Clinical Skills II Final

Card Set Information

Author:
DMGLVH
ID:
123750
Filename:
Clinical Skills II Final
Updated:
2011-12-15 12:45:42
Tags:
clinical skills final
Folders:

Description:
clinical skills II final
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user DMGLVH on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. ac
    before meals
  2. abd
    abdomen
  3. AMA
    American Medical Association
  4. A & O
    Alert & Oriented
  5. AOB
    Alcohol on breath
  6. BE
    barium enema
  7. Bx
    Biopsy
  8. DNR
    do not resusitate
  9. DVT
    deep vein thrombus
  10. fb
    foreign body
  11. fx
    fracture
  12. HA
    headache
  13. KUB
    kidney ureter bladder
  14. OS
    left eye
  15. OD
    right eye
  16. OU
    each eye
  17. LBP
    lower back pain
  18. LP
    lumbar puncture
  19. NTG
    nitroglycerin
  20. OCP
    oral contraceptive pill
  21. PCN
    penicillin
  22. PCP
    primary care provider
  23. PNS
    parasympathetic nervous system
  24. PTSD
    post traumatic stress disorder
  25. QNS
    quantity not sufficient
  26. RA
    rheumatoid arthritis
  27. REM
    rapid eye movement
  28. Rxn
    reaction
  29. RUQ
    right upper quadrant
  30. tid
    three times a day
  31. RLE
    right lower extremity
  32. LLQ
    left lower quadrant
  33. SOB
    shortness of breath
  34. pc
    after eating
  35. Sx
    symptoms
  36. CSF
    cerebral spinal fluid
  37. UE
    upper extremity
  38. VBAC
    vaginal birth after cesarean
  39. W/D
    withdrawl
  40. WNL
    within normal limits
  41. LE
    lower extremity
  42. PO
    by mouth
  43. BPH
    benign prostatic hypertrophy
  44. PID
    pelvic inflammatory disorder
  45. S/S
    signs and symptoms
  46. aq
    aqueous/water
  47. GB
    gallbladder
  48. LMP
    last menstral period
  49. NKDA
    no known drug allergies
  50. OV
    office visit
  51. R/O
    rule out
  52. tinct
    tincture
  53. C/O
    complains of
  54. TB
    tuberculosis
  55. qid
    four times a day
  56. qod
    every other day
  57. URI
    upper respiratory infection
  58. NSAID
    non steriodal anti inflammatory drugs
  59. pt
    patient
  60. PT
    physical therapy
  61. Cryosurgery is:
    A. visually examining abnormal tissue
    B. freezing abnormal tissue
    B. freezing abnormal tissue
  62. Preoperative care usually includes:
    A. Obtaining necessary lab work & giving patient preop instructions
    B. giving post op instructions & obtaining insurance preauthorization
    C. all of the above
    C. all of the above
  63. Surgical instruments are classified by:
    A. name
    B. function
    B.function
  64. All of the following are examples of surgical instruments except:
    A. graspers
    B. scalpels
    C. forceps
    D. scissors
    A. graspers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. A closed wound is a:
    A. contusion
    B. laceration
    A. contusion
  66. T or F
    If a patient has had a procedure before, the medical assistant may assume he knows all about it.
    false
  67. T or F
    Preop, or preoperative, care is care taken after the operation or procedure is performed.
    false
  68. T or F
    The consent form should be signed by the patient after the procedure is preformed.
    false
  69. T or F
    An electrocautery device may be used to surgically scrub should be performed for 3 minutes.
    false
  70. T or F
    Incision and drainage is a procedure to relieve pain and pressure by draining pus from an abscess.
    True
  71. In the ECG, the aVR is the recording of the heart's voltage difference between the:
    A. left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm
    B. right arm electrode and a central point between teh left arm and the left leg
    B. right arm electrode and a central point between teh left arm and the left leg
  72. When obtaining a standard ECG, the medical assistant should:
    A. place leg electrodes on the hips with connectors pointing toward toes.
    B. not let the power cord and patient cable touch
    B. not let the power cord and patient cable touch
  73. When putting a Holter monitor on a patient:
    A. the ECG electrodes are attached to the patient's chest wall
    B. a portable cassette recorder is attached to a belt worn around the patient's waist.
    C. all the above
    C.. all the above
  74. The routine EKG consists of how many leads?
    A. 10
    B. 12
    B. 12
  75. Patients with DVT often complain of pain and tenderness in the affected leg which may be:
    A. swollen and warm to the touch
    B. swollen and cool to the touch
    A. swollen and warm to the touch
  76. Atherosclerosis is a condition in which:
    A. plaque compromises the vessel & the vessel narrows and thickens
    B. the elasticity of the vessel is compromised
    A. plaque compromises the vessel & the vessel narrows and thickens
  77. The _____ of the ECG is necessary to enable a physician to judge deviations from the normal.
    A. quality
    B. standardization
    B. standardization
  78. There is interference in lead 1 on your EKG tracing, what electrode would you check first?
    A. RA-LL
    B. RA-LA
    B. RA-LA
  79. The usual standardization mark is ____.
    A. 2mm wide and 5mm high
    B. 2mm wide and 10mm high
    B. 2mm wide and 10mm high
  80. T or F
    When taking an ECG, the patient must be still for a good tracing to be obtained, as any movement of the patient may cause interference on the tracing.
    True
  81. T or F
    An artifact in an ECG is an interference.
    True
  82. T or F
    An ECG cannot detect damage from previous heart attacks.
    false
  83. T or F
    A routine EKG consists of leads and recordings of the electrical activity of the heart from different angles.
    True
  84. T or F
    An EKG can always predict a future heart attack.
    False
  85. T or F
    The six chest leads are known as bipolar leads
    false
  86. T or F
    There are 4 limb leads that record activity.
    False
  87. T or F
    Pulmonary edema occurs before CHF as the lungs fill with interstitial fluid.
    False
  88. T or F
    Fibrillation consists of regular contractions of the heart.
    False
  89. T or F
    Leads I, II, III are augmented leads.
    False
  90. T or F
    Atherosclerosis is when the vessels start to have plaque build up and begin narrowing and become hard with lettle to no elasticity.
    True
  91. T or F
    Arteriosclerosis is when the arteries have plaque build up and begin to narrow and become hard and have little to no elasticity.
    True
  92. Pulmonary testing includes testing the:
    A. Patient's ability to move air in and out of the upper airway
    B. compliance of the lungs
    C. all the above
    C. all the above
  93. Upper-respiratory conditions include:
    A. acute rhinitis
    B. pharyngitis
    C. all the above
    C. all the above
  94. Diseases of the lower respiratory system can be classified as:
    A. obstructive diseases
    B. malignancies
    C. all of the above
    C. all of the above
  95. Pulmonary function tests:
    A. identify respiratory disease
    B. confirm a lung disease & evaluate a lung disease
    B. confirm a lung disease & evaluate a lung disease
  96. T or F
    Pulmonary testing does not measure the patient's lung elasticity and ability to breathe.
    False
  97. T or F
    Peak-flow testing examines pulmonary capacity using normal breathing techniques.
    False
  98. T or F
    Peak-flow testing measures a patient's maximum ability to inhale.
    False
  99. T or F
    Retinal detachment is considered a degenerative disorder.
    False
  100. T or F
    Presbyopia is considered a refractive disorder.
    True
  101. T or F
    Cateracts are considered a refractive disorder.
    False
  102. T or F
    Acetaminophen has antipyretic and anti-inflammatory properties.
    False
  103. The lens of the eye is:
    A. the colored portion of the eye
    B. located at the rear of the anterior of the eyeball
    B. located at the rear of the anterior of the eyeball
  104. The optic nerve:
    A. is responsible for light refraction
    B. transmits the image to the brain
    B. transmits the image to the brain
  105. The pupil is:
    A. sensitive to bright light & the hole through which light passes
    B. the colored portion of the eye
    A. sensitive to bright light & the hole through which light passes
  106. The patient's visual acuity is tested:
    A. using a Snellen eye chart & from a specific distance
    B. only in schools
    A. using a Snellen eye chart & from a specific distance
  107. Color blindness testing is performed with:
    A. Ishihara plates
    B. Jaeger
    A. Ishihara plates
  108. When irrigating patient's eye, the medical assistant should:
    A. insist that the patient lie down for the procedure
    B. release the solution from the inner to the outer part of the eye
    B. release the solution from the inner to the outer part of the eye
  109. When screening visual acuity with the Snellen chart, the medical assistant should:
    A. direct the patient to stand 10 feet away from the chart
    B. tell the patient to keep both eyes open but to cover one eye
    B. tell the patient to keep both eyes open but to cover one eye
  110. When performing visual acuity testing, you record:
    A. the lowest readable level for each eye & whether the patient squints or tilts their head
    B. the highest readable level for each eye
    A. the lowest readable level for each eye & whether the patient squints or tilts their head
  111. Myopia is considered a:
    A. refractive disorder
    B. degenerative disorder
    A. refractive disorder
  112. Strabismus is considered a:
    A. infectious disorder
    B. degenerative disorder
    B. degenerative disorder
  113. Immunity is:
    A. active or passive
    B. acquired and natural
    C. all of the above
    C. all of the above
  114. Hypersensitivity and allergic reactions occur when the:
    A. entry of a foreign body results in an inflammatory response
    B. body is unable to fight diseases
    A. entry of a foreign body results in an inflammatory response
  115. Immunizations administered to prevent disease leads to:
    A. natural immunity
    B. active immunity
    B. active immunity
  116. Asprin has:
    A. antipyretic properties & analgesic properties
    B. anti-inflammatory properties
    C. all the above
    C. all the above
  117. Autoimmune conditions occur when the:
    A. body fails to recognize its own cells and develops self antigens
    B. body is unable to fight disease
    A. body fails to recognize its own cells and develops self antigens
  118. Which of the following is used to test for allergies?
    A. ESR
    B. intradermal test
    B. intradermal test
  119. The skin performs all of the following tasks except:
    A. synthesizes vitamin D
    B. regulates temperature
    A. synthesizes vitamin D
  120. Cancerous skin disorders include:
    A. malignant melanoma & basal cell carcinoma
    B. squamous cell carinoma
    C. all of the above
    C. all of the above
  121. Which of the following type of dermatitis has yellow-tinged and greasy looking scales?
    A. contact dermatitis
    B. seborrehoeic dermatitis
    B. seborrehoeic dermatitis
  122. Malignant neoplasms:
    A. do not invade surrounding tissue
    B. are invasive and metastasize
    B. are invasive and metastasize
  123. T or F
    Infectious skin disorders include shingles, acne, and impetigo.
    True
  124. T or F
    Ringworm and athlete's foot are common fungal infections
    True
  125. T or F
    Another name for shingles is herpes simplex.
    False
  126. T or F
    Skin tags, moles, and warts are allbenign skin disorders
    True
  127. Hormones are chemical substances that influence body functions, including:
    A. sexual maturity & metabolism
    B. growth & development
    C. all the above
    C. all the above
  128. Hyposecretion of the adrenal gland can cause;
    A. Addison's disease
    B. Cushing's disease
    A. Addison's
  129. Type I diabetes usually occurs:
    A. in men
    B. before age 30
    B. before age 30
  130. Endocrine disorder are the result of too:
    A. much or too little hormone
    B. none of the above
    A. much or too little hormone
  131. The pitutitary gland is often referred to as the:
    A. master gland
    B. controlling gland
    A. master gland
  132. The pancreas is responsible for maintaining:
    A. calcium levels
    B. glucose levels
    B. glucose levels
  133. The normal range for blood glucose levels is:
    A. 90-110 mg/dl
    B. 60-120 mg/dl
    B. 60-120 mg/dl
  134. The function of the large intestine is to:
    A. absorb nutrients
    B. absorb water and electrolytes
    B. absorb water and electrolytes
  135. Flexion is:
    A. shape & support
    B. decreasing the angle of the joint
    B. decreasing the angle of the joint
  136. Adduction is:
    A. increasing the angle of the joint
    B. bringing the joint toward the body
    B. bringing the joint toward the body
  137. Abduction is:
    A. decreasing the joint angle
    B. moving the joint away from the body
    B. moving the joint away from the body
  138. Closed reduction refers to:
    A. Displacement of the fracture
    B. external manipulation to correct the fracture
    B. external manipulation to correct the fracture
  139. Open reduction refers to:
    A. surgical manipulation to correct the fracture
    B.displacement of the fracture
    A. surgical manipulation to correct the fracture
  140. Extension is:
    A. increasing the angle of the joint
    B. moving the joint away from the body
    B. increasing the angle of the joint
  141. LS
    Lumbosacral
  142. DJD
    Degenerative Joint Disease
  143. T or F
    Range of motion is the total degree of movement that a joint is capable of.
    True
  144. T or F
    Sprains occur from the overuse or over stretching of a muscle.
    False
  145. T or F
    Fibromyalgia has symptoms of muscle pain and sleep disturbance due to unknown causes.
    True
  146. Range of motion exercises maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength.
    True
  147. Menopause can occur:
    A. naturally & after surgical intervention
    B. none of the above
    A. naturally & after surgical intervention
  148. Menopause usually occurs between the ages of:
    A. 55-65
    B. 45-55
    B. 45-55
  149. Growth charts are usually updated:
    A. every visit & kept in patient's chart
    B. once a year
    A. every visit & kept in patient's chart
  150. When screening vision in children older than age 5, most offices use the:
    A. standard Snellen eye chart
    B. Allen chart
    A. standard Snellen eye chart
  151. LMP
    Last Menstral Period
  152. EDC
    Estimated Date of Confinement
  153. VIS
    Vaccination Information Sheet
  154. FHT
    Fetal Heart Tone
  155. BSE
    Breast Self Exam
  156. T or F
    Menopause usually occurs after age 60.
    False
  157. T or F
    Growth charts are used to record normal and abnormal growth.
    True
  158. T or F
    Vital information for an infant includes length, head circumference, and weight.
    True
  159. T or F
    All vaccines are kept in the fridge.
    False
  160. T or F
    Vaccination for hepatitis C is now part of routine inoculations.
    False
  161. T or F
    STDs can be asymptomatic.
    False
  162. T or F
    Gonorrhea, chlamydia, and endometriosis are all STDs.
    False
  163. The Glasgow coma scale assesses which three responses?
    A. eye, verbal, and motor
    B. speech, vision, and reflex
    A. eye, verbal, and motor
  164. Occasionally EEGs are ordered to help diagnose:
    A. epilepsy
    B. sleep disorders
    B. sleep disorders
  165. A CVA is considered:
    A. life threatening
    B. not treatable
    A. life threatening
  166. A brief period of reduced blood flow to the cerebrum is known as a:
    A. TIA
    B. stroke
    A. TIA
  167. Transient ischemic attacks usually resolve:
    A. within 24 hours & with little to no long term effects
    B. immediately
    A. within 24 hours & with little to no long term effects
  168. Neuralgia
    sharp nerve pain
  169. The abnormal mental coping of an individual who is out of touch with reality.
    Psychosis
  170. T or F
    TIAs do not resolve and leave major residual effects
    False
  171. T or F
    Bell's Palsy is a condition of the PNS.
    True
  172. T or F
    The Glasgow coma scale is a standardized system for reapidly assessing brain activity through eye, verbal, and motor responses.
    True
  173. T or F
    Alzheimer's is a progressive disease that affects mental and physical functions.
    True
  174. T or F
    To reduce the debilitating effects of CVA, the medical community is recommending immediate self intervention by chewing a single adult dose of aspirin.
    True
  175. T or F
    Parkinson's is an acute degenerative condition to the brain.
    True
  176. Factors that can accelerate the aging process include:
    A. depression, illness, and stress
    B. none of the above
    A. depression, illness, and stress
  177. When metastasis has occurred:
    A. total eradication is more difficult & recurrence is a common problem
    B. none of the above
    A. total eradication is more difficult & recurrence is a common problem
  178. The process of againg has ____ aspects.
    A. social, psychological, & physiological
    B. none of the above
    A. social, psychological, & physiological
  179. When a patient achieves remission he must:
    A. be followed closely for many years
    B. discontinue all treatment
    A. be followed closely for many years
  180. Metastatic cancers are not:
    A. curable
    B. non curable
    A. curable
  181. When using the staging system, the letter T indicates:
    A. the size, depth, and location of the primary tumor
    B. treatment involved
    A. the size, depth, and location of the primary tumor
  182. When using the staging system, the letter M indicates:
    A. nodal involvement
    B. distant metastasis
    B. distant metastasis
  183. T or F
    When a tumor metastasizes, the new sites are still primary sites.
    False
  184. T or F
    The most commonly used staging system is the LMN system.
    False

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview