Positioning final quiz (1).txt

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Positioning final quiz (1).txt
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radiology positioning Rad 141
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    • author "John Capiral"
    • tags ""
    • description ""
    • fileName "Positioning final quiz"
    • freezingBlueDBID -1.0
    • Which of the following strucdtures is not part of the proximal humerus?
    • A. Lesser tuberle
    • B. Glenoid process
    • C. Intertubecular groove
    • D. Anatomic neck
    • B. Glenoid process
  1. True or False: The central ray location for the AP projectio nshoulder is perpendicular, 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process (3/4 inferior to the lateral protion of the moer readily palpated clavicle )
    True
  2. Which of the following joints is considered to have a speroidal type of movement?
    A. Acromioclavicular joints
    B. Bicipital joint
    C. Scapulohumera joint
    D. Sternoclavicular joints
    C. Scapulohumeral joint
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following projectiosn should be performed using a breathing technique?
    A. Scapulay Ylateral projection
    B. Transthorasic lateral
    B. AP projection - internal rotation
    D. Ap projection - external rotation
    B. Tranthorasic lateral
  4. Which rotation of the huerus will result in an AP position/projection of the proximal humerus?
    A. Internal rotation (epicondyles perpendicualr to image receptor )
    B. Neutral rotation (epicondyles 45 degees to image receptor )
    C. External rotation (epicondyles parallel to iamge receptor )
    D. None of the above
    C. External rotation (epicondyles parralel to image receptor )
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Where is the CR centered for a transhtorasic lateral projetion?
    A. Midaxilla
    B. Level of surgical neck
    C. Level of the greater tubercle.
    D. 1 inchh inferior to the acromion
    B. Level of surgical neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the followng dmonstrats the greater tuberle in profile laterally?
    A. External rotation
    B. Neutral rotation
    C. Internal rotation
    D. None of the above
    A. External rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following arm positions demosntrate the lesser tubercle in profile mediallly?
    A. Enutral rotation
    B. External rotation
    C. Internal rotation
    D. None if the above
    C. Internal rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What are the most common routine positiosn for the non-trauma shoulder?
    A. Scapular y and ap neutral
    B. Ap inernal and external
    C. Inferosuperior axial and ap neutal
    D. Grashey and ap internal
    B. Ap internal and external
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Whay are the most common routine positions for the trauma shoulder?
    A. Inferosuperior axial and ap eternal
    B. Grashey and ap internal
    C. Ap internal adn external
    D. Scapular y and ap neutral
    D. Scaspular y and ap neeutral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Proper positioning for the forearm for an ap projeciton require sthe hand to be...
    A. Supinated
    B. Lateral
    C. Lexed
    D. Pronateted
    A. Supinated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Positionibg instrutures for the latera projection of he orearm include...
    - humerus and forearm form at 90 degree
    - Cr to be directed to mid foreamr area
    - hand o be lateral

    A. 1 2 and 3
    B. 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 and 3
    A. 1 2 and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following will best demosntrate the carpal scaphoid (navicular)?
    A. Lateral wrist
    B. Arapl tunnel
    C. Radial flexion
    D. Ulnar flexion
    D. Ulnar flexion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. What is the tube nagle for the PA scaphoid with cr angle and ulnar deviaion?
    A. 10-15 degrees proximally
    B. 30-45 degrees proximally
    C. 10-15 degrees distally
    D. 30-45 degrees distally
    A. 10-15 degrees proximally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. What carpal bone lies between the lunate and the pisiform?
    A. Triquetrum
    B. Scaphoid
    C. Trapezium
    D. Capitate
    A. Triquetrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. What are the routine positions for the wrist?
    A. Pa, oblique, lateral
    B. Pa, obliquie, lateral, ap
    C. Pa, oblique, transhtrasic, ap
    D. None fo the above
    A. PA, oblique and lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. What special/optional position best demonstrates the carpal interspaces?
    A. Oblique
    B. Pa
    C. Ap pbliquie
    D. AP
    D. Ap
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. What carpal bone articuales iwth teh 1st metacarpal
    A. Trapezium
    B. Pisiform
    C. Mew
    D. Lunate
    A. Trapezium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. There are ______separate bones in the adult system
    A. 260
    B. 216
    C. 206
    D. 360
    C. 206 bones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The metacarpals and pahalanges are classified as ________________bones
    A. Flat
    B. Short
    C. Long
    D. Irregular
    C. Long
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. True or false: Epiphyseal plate are found between the diaphysis and each epiphysis until sekeletal growth is complete.
    True
  21. Which of the followign refer ot aj oint that is freely moveabl?
    A. Ampharithrosis
    B. Synarthrosis
    C. Diarthrosis
    D. Hemiarthrosis
    C. Diarthrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
    A. Radius
    B. Clavicle
    C. Hip bone
    D. Sternum
    D. Sternum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?
    A. Carpal
    B. Vertebrae
    C. Skull cap
    D. Phalanges
    A. Carpal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Examples of flat bones are the :
    A. Ribs, sternum, patella and pelvis
    B. Sternum adn pelvis only
    C. Sternum, scapulae, pelvis and base of cranium
    D. Clavaria ( skull )ribs, scapulae, and sternum
    D. Clavaria, ribs, scapulae and sternum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Whicho f the following refer to a joint with limited movement?
    A. Hemiartrhosis
    B. Diartrhosis
    C. Synathrosis
    D. Ampharthrosis
    C. Synarthrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
    A. Femur
    B. Clavicle
    C. Skull
    D. Radius
    C. Skull
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following refers to a joint with no movement
    A. Synathrosis
    B. Hemarthrsis
    C. Diartrhosis
    D. Amphiarthrosis
    A. Synathrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the ollowing bones iscalssified as an irregualr bone?
    A. Carpal
    B. Phalanges
    C. Rib
    D. Vertebrae
    D. Vertebrae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which type of ossification occurs when the bone replaces catilage?
    A. Endochondral
    B. Priary
    C. Irregular
    D. Intramemranous
    A. Endochhondral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which is not true concefring sesamoid bones?
    A. The largest sesamois is the patealla
    B. Seseamoid bones an be fratures by trauma.
    C. They are a special tyep of small oval-shaped bone imedded in ertain tendons
    D. All sesamoid bone sare ocunted as part of the appoendicualr skeeleton
    D. All sesamoid bone sare countesd as part of the appendicular skeleton
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which type of ossifiction occurs hwen bone replaes membranes?
    A. Intramembranous
    B. Primary
    C. Irregular
    D. Endochondral
    A. Intramembranous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. True or False: The primary center of ossification in growing bones is called the diaphysis
    True
  33. Whichc of the following bones it nit part off the appendicula skeleton?
    A. Clavicle
    B. Hip bone
    C. Scapula
    D. Ribs
    D. Ribs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which term describes a position with the whole bodu tilted so that hte head is lower thant he feet?
    A. Tendelensuurge
    B. Lithotomy
    C. Sims
    D. Folwers
    A. Transdelenburg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A mdio lateral proejction is hwere hte lateral aspect of htet anatomical part is closest to iamge receptor
    True or False:
    True
  36. A patient is lyng on her back on the x-ray table. Teh right side of her body is turned 45 degrees away the imag ereceptor. Whati s this position?
    A. LPO
    B. RPO
    C> RAO
    D. LAO
    A.LPO
  37. Which of th efollowing terms decribe sthe anterio aspect of the foot
    A. Palmar
    B. Dorsum
    C. Plantar
    D. Volar
    B. Dorsum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A vertebrae is an exmaple of a...
    A. Flat bone
    B. Short bone
    C. Irregular bone
    D. Lon bone
    C. Irregular bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A longitudinl plane that divides teh body into anterio and posterior parts is the...
    A. Sagittal plane
    B. Horiontal plane
    C. Coronal plane
    D. Obliqie bplane
    C. Coronal plane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which term desribes lying down in any position?
    A. Anatmic
    B. Horizontal
    C. Fowlers
    D. Recumbent
    D. Recumbent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Patient is lying on her stomach facing the x-ray table. The right side of her body is turned up 45 degees asay from teh imag e receptor with her right elbow nad knee bent. What is this readiggraphic position?
    A. Rpo
    B. Lpo
    C. Ra
    D. Lao
    D. Lao
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Patient is lying on her left side. The x-ray tube is horiontally directed with teh cr entering the posterior surface of her body. The IRis adjacanet to the anterior surface of her ody. What is the radiographic examination
    A. Left lateral
    B. Left lateral decubitus
    C. Dorsal decubitus
    D. Right lateral decubitus
    B. Left lateral deubitus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. What is the name for the structure tha tserves as al id over tha layrni to pervent aspriationf of food or fluid?
    A uvula
    B. Epiglottis
    C. Hyoid bone
    D. Orphayrnx
    B. Epiglottis
  44. The are aof the lung that lies above the clavicle is termed the :
    A. Hilum
    B. Costophernic angle
    C. Base
    D. Apex
    D. Apex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which type of bod habitus requres that the image reeptor be placed crosswise ratehr than lengthwise for a PA chest?
    A. Asthenic
    B. Sthenic
    C. Hypostehnic
    D. Hyperstehnic
    D. Hypersthenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. A pa chest radiograph reveals that 8ribs are seen above the diapgrahm. Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of lungs?
    A. Use a shorter exposure time
    B. Use higher kv to penetrate the diapgragm
    C. Take exposure on thes econd inspiration rather than on first.
    D. Perform chest position supine
    C. Take exposure on the second inspriation rather than on first
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Of the followign fators, whicih one must be applied o demosntrate possible air and fluid levels in the hest
    A. Use high ma and shrot exposure time
    B. Patient in erect position
    C. 72 inch sid
    D. High KVtechnique
    B. Patien in erect position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Of the following actions, which one will remove the scapulae from the lung fields?
    A. Abduct arms
    B. Depress shoulders
    C. Elevate chin
    D. Roll shoulders forward
    D. Roll shoulders forward
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. What approproiate SID is used with a PA and laeteal erect radiograph?
    A. 40 inch
    B. 30 inch
    C. 6 inches
    D. 72 inch
    D. 72 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. A correvtly positioned lateral chest raidograph demosntartes some saparation of hte posteriro ribsdue to the diverrgent x-ray beam. A separation of more than ______indicates objeitionable rotation from a true lateral
    A. .5 cm
    B. 3 Cm
    C. 1 cm
    D. 2 cm
    C. 1 cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The CRfor an AP supine chest should be?
    A. Angled 45 degrees
    B. Centered 6-8 inches gblow the jugular notch
    C. Centered to a levle of T7
    D. Centered directly b elow the xiphoid process
    C. Centered to leve of T7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Situtation:a patien is in the intesnive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending physician si concerened about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient ahd surgery recently and cannot be plaed in teh eret position. What position woul be best to rule out of the pleural effusion (fluid)?
    A. Ap supine
    B. Lpo and rpo
    C. Right lateral decubitus
    D. Left lateral decubitis
    D. Left lateral decubitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The two most important land marks for locating central ray for the chest positioning are..
    A. Jugular notch and bertebra prominens
    B. Top shoudlers nad xiphoid tip
    C. Lower margin of htryoid cartilage and vertebrae prominens
    D. Jugular nothc and the eam
    A. Jugular notch and vetebra prominens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Which of the followign factors ust be applied ot minimized magnificatio nof the heart?
    A. High kv technque
    B. 72 sid
    C. Use high ma and short eposure time
    D. Perform study erect
    B. 72 sid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor. The CRenters the right side of the body what is this radiographic position?
    A. Ventral decubitiis
    B. Left lateral decubitus
    C. Left lateral
    D. Right lateral
    C. Left lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the?
    A. Pericardial sac
    B. Visceral pleura
    C. Pleura cavity
    D. Parietal pleura
    B. Visceral pleura
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Rotation on a PA chest radigraph is determined by exainin?
    A posterior ribs
    B. The diaphragm
    C. Sternal ends of the clavicles
    D. The inferior angle of the scapula
    C. The sternal ends of the clavicles
  58. Patient comes to radiolgoy with possible mass benateh the right clavicle. The pa and left lateral projectiosn are nconclusive. Whih additional proejction can be taken to demosntarte this possible mass?
    A. Ap and lateral of upper aireway
    B. Right lateral
    C. Ap erect?
    D. Apical lordotic
    D. Apical lordotic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the followng solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?
    A. Kidneys
    B. Pancreas
    C. Liver
    D. Spleen
    C. Liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left?
    A. Preence of the right colic flexure
    B. Precense of the stomahc
    C. Presence of right supraenal gland
    D. Precense of the liver
    D. Precense of the liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. In which of the four major quadrant of the abdomen would the cecum be found?
    A. Left upper
    B. Right upper
    C. Left lower
    D. Right lower
    D. Right lower
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. What is the best method to control volunatry motion during abdoinal radiography?
    A. Sort exposure time
    B. Second breath hold
    C. Careful isntrutions to patient
    D. Use of small focal spot
    C. Careful isntructions to patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following structures should be visualized on a properly exposed ap supine abdomen (kub)adigraph on a small to average sze patient?
    A. Spleen
    B. Panreas
    C. Ureters
    D. Psoas muscle
    D. Psoas muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What type of respiration should be used for abdominal radiography?
    A. Expieration
    B. Ither inspiration or expiration
    C. Shallow breathing during exposure
    D. Inspiration
    A. Expiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. To ensure or double check that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a kub radiograph, the technologist should palaplate the...
    A. Illiac crest
    B. Inferiorcostal margin
    C. Greater trochanter to locate sypmphyiss pubis
    D. Asis
    C. Greater trochanter to locate symphysis pubis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. The gonadal dose for a pa projection of the abdomen of a female patient is greater than the dose used for an ap proejction
    True or False
    True
  67. At what level shoul the cr be placed for an AP lateral decbius projection of the abdomen?
    A. 2 iches (5 cm ) aboe the illac crest
    B. Umbilicus
    C. Asis
    D. Illiac acrest
    A. 2 inches ( 5 cm )above illiac crest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which of the folowing kv ranges ire recommended for a kub on an adult
    A. 90 to 100
    B. 50 - 60
    C. 70 - 80
    D. 110 - 120
    C. 70 - 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A patient is in ICu fter abdominal surgeyr. The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient cant stand or sit. Which of the following possitions will best demosnstrate any possible intra-abdominal free ir?
    A. Dorsal decubitus
    B. Ventral decubitus
    C. Right lateral decubitus
    D. Left lateral decubitus
    D. Left lateral decubitus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What cr centering sohuld be used for a dorsa decubitus projection of the abdomen?
    A. At levle of umbilicus
    B. 2 inches (5 cm )above illiac crest
    C. At level of illiac rest
    B. 2 inches (5 cm )above illiac crest
  71. To ensure the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be placed at the level of the...
    A. Inferior costal margin
    B. Xiphoid process
    C. Jugular notch
    D. Axilla
    D. Axilla
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Patient comes to radilogy with a clinica lhistory of a possible abdominl aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdomnal proejction would best demosntrate this condition
    A. Right lateral decubitus
    B. Dorsal decubius
    C. Left lateral decubitus
    D. Ap erect
    B. Dorsal decubitus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. A dorsal decubitus abdemon is ordered on a patient. The patient is placed on his back o na cart. The cr will enter hte left side o the aptient with the patients right side gainst hte image receptr. What tpye of marker should be used?
    A. Right
    B. Dorsla ecubitus
    C. Left
    D. No marker should be used
    A. Right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. What are the routine position projections for the humerus?
    A. Oblique
    B. AP and lateral
    C. Lateral
    D. Ap
    B. Ap and lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which basic prection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile and the fat pads of the elbow
    A. Media rotation
    B. Lateral
    C. Ap
    D lateral rotaiton
    B. Lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which of the following sterucutres is considered to be most distal?
    A. Radial
    B. Radial tuberosity
    C. Olecranon process
    D. Ulnar head
    D. Ulnar head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following is not treu about the elbow joint?
    A. The elbow joint includes the radius, ulna and humerus
    B. Elbow joint is gynglmus type of jint
    C. The elbow joint is synovial
    D. The elbow joint is synarhtrodia
    D. The elbow joint is synathrodial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which structures from the proximal radioulnar joint?
    A. Radial tuberosity and ulnar notch
    B. Radial notch and radial head
    C. Coronoid tubercle and radial notch
    D. Ulnar notch and head of ulna
    B. Radial notch and radial head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. What two bon land marks are palpate dforpositioning of the elbow
    A. Trochle and capitulum
    B. Humeral epicondyles
    C. Corocnoid process and coronoid fosssa
    D. Radial and ulnar styloid processes
    B. Humeral epicodnyles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. What is the purpose of performing the partially flexed projections of the elbow?
    A. Provide a view of the radial head and capitulum
    B. Provide na ap perspective if patient cannot fully extend elbow
    C. Demosntrate any possible elevate fat pads
    D. Separate the radial head from the ulna
    B. Provide an ap perspective if patient cannot fullt extend elbow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Whcih routine prejcito nof the elbow best demosntrates the radia head and neck free of super imposition
    A. Lateral
    B. Interneal obique
    C. External oblique
    D. Ap
    C. External oblique
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. How should the humeral epicondyles be positioned for a lateral proejction fo the elbow
    A. Parallel to image reeptor
    B. Perpendicular to iamge receptor
    C. 45 degrees to image receptor
    D. 30 degrees ot image receptor
    B. Perpendicular to image receptor
  83. Which one fo the following structures is not part of the ulna?
    A. Coronoid process
    B. Ulnar neck
    C. Styloid process
    D. Radial notch
    B. Ulnar neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. With the radial head projections, what is the only difference between the four projections
    A. The position of the hands and the wrist
    B. The cr angulation
    C. The sid used for each projection
    D. The amount of fleion of elbow
    A. The position of the hands and the wrist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following best demmosntrates the radial head using hte trauma lateral coyle method routine?
    A. Elbow lexed 90 degrees, cr angled 45 degrees toward shoulder
    B. Elbow flexed 90 degrees, cr angled 30 degrees toeward shoulder
    C. Elbow flexed at 90 degrees cr perpendicular to image receptor
    D. Elbow flexed 80 degrees, cr angled 45 degrees away from shoulder
    B. Elbowe flexed 90 degrees, cr angled 30 degrees towards shoulder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which one of the followign statements is not true about a lateral proejction of the humerus for an adult?
    A. Palce epicodnyles parallel to IR
    B. Internaly roatete arm to get into lateral position
    C. Use 40 sid
    D. You can use 14x17 inch image receptor
    A. Place epicondyles parallel to IR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. A young boy comes to radiology with an elbow injury. The basi proejcts demosntrate a possible nondisplaced facture of the coronoid processs. Beyong oblique projeciton, what additional projections can be performed to demosntrate the coronoid free of super impositions?
    A. Coyle method 45 degree cr angle toward shoulder
    B. Acute fleion
    C. Radial head lateral projections
    D. Coyle method with 45 degree r angle away from shoulder
    D. Coyle method wit h45 degreee angle away from shoulder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The suprasternal, manubrial, jugular notch al correspond to the levle of:
    A. T2-3
    B. T1
    C. C7
    D. T4-5
    A. T2-3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Which of the following structures connects the posterior aspect of the ribs to the body of the vertebrea?
    A. Sternal tendons
    B. Costotransverse joints
    C. Costoartilage
    D. Costovertebral joints
    D. Costrovertebral joints
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. True or False: The tubervle portion fo a typical rib connects the posterior end of the rib to the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae.
    True
  91. Which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at hte level of teh sternal angle?
    A. Fourth and fifth
    B. First
    C. Third
    D. Second
    D. Second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of at ypical rib is higher or more superior to the anterior portion
    A. 6 - 8 inches
    B. 3 - 5 inches
    C. 10 - 12 inches
    D. 1 - 2 inches
    B. 3 - 5 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of:
    A. T7
    B. 11 th and 12th ribs
    C. 8th and 9th rib
    D. Sternoclavicular joint
    C. 8th and 9th rib
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. What is the name of hte rib that articuates with the thorasic vetebral body
    A. Neck
    B. Tubercles
    C. Head
    D. Facets
    C head
  95. Why is the RAOsternum prefered to the LAO position?
    A. The rao prjects the sternum over the shadow fo the heart
    B. The rao proejcts the sternum away from teh hilium and heart
    C. The rao produces dose to the thyroid gland
    D. The rao produces less magnification of hte sternum
    A. The rao projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which of the following positions will best demosntrate the axillary portion fo the right ribs?
    A. Pa
    B. Rao
    C. Ap
    D. Rpo
    D. Rpo
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an rao projection of the sternum for an hypersthenic type patient?
    A. 20 degrees
    B. 30 degrees
    C. 98 degreese ( the band )
    D. 15 degrees
    D. 15 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. What is the recommended sid for the rao sternum position
    A. 46 inches
    B. 40 inches
    C. 72 inches
    D. 44 inches
    B. 40 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which two projetions mustb e taken for an injury to he left posterior upper ribs
    A. Pa and rao
    B. Ap and lpo
    C. Ap and rao
    D. Pa and lao
    B. Ap and lpo
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib?
    A. First
    B. Ninth
    C. 7th
    D. None of the above
    B. Ninth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. What is the joitn classification and type of movement for teh sternocclavicular joints?
    A. Cartilaganous with synarthrodial ro no movement
    B. Synovial with diarthrodial movement
    C. Synovial with ampiharthrodial limited movement
    D. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial moveent
    B. Synovial with diarthrodial movement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?
    A. Pa an drao
    B. Ap and lpo
    C. Ap and rao
    D. Pa and lao
    D. Pa and lao
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. A radiograph of an rao sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to elminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
    A. Increase obliquity of the body
    B. Angle cr to 5-10 degrees laterally to sternum
    C. Inrease KV
    D. Perform lpo projection isntead of rao
    A. Increase obliquity of the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. List the three parts of the sternum
    • - Manubrium
    • - Body
    • - Xiphoid
  105. What border is lcoated on the lateral aspect of the scapula?
    A. Inferior border
    B. Axillary border
    C. Medial border
    D. Verteberal border
    B. Axillary border
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. What is another name for the lateral angle of the scapula?
    A. PA oblique hand job
    B. Axillary border
    C. Head
    D. Inferior angle
    C. Head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. What of the following joint is considered to have a gliding or plane type of movement?
    A. Scapulohumeral joint
    B. Acromioclavicular joints
    C. Bicipital joint
    D. Sternoacromial joints
    B. Acromiclavicular joints
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which of the folloing projectiosn can be performed using a breathing technique?
    A. Ap axial clavicle
    B. Ap scapula
    C. Ap ac joints with weights
    D. Lateral scapula
    B. Ap scapula
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Where is the cr centered for an ap of the clavicle?
    A. Mid scapula
    B. 1 inch below the coracoid processs
    C. Mid-body or shaft of the clavicle
    D. 1 inch above juglar notch
    C. Mid body or shaaft of the clavicle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. What angle of th scapula is located between the lateral and medial border
    A. Medial angle
    B. Inferior angle
    C. Superior angle
    B. Inferior angle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. What are the most common routines for the clavicle?
    A. Ap and ap axial
    B. Ap and lateral
    C. Lateral and transthroacic
    A. Ap and ap axial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. What ar ethe mmost common routines for positions for the scapula?
    A. Ap and axial
    B. Pa and lateral
    C. Ap and lateral
    C. Ap and lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. What are the most ocmmon rutine positions for the ac joints?
    A. Lateral and pa
    B. Ap bilateral only
    C. Ap bilateral with and with out weights
    D. Ap and lateral
    C. Ap bilateral with and without weights.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which term describes the lateral end of the clavicle?
    A. Sternum
    B. Acromial extermity
    C. Acromion process
    D. Sternal extremity
    B. Acromial extremity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Where is the CR centered for an AC joint projection on a single 17 x 14 inch image receptor?
    A. At the affected ac join
    B. 1 inch above jugular notc
    C. At the level fo the thyroidcartilage
    D. At the sternal angle
    B. 1 inch above jugular notch
  116. What is bone metastases?
    A. Transfer of parasites from internal organs that later on destroy osteoblast of bones
    B. Transfer of disease or cancerous lesions from one organ or part to bone tissue
    C. Destructive lesions with irregular margins
    D. None of the above
    B. Transfer of disease or cancerous lesions from one organ or part to bone tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. What is bursitis?
    A. When the sacs around your joints burst
    B. Inflammation of bursae sacs around joints.
    C. Inflammation of sacs around the neck
    D. None of the above
    B. Inflammation of bursae sacs around joints
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. What is carpal tunnel?
    A. Painful disorder of the wrist where your carpals break in and form a "tunnel" looking structure.
    B. Inflammation of fluid sacs around the wrist
    C. Common painful disorder of the wrist resuting from compression of hte median nerve.
    D. None of the above
    C. Common painful disorder of the wrist resulting from compression of the median nerve.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. What is a fracture?
    A. Dislocation of a bone
    B. Sprain of a bone
    C. Break of a bone
    D. None of the above
    C. Break of a bone.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. What is a dislocation?
    A. Partial dislocation
    B. A break in a bone
    C. Forced wrenching or twisit of a joint
    D. When bone is displaced from a joint.
    D. When bone is displaced from a joint
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. What is subluxation?
    A. Dislocation of a bone
    B. Break in a bone
    C. Partial dislocation o fa bone
    D. None of the above
    C. Partial dislocation of a bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. What is a simple fracture?
    A. Broken bone does not break through skin
    B. Broken bone breaks through skin
    C. Broken bone does not break through the entire bone
    D. None of the above
    A. Broken bone does not break through skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. What is a compound fracture?
    A. Broken bone doe not break through the entire bone
    B. Broken bone breaks through the skin
    C. Broken bone does not break through the ski
    D. None of the above.
    B. Broken bone breaks through the skin.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. What is an incomplete fracture?
    A. Breaks through the skin
    B. Does not break through the skin
    C. Does not transverse through entire bone.
    D. None of the above
    C. Does not transverse through the entire bone.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. What is a complete fracture?
    A. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    B. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    C. Bone twisted apart the and spirals around the long axis of the bone
    D. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    B. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. What is a transverse fracture?
    A. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    B. Bone twisted apart the and spirals around the long axis of the bone
    C. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    D. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    D. Breaks at a right angle to the long axis of the bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. What is an oblique fracture?
    A. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    B. Bone twisted apart the and spirals around the long axis of the bone
    C. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    D. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    A. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. What is a spiral fracture?
    A. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    B. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    C. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    D. Bone twisted apart the and spirals around the long axis of the bone
    D. Bone twisted apart and spirals around th long axis of the bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. What is a comminuted fracture?
    A. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    B. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    C. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    D. Bone is splintered or crushed
    D. Bone is splintered or crushed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. What is an impacted fracture?
    A. Bone breaks into two pieces.
    B. Breaks at a right angle to the long axiso f the bone
    C. Break passes through the bone in an oblique angle
    D. When one fragment is firmly driven into another
    D. When one fragment is firmmly driven into another
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. What is rheumatoid arthritis?
    A. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by baceria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulsers
    B. Degenerative joint disase characetrized by deterioration of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
    C. Inflammation of connective tissues throughout the body.
    D. A destructdive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction fo very dense yet soft bone sthast tend tofractures easily.
    C. Inflammation of connective tissues through the body.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. What is osteoarthritis?
    A. Degenerative joint disase characetrized by deterioration of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
    B. A destructive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction of very dense yet soft bone that tend to fractures easily
    C. Inflammation of connective tissues throughout the body.
    D. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by baceria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulsers
    A. Degenerative joint disease characterized by deterioartion of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. What is osteomyelitis?
    A. A destructdive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction fo very dense yet soft bones that tend to fractures easily
    B. Inflammation of connective tissues throughout the body.
    C. Degenerative joint disase characetrized by deterioration of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
    D. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by baceria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulsers
    D. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by bacteria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulcers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. What is pagets disease?
    A. Inflammation of connective tissues throughout the body.
    B. A destructdive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction of very dense yet soft bones that tend to fractures easily
    C. An infection of bone or bone marrow that may be caused by baceria introduced through surgery, trauma or diabetic ulsers
    D. Degenerative joint disase characetrized by deterioration of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
    B. A destructive bone disease followed by a reparative process of overproduction of very dense soft bones that tend to fracture easily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. What is the difference between osteopetrosis and osteoperosis
    A. Osteopetrosis is HARDENING of bone
    B. Osteoperosis is reduction in quantity of bone
    C. Osteopetrosis is SOFTENING of the bone
    D. Osteoperosis is the HARDENING of the bone
    • Two answers:
    • Osteopetrosis is hardening of bone
    • Osteoperosis is reduction fo quantity of bone

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