vaginal itching
    d) vaginal discharge
  32. Treatment for endometriosis may include which of the following?
    a) oral contraceptives
    b) NSAIDs
    c) progestins - DepoProvera
    d) IUD
    e) all of the above
  33. Which is not a risk factor for PID?
    a) dysmenorrhea
    b) multiple sexual partners
    c) not using condoms
    d) sexually active at a young age
  34. What are the two major diagnostic components of pre-eclampsia?
    A. Glucosuria & hypertension
    B. Proteinuria & hypertension
    C. Hematuria & hypertension
    D. None of the above
  35. Pre-eclampsia can be considered as a diagnosis after?
    A. 10 weeks
    B. 20 weeks
    C. 30 weeks
    D. 40 weeks
  36. When does pre-eclampsia become eclampsia?
    A. When the patient is diagnosed
    B. When a seizure or coma occurs in a pre-eclamptic patient
    C. When the patient has 300g of protein in their 24 hour urine
    D. When blood pressure exceeds 170/1104.
  37. What is the only CURE for the pre-eclamptic patient?
    A. Magnesium Sulfate
    B. Delivery of the fetus
    C. Labetolol
    D. Nifedipine
  38. The most common non-obstetrical surgery/procedure in pregnant women is:
    a. Appendectormy
    b. Cholecystetomy
    c. Cardiac catherization
    d. None of the above
  39. What contributes to biliary sludge and gallstone formation in pregnancy?
    a. Progesterone slows the emptying of the gallbladder
    b. Estrogen causes more cholesterol, (a precursor of sludge andgallstones) to be secreted
    c. Progesterone decreases bile acid secretion
    d. All of the above
    e. A&B
  40. What is the first choice test to evaluate for gallbladder disease?
    a. MRI
    b. Plain Abdominal X-ray
    c. Ultrasound
    d. Non-contrast CT
  41. The following are symptoms of gallbladder disease except:
    a. RUQ pain radiating to back
    b. Vomiting and diarrhea
    c. Nausea and anorexia
    d. Dyspepsia
  42. The nurse practitioner’ treatment plan for mild croup includes:
    a. Oral antibiotic therapy
    b. Racemic epinephrine (2.25%), 0.05 ml/kg dose with amaximum of 0.5 ml dose, given over 15 minutes every 1 to 2 hours
    c. Minimal disturbance, cool mist, hydration, antipyretics
    d. Hospitalization for IV steroid and oxygen
  43. The differentiation between pharyngitis and epiglottitis is:
    a. Pharyngitis has a fast onset of fever
    b. Epiglottitis presents with worsening symptoms for 3-4 days before severe illness isapparent
    c. Epiglottitis presents with acute onset of high fever rapidly followed by difficulty with swallowing and throat pain
    d. Pharyngitis presents with a barking cough
  44. The most important clinical measure to act on in presenting Epiglottitis is:
    a. Have oxygen available
    b. Place patient in a tripod position to aid in breathing
    c. Protect the airway and transport to an emergency room
    d. Decrease the room temperature to help bring down the fever
  45. The treatment of choice for Epiglottitis is:
    a. Nebulized treatments
    b. PO steroids
    c. Antibiotic therapy
    d. Vaccinate with Hib to prevent occurance
  46. The most common identifiable viral cause of gastroenteritis is?
    a- sapovirus
    b- rotavirus
    c- enteric adenovirus
    d- astrovirus
  47. Approximately 90% of intussusception cases are caused by?
    a- gastroenteritis
    b- meckel diverticulum
    c- idiopathic
    d- intestinal atresia
  48. In the physical assessment of a child with appendicitis, all of the following signs will be assessed except?
    a- Rovsing sign
    b- Murphy's sign
    c- psoas sign
    d- Cullen sign
  49. The gold standard in diagnosing appendicitis is?
    a- Abdominal films
    b- Ultrasound
    c- CT scan
    d- MRI/WBC scan
  50. Increased pertussis incidence may be explained by all of the following except:
    a. Decreased use of pertussis vaccine in some areas
    b. Waning post vaccine immunity in adolescents and adults
    c. Decreased use of PCR testing
    d. Increased public health reporting
  51. Adolescents and adults with pertussis:
    a. May present with prolonged cough
    b. Do not represent a significant source of transmission to
    c. Acellular pertussis vaccine is not recommended in these age groups
    d. Frequently present with the whoop of pertussis
  52. During the catarrhal stage of pertussis in children:
    a. High-grade fever is common
    b. The cough gradually decreases
    c. Post-tussive vomiting occurs frequently
    d. Mild cough and coryza are common manifestations
  53. In infants, early symptoms of pertussis include all of the following, except:
    a. Feeding difficulties
    b. Paroxysms of cough
    c. Tachypnea
    d. Tachycardia
  54. What is the most likely causative organism of bronchiolitis?
    a) Parainfluenza virus
    b) Respiratory syncytial virus
    c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    d) Haemophilus influenzae
  55. The primary therapy for RSV infection of the lower respiratory tract is:
    a) Supportive care
    b) Ribavirin
    c) Synagis
    d) Bronchodilators
  56. The use of Synagis, a humanized monoclonal antibody against RSV F glycoprotein is indicated in which of the following patients?
    a) infants and children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia
    b) preterm birth (< 35 weeks)
    c) infants with hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease
    d) all of the above
  57. What is the most common mode of transmission in RSV?
    a) Contact (with virus containing secretions or fomites)
    b) Airborne
    c) Fecal oral route
    d) Droplet
  58. Questions to help care providers assess a child’s behavior when being assessed in a clinical setting include all Except:
    A. How is your child doing in school?
    B. Does you child have any behavioral problems at school or home, or when playing with friends?
    C. Does your child have problems completing school assignments at school or home?
    D. Why does your child hit his/her siblings?
  59. The evaluation of ADHD requires:
    A. information about the child’s behavior in more than one setting; ex. School and home
    B. assessment by a specially trained psychiatrist
    C. referral by the teacher before the parents can seek treatment
    D. symptoms to be present by the age of 3 for an accurate diagnosis
  60. Maintaining a daily schedule; setting small, reachable goals; limiting choices; and using charts and checklists to help the child stay on task, are all examples of:
    A. Behavioral interventions that have been shown to
    improve behavior problemsin children with ADHD
    B. Behavioral interventions that reduce the core symptoms of ADHD
    C. Behavioral interventions that have no effect on ADHD symptoms
    D. Behavioral interventions that are thought to trigger symptoms and exacerbate ADHD behavior
  61. Common side effects of stimulant medications used to treat ADHD include all Except:
    A. Decreased appetite
    B. Hallucinations/mania
    C. Sleep problems
    D. transient headache/stomachache
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2011-12-14 01:02:07

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