Clinical Skills II Final

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AMA

A & O

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DNR

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PNS

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LMP

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PT

Cryosurgery is:
A. visually examining abnormal tissue
B. freezing abnormal tissue

Preoperative care usually includes:
A. Obtaining necessary lab work & giving patient preop instructions
B. giving post op instructions & obtaining insurance preauthorization
C. all of the above

Surgical instruments are classified by:
A. name
B. function

All of the following are examples of surgical instruments except:
A. graspers
B. scalpels
C. forceps
D. scissors

A closed wound is a:
A. contusion
B. laceration

T or F
If a patient has had a procedure before, the medical assistant may assume he knows all about it.

T or F
Preop, or preoperative, care is care taken after the operation or procedure is performed.

T or F
The consent form should be signed by the patient after the procedure is preformed.

T or F
An electrocautery device may be used to surgically scrub should be performed for 3 minutes.

T or F
Incision and drainage is a procedure to relieve pain and pressure by draining pus from an abscess.

In the ECG, the aVR is the recording of the heart's voltage difference between the:
A. left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm
B. right arm electrode and a central point between teh left arm and the left leg

When obtaining a standard ECG, the medical assistant should:
A. place leg electrodes on the hips with connectors pointing toward toes.
B. not let the power cord and patient cable touch

When putting a Holter monitor on a patient:
A. the ECG electrodes are attached to the patient's chest wall
B. a portable cassette recorder is attached to a belt worn around the patient's waist.
C. all the above

The routine EKG consists of how many leads?
A. 10
B. 12

Patients with DVT often complain of pain and tenderness in the affected leg which may be:
A. swollen and warm to the touch
B. swollen and cool to the touch

Atherosclerosis is a condition in which:
A. plaque compromises the vessel & the vessel narrows and thickens
B. the elasticity of the vessel is compromised

The _____ of the ECG is necessary to enable a physician to judge deviations from the normal.
A. quality
B. standardization

There is interference in lead 1 on your EKG tracing, what electrode would you check first?
A. RA-LL
B. RA-LA

The usual standardization mark is ____.
A. 2mm wide and 5mm high
B. 2mm wide and 10mm high

T or F
When taking an ECG, the patient must be still for a good tracing to be obtained, as any movement of the patient may cause interference on the tracing.

T or F
An artifact in an ECG is an interference.

T or F
An ECG cannot detect damage from previous heart attacks.

T or F
A routine EKG consists of leads and recordings of the electrical activity of the heart from different angles.

T or F
An EKG can always predict a future heart attack.

T or F
The six chest leads are known as bipolar leads

T or F
There are 4 limb leads that record activity.

T or F
Pulmonary edema occurs before CHF as the lungs fill with interstitial fluid.

T or F
Fibrillation consists of regular contractions of the heart.

T or F
Leads I, II, III are augmented leads.

T or F
Atherosclerosis is when the vessels start to have plaque build up and begin narrowing and become hard with lettle to no elasticity.

T or F
Arteriosclerosis is when the arteries have plaque build up and begin to narrow and become hard and have little to no elasticity.

Pulmonary testing includes testing the:
A. Patient's ability to move air in and out of the upper airway
B. compliance of the lungs
C. all the above

Upper-respiratory conditions include:
A. acute rhinitis
B. pharyngitis
C. all the above

Diseases of the lower respiratory system can be classified as:
A. obstructive diseases
B. malignancies
C. all of the above

Pulmonary function tests:
A. identify respiratory disease
B. confirm a lung disease & evaluate a lung disease

T or F
Pulmonary testing does not measure the patient's lung elasticity and ability to breathe.

T or F
Peak-flow testing examines pulmonary capacity using normal breathing techniques.

T or F
Peak-flow testing measures a patient's maximum ability to inhale.

T or F
Retinal detachment is considered a degenerative disorder.

T or F
Presbyopia is considered a refractive disorder.

T or F
Cateracts are considered a refractive disorder.

T or F
Acetaminophen has antipyretic and anti-inflammatory properties.

The lens of the eye is:
A. the colored portion of the eye
B. located at the rear of the anterior of the eyeball

The optic nerve:
A. is responsible for light refraction
B. transmits the image to the brain

The pupil is:
A. sensitive to bright light & the hole through which light passes
B. the colored portion of the eye

The patient's visual acuity is tested:
A. using a Snellen eye chart & from a specific distance
B. only in schools

Color blindness testing is performed with:
A. Ishihara plates
B. Jaeger

When irrigating patient's eye, the medical assistant should:
A. insist that the patient lie down for the procedure
B. release the solution from the inner to the outer part of the eye

When screening visual acuity with the Snellen chart, the medical assistant should:
A. direct the patient to stand 10 feet away from the chart
B. tell the patient to keep both eyes open but to cover one eye

When performing visual acuity testing, you record:
A. the lowest readable level for each eye & whether the patient squints or tilts their head
B. the highest readable level for each eye

Myopia is considered a:
A. refractive disorder
B. degenerative disorder

Strabismus is considered a:
A. infectious disorder
B. degenerative disorder

Immunity is:
A. active or passive
B. acquired and natural
C. all of the above

Hypersensitivity and allergic reactions occur when the:
A. entry of a foreign body results in an inflammatory response
B. body is unable to fight diseases

Immunizations administered to prevent disease leads to:
A. natural immunity
B. active immunity

Asprin has:
A. antipyretic properties & analgesic properties
B. anti-inflammatory properties
C. all the above

Autoimmune conditions occur when the:
A. body fails to recognize its own cells and develops self antigens
B. body is unable to fight disease

Which of the following is used to test for allergies?
A. ESR
B. intradermal test

The skin performs all of the following tasks except:
A. synthesizes vitamin D
B. regulates temperature

Cancerous skin disorders include:
A. malignant melanoma & basal cell carcinoma
B. squamous cell carinoma
C. all of the above

Which of the following type of dermatitis has yellow-tinged and greasy looking scales?
A. contact dermatitis
B. seborrehoeic dermatitis

Malignant neoplasms:
A. do not invade surrounding tissue
B. are invasive and metastasize

T or F
Infectious skin disorders include shingles, acne, and impetigo.

T or F
Ringworm and athlete's foot are common fungal infections

T or F
Another name for shingles is herpes simplex.

T or F
Skin tags, moles, and warts are allbenign skin disorders

Hormones are chemical substances that influence body functions, including:
A. sexual maturity & metabolism
B. growth & development
C. all the above

Hyposecretion of the adrenal gland can cause;
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's disease

Type I diabetes usually occurs:
A. in men
B. before age 30

Endocrine disorder are the result of too:
A. much or too little hormone
B. none of the above

The pitutitary gland is often referred to as the:
A. master gland
B. controlling gland

The pancreas is responsible for maintaining:
A. calcium levels
B. glucose levels

The normal range for blood glucose levels is:
A. 90-110 mg/dl
B. 60-120 mg/dl

The function of the large intestine is to:
A. absorb nutrients
B. absorb water and electrolytes

Flexion is:
A. shape & support
B. decreasing the angle of the joint

Adduction is:
A. increasing the angle of the joint
B. bringing the joint toward the body

Abduction is:
A. decreasing the joint angle
B. moving the joint away from the body

Closed reduction refers to:
A. Displacement of the fracture
B. external manipulation to correct the fracture

Open reduction refers to:
A. surgical manipulation to correct the fracture
B.displacement of the fracture

Extension is:
A. increasing the angle of the joint
B. moving the joint away from the body

LS

DJD

T or F
Range of motion is the total degree of movement that a joint is capable of.

T or F
Sprains occur from the overuse or over stretching of a muscle.

T or F
Fibromyalgia has symptoms of muscle pain and sleep disturbance due to unknown causes.

Range of motion exercises maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength.

Menopause can occur:
A. naturally & after surgical intervention
B. none of the above

Menopause usually occurs between the ages of:
A. 55-65
B. 45-55

Growth charts are usually updated:
A. every visit & kept in patient's chart
B. once a year

When screening vision in children older than age 5, most offices use the:
A. standard Snellen eye chart
B. Allen chart

LMP

EDC

VIS

FHT

BSE

T or F
Menopause usually occurs after age 60.

T or F
Growth charts are used to record normal and abnormal growth.

T or F
Vital information for an infant includes length, head circumference, and weight.

T or F
All vaccines are kept in the fridge.

T or F
Vaccination for hepatitis C is now part of routine inoculations.

T or F
STDs can be asymptomatic.

T or F
Gonorrhea, chlamydia, and endometriosis are all STDs.

The Glasgow coma scale assesses which three responses?
A. eye, verbal, and motor
B. speech, vision, and reflex

Occasionally EEGs are ordered to help diagnose:
A. epilepsy
B. sleep disorders

A CVA is considered:
A. life threatening
B. not treatable

A brief period of reduced blood flow to the cerebrum is known as a:
A. TIA
B. stroke

Transient ischemic attacks usually resolve:
A. within 24 hours & with little to no long term effects
B. immediately

Neuralgia

The abnormal mental coping of an individual who is out of touch with reality.

T or F
TIAs do not resolve and leave major residual effects

T or F
Bell's Palsy is a condition of the PNS.

T or F
The Glasgow coma scale is a standardized system for reapidly assessing brain activity through eye, verbal, and motor responses.

T or F
Alzheimer's is a progressive disease that affects mental and physical functions.

T or F
To reduce the debilitating effects of CVA, the medical community is recommending immediate self intervention by chewing a single adult dose of aspirin.

T or F
Parkinson's is an acute degenerative condition to the brain.

Factors that can accelerate the aging process include:
A. depression, illness, and stress
B. none of the above

When metastasis has occurred:
A. total eradication is more difficult & recurrence is a common problem
B. none of the above

The process of againg has ____ aspects.
A. social, psychological, & physiological
B. none of the above

When a patient achieves remission he must:
A. be followed closely for many years
B. discontinue all treatment

Metastatic cancers are not:
A. curable
B. non curable

When using the staging system, the letter T indicates:
A. the size, depth, and location of the primary tumor
B. treatment involved

When using the staging system, the letter M indicates:
A. nodal involvement
B. distant metastasis

T or F
When a tumor metastasizes, the new sites are still primary sites.

T or F
The most commonly used staging system is the LMN system.