ITIL_Practice

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desi3374
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124451
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ITIL_Practice
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2011-12-21 23:15:21
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ITIL
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Description:
ITIL Foundation v.3 Practice
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  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

    A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
    B. Web front-end
    C. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
    D. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
    A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What is a RACI model used for?

    A. Defining roles and responsibilities
    B. Monitoring services
    C. Performance analysis
    D. Recording Configuration Items
    • uestion>
    • A. Defining roles and responsibilities
  3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

    A. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
    B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
    C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
    Databases (CMDB)
    D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
    C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
    the?

    A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
    C. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
    D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
    A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

    A. Service Transition
    B. Service Design
    C. Service Strategy
    D. Service Operation
    B. Service Design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

    A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them
    B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
    technical or supervisory roles
    C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
    are low and this helps to minimise salaries
    D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
    effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
    B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
  7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

    A. The SKMS can include user skill levels
    B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
    C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
    D. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)
    C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

    A. Resources and Capabilities
    B. Utility and Warranty
    C. Applications and Infrastructure
    D. Services and Infrastructure
    A. Resources and Capabilities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

    A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
    B. The design of Market Spaces
    C. The design of new or changed services
    D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
    B. The design of Market Spaces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
    B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
    C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
    Portfolio
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
  11. Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

    A. IT Designer/Architect
    B. Service Catalogue Manager
    C. Process Manager
    D. Supplier Manager
    D. Supplier Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?

    A. The contract is being negotiated
    B. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
    C. The contract has been agreed
    D. The contract is about to be ended
    A. The contract is being negotiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
    C. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
    D. A change that is made as the result of an audit
    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

    A. A change that is made as the result of an audit
    B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
    C. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
    D. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    D. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

    A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
    B. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
    C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
    D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 1.The only phase of the Service Management: Lifecycle where value can be mesured is Service Operation
    2.All the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT service

    Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process?

    A. 1 only
    B. Neither of the above
    C. 2 only
    D. Both of the above
    A. 1 only
  17. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

    A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
    skilltominimise the cost of training them
    B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
    effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
    C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
    technical or supervisory roles
    D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
    are low and this helps to minimise salaries
    C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
  18. Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

    1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
    2. What services to offer and to whom?
    3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
    A. 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  19. Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

    A. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
    B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
    C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
    C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

    A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
    B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
    implement Continual Improvement
    C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
    to implement Continual Improvement
    D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
    D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
  21. Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did
    we get there?"

    A. Service Transition
    B. Service Design
    C. Service Operation
    D. Service Strategy
    C. Service Operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?

    1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
    2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
    3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    A. 1 and 3 only
  23. Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

    A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;
    Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
    B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
    Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
    C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
    Manager
    D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
    Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
    B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;Configuration Analyst;Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
  24. In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
    It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

    A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
    B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
    C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
    D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
    B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
    B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
    C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
    C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?

    A. Functionality
    B. Service Level Requirements
    C. Business Value
    D. IT Assets
    C. Business Value
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

    A. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
    B. Whether to buy an application or build it
    C. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated
    D. Should application developmentbeoutsourced
    B. Whether to buy an application or build it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

    A. Service Release
    B. Customer / Business Needs
    C. Service Requirements
    D. Service Solution
    B. Customer / Business Needs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?

    A. Customer / Business Needs
    B. Service Solution
    C. Service Requirements
    D. Service Release
    A. Customer / Business Needs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

    A. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
    B. Ensure delivery and support of a service
    C. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
    D. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
    B. Ensure delivery and support of a service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

    A. Technical Management
    B. Facilities Management
    C. Service Desk
    D. IT Operations Control
    B. Facilities Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?

    1. Local Service Desk
    2. Virtual Service Desk
    3. IT Help Desk
    4. Follow the Sun
    A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3 only
    A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?

    A. Applications and Infrastructure
    B. Functions and Processes
    C. People, products and technology
    D. Markets and Customers
    B. Functions and Processes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

    A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
    B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
    C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
    D. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
    B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

    A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    B. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
    C. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
    D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
    A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

    A. Service Level Management
    B. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Availability Management
    D. Business Relationship Management
    A. Service Level Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. What are the three Service Provider business models?

    A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
    B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
    C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
    D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
    D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

    A. Knowledge
    B. Wisdom
    C. Information
    D. Data
    B. Wisdom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

    A. Release and Deployment Management
    B. Access management
    C. Requestfulfilment
    D. Incident Management
    C. Requestfulfilment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
    Operation
    2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
    A. Both of the above
    B. Neither of the above
    C. 2 only
    D. 1 only
    C. 2 only
  41. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

    A. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
    C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
    D. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
    A. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

    A. Overall business risk is optimised
    B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
    Changes
    C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
    D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
    Management system
    C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
  43. How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

    A. By working with users to change their IT configurations
    B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
    C. By installing changes to fix problems
    D. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
    D. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
    B. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
    C. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
    D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?

    A. Service Portfolio Management
    B. Service Level Management
    C. Demand Management
    D. Component Capacity Management
    C. Demand Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

    A. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
    B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
    C. Provide training and certification in project management
    D. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
    C. Provide training and certification in project management.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

    A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
    B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
    Service
    C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
    occurred
    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
  48. The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?

    A. The design and development of services and service management processes
    B. The day-to-day operation and support of services
    C. The design and development of service improvements
    D. The design and development of new services
    A. The design and development of services and service management processes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

    A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
    B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
    to implement Continual Improvement
    C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
    D. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
    implement Continual Improvement
    C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
  50. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
    A. Release and Deployment Management
    B. Access management
    C. Incident Management
    D. Requestfulfilment
    D. Requestfulfilment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

    A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
    B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
    C. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
    D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
    B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?

    A. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
    B. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
    C. BusinessObjectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics
    D. BusinessandIT Strategy and Process Definitions
    B. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

    1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
    2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
    A. 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. Neither of the above
    D. Both of the above
    B. 1 only
  54. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

    A. Utility and Warranty
    B. Services and Infrastructure
    C. Resources and Capabilities
    D. Applications and Infrastructure
    C. Resources and Capabilities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

    A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
    B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
    D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
    B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. What is the definition of an Alert?

    A. A type of Incident
    B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    C. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
    D. An error message to the user of an application
    B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?

    A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
    and software media)
    B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined
    approval and qualification process exists
    C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
    D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
    procedure for obtaining them
    C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
  58. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

    A. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
    B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
    C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
    D. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    D. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

    A. Data
    B. Information
    C. Wisdom
    D. Knowledge
    C. Wisdom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

    A. It is measurable
    B. Delivers specific results
    C. A method of structuring an organization D. Responds to specific events
    C. A method of structuring an organization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

    A. Process Manager
    B. Service Catalogue Manager
    C. Supplier Manager
    D. IT Designer/Architect
    C. Supplier Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

    A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
    B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
    Portfolio
    C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
    D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
  63. The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?

    A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
    B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
    effectiveness
    C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
    metrics include availability and capacity
    D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
    measure the infrastructure
    A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
  64. The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?

    A. Units oforganisations with roles to perform certain activities
    B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
    services
    C. The management of functions withinanorganisation to perform certain activities
    D. A setofspecialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of
    services
    B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
  65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

    A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service
    B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
    C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
    D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
    B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

    A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    B. The Service Desk Manager
    C. The Service Manager
    D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
    A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

    A. IT Service Continuity Management
    B. Service Catalogue Management
    C. Capacity Management
    D. Service Level Management
    C. Capacity Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
    B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    C. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
    D. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
    B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
    the?

    A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
    B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
    D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
    B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What is a RACI model used for?

    A. Performance analysis
    B. Recording Configuration Items
    C. Defining roles and responsibilities
    D. Monitoring services
    C. Defining roles and responsibilities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
    B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
    D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
    B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    B. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
    C. A change that correctly follows the required change process
    D. A change that is made as the result of an audit
    A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What are the three Service Provider business models?

    A. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
    B. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
    C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
    D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
    D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
    B. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
    C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
    C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. A Service Level Agreement is?

    A. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
    B. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
    C. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
    D. An agreement between the Service Provider and aninternalorganisation
    A. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?

    A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
    B. Only capabilities needed and agreed
    C. Only requirements needed and agreed
    D. Only resources and capabilities needed
    A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

    A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
    B. The Service Desk Manager
    C. The Service Manager
    D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation
    B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

    1. Service Portfolio design
    2. Value Creation Trhough Service
    3. Service V model
    4. Plan Do Check Act Model

    A. Service Design
    B. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Service Transition
    D. Service Strategy

    A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
    B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
    C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
    D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
    C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

    A. Vendor focused
    B. Extreme focus on cost
    C. Extreme internal focus
    D. Extreme focus on responsiveness
    C. Extreme internal focus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

    A. Prepare for action
    B. Define what you should measure
    C. Where are we now?
    D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
    B. Define what you should measure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
    architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
    requirements of the organisation
    C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
    A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
  83. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

    A. Service Transition
    B. Service Operation
    C. Service Strategy
    D. Service Design
    D. Service Design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

    A. The Service Manager
    B. The Service Desk Manager
    C. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
    D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

    A. Capacity Management
    B. IT Service Continuity Management
    C. Service Catalogue Management
    D. Service Level Management
    A. Capacity Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

    A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
    B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
    C. A secure library where definitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
    protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
    stored and protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
  87. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

    A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
    B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
    D. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
    B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

    A. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
    B. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
    C. Overall business riskisoptimised
    D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system
    B. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?

    A. Assisting in the design of the application
    B. Deciding whether to buy or build an application
    C. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
    D. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
    C. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. What is a RACI model used for?

    A. Recording Configuration Items
    B. Performance analysis
    C. Monitoring services
    D. Defining roles and responsibilities
    D. Defining roles and responsibilities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

    A. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
    B. Define what you should measure
    C. Prepare for action
    D. Where are we now?
    B. Define what you should measure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. What is the definition of an Alert?

    A. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
    C. An error message to the user of an application
    D. A type of Incident
    A. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?

    A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk
    activity
    B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff
    manage infrastructure devices not services
    C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a
    service has been disrupted
    D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal
    service. This includes technical staff
    B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services
  94. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

    A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
    B. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
    C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
    D. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
    D. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome
    be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?

    A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
    B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability
    C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be
    made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
    D. It is possible that responsiveness may sufferandcustomers needs may not be met within business timescales
    D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales
  96. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

    A. Information
    B. Knowledge
    C. Wisdom
    D. Data
    C. Wisdom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Major Incidents require?

    A. Longer timescales
    B. Less urgency
    C. Separate procedures
    D. Less documentation
    C. Separate procedures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

    A. The design of Market Spaces
    B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
    C. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
    D. The design of new or changed services
    A. The design of Market Spaces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?

    A. Minimising the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
    B. Eliminating recurring Incidents
    C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
    D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business
    D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?

    A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
    B. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
    protected
    C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
    D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
    stored and protected
    D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
  101. Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?

    A. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
    B. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
    C. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it
    D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can be found
    B. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
    architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organiation
    B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
    C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
  103. Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

    A. Facilities Management
    B. Technical Management
    C. IT Operations Control
    D. Service Desk
    A. Facilities Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?

    A. Excessively proactive
    B. Excessive focus on quality
    C. Excessively reactive
    D. Excessive focus on cost
    D. Excessive focus on cost
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

    A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
    B. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
    C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
    D. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
    D. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. What is the definition of an Alert?

    A. A type of Incident
    B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
    C. An error message to the user of an application
    D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
    the following?

    A. Applications and Infrastructure
    B. Markets and Customers
    C. People, products and technology
    D. Functions and Processes
    D. Functions and Processes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

    A. Continual Service Improvement
    B. Availability Management
    C. Business Relationship Management
    D. Service Level Management
    D. Service Level Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
    B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
    C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    D. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
    C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
    A. Showing the business impact of a change
    B. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
    C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
    D. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
    D. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

    A. Capacity Management
    B. Performance Management
    C. Event Management
    D. Service Level Management
    B. Performance Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

    A. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
    B. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
    C. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
    D. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
    A. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

    A. Where the vendor of an application is located
    B. Should application development be out sourced
    C. Whether to buy an application or build it
    D. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
    C. Whether to buy an application or build it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

    1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
    2. What services to offer and to whom?
    3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

    A. 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. All of the above
    D. 3 only
    C. All of the above
  115. Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?

    A. Change Management
    B. Access Management
    C. RequestFulfilment
    D. Incident Management
    B. Access Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

    A. Delivers specific results
    B. A method of structuring an organization C. Responds to specific events
    D. It is measurable
    B. A method of structuring an organization
  117. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

    A. Utility and Warranty
    B. Services and Infrastructure
    C. Applications and Infrastructure
    D. Resources and Capabilities
    D. Resources and Capabilities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
    services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
    A. Vendor focused
    B. Extreme focus on cost
    C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
    D. Extreme internal focus
    D. Extreme internal focus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

    A. Delivers specific results
    B. It is measurable
    C. A method of structuring an organization
    D. Responds to specific events
    C. A method of structuring an organization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?

    A. IT Operations Management
    B. Service Desk
    C. Applications Management
    D. Technical Management
    A. IT Operations Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

    A. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
    B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
    C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organisational Level Agreements
    D. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
    B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?

    A. Strategy design
    B. Software design
    C. Process design
    D. Environment design
    C. Process design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

    A. Service Level Management
    B. Service Strategy
    C. Capacity Management
    D. Governance
    A. Service Level Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?

    A. Service Desk
    B. IT Operations Management
    C. Technical Management
    D. Applications Management
    C. Technical Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?

    A. The Continual Service Improvement Manager
    B. The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
    C. The Service Owner
    D. The Change Management Process Owner
    C. The Service Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement (OLA) is that:

    A. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets
    B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver the service
    C. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
    D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer
    C. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?

    A. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
    B. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
    C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset
    D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
    A. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Which of the following best describes a Service Request?

    A. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting
    B. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
    C. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
    D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
    A. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply

    A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
    B. To automatically detect service affecting Events
    C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
    A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

    A. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
    B. Informational, Warning, Exception
    C. Informational, Scheduled, Normal
    D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive
    B. Informational, Warning, Exception
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?

    A. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
    B. Demand Management and Service Level Management
    C. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
    D. Supplier Management and Demand Management
    C. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

    A. Supplier Management
    B. Change Management
    C. Service Portfolio Management
    D. Continual Service Improvement
    A. Supplier Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Service Strategy
    B. Service Operation
    C. Service Design
    D. Continual Service Improvement
    D. Continual Service Improvement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

    A. Release and Deployment Management
    B. Demand Management
    C. Incident Management
    D. RequestFulfilment
    D. RequestFulfilment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?

    A. Process definitions
    B. Measurement, methods and metrics
    C. Service Portfolio Design
    D. Service Design Package
    D. Service Design Package
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

    A. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
    B. Review and analyse Service Level Achievement results
    C. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
    D. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
    C. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

    1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
    2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. None of the above
    C. Both of the above
  138. Access Management is closely related to which other processes?

    A. Information Security Management and Availability Management
    B. Information Security Management only
    C. Information Security Management and 3rd line support
    D. Availability Management only
    A. Information Security Management and Availability Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

    A. Change Management
    B. Service Level Management
    C. Event Management
    D. Problem Management
    D. Problem Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

    A. Service, User, IT
    B. Technology, Customer, User
    C. Corporate, Customer, Service
    D. Corporate, Customer, Technology
    C. Corporate, Customer, Service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?

    A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
    Continually Improve
    B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly imlemented;Improve the solution
    D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
  142. Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

    1. Monitor, Measure and Review
    2. Continual Improvement
    3. Implement Initiatives
    4. Plan for Improvement

    A. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
    B. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
    C. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
    D. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act
    A. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
    has been found. Is this a valid approach?

    A. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
    B. Yes
    C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
    D. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
    B. Yes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of
    ITIL?

    A. Local
    B. Centralised
    C. Holistic
    D. Virtual
    C. Holistic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

    A. Customer satisfaction
    B. The value of a service
    C. Key performance indicators
    D. Total cost of ownership
    B. The value of a service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
    People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

    A. Profit
    B. Preparation
    C. Potential
    D. Products
    D. Products
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision?

    A. Did we get there?
    B. Where are we now?
    C. How do we get there?
    D. Where do we want to be?
    D. Where do we want to be?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
    1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
    2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
    3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
    goals

    A. 1 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
  149. In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
    A. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents
    B. An Incident is passed to second-level support
    C. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it
    D. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any users
    A. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?

    A. Availability Management
    B. Service Transition
    C. Risk Management
    D. IT Service Continuity Management
    B. Service Transition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

    A. The Service Level Manager
    B. The IT Executive
    C. The Business
    D. The ISO27001 Standard
    C. The Business
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process

    A. A change to a contract with a supplier
    B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
    C. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
    D. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident
    C. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. Hierarchic escalation is best described as?

    A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
    B. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer
    C. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
    satisfaction
    D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
    A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

    A. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
    B. To eliminate recurring Incidents
    C. To restore service to a user
    D. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents
    C. To restore service to a user
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
    1. Progress
    2. Effectiveness
    3. Efficiency
    4. ?

    A. Cost
    B. Compliance
    C. Capacity
    D. Conformance
    B. Compliance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
    called:

    A. A Service Level Package
    B. A New Service Package
    C. A Service Design Package
    D. A Service Transition Package
    C. A Service Design Package
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

    A. Definitive Media Library (DML)
    B. Configuration Management System (CMS)
    C. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
    D. Statement of Requirements (SOR)
    B. Configuration Management System (CMS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?

    A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership
    B. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
    C. Improved quality of service
    D. Improved Service alignment with business goals
    B. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management

    1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
    2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
    3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
    4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. What is the objective of Access Management?

    A. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
    B. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
    C. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
    D. To manage access to the Service Desk
    A. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

    A. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
    B. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
    C. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
    D. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
    D. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

    1. Known Error Data
    2. Change Schedules
    3. Service Knowledge Management System
    4. The output from monitoring tools

    A. 1,2 and 3 only
    B. 1,2 and4 only
    C. 2,3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  163. Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
    Management?

    A. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
    B. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
    C. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
    D. Describes the topography of the hardware
    A. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
    of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Service Transition
    B. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Service Strategy
    D. Service Operation
    A. Service Transition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
    CORRECT?

    1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
    2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
    and the right level of control

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both o fthe above
    D. Neither of the above
    C. Both of the above
  166. Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
    CORRECT?
    A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development
    B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
    information about services which are being considered for future development
    C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
    C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
  167. Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:

    A. A configuration management database (CMDB)
    B. A configuration management system (CMS)
    C. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
    D. A capacity database (CDB)
    C. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
    1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
    2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
    Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    D. Neither of the above
  169. Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:

    A. Services and Business Processes
    B. Services, Components and Business Processes
    C. Services and Components
    D. Components and Business Processes
    C. Services and Components
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?

    A. Service Design
    B. Service Transition
    C. Service Operation
    D. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Service Operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

    A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change
    B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
    C. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
    D. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
    D. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? The Service Owner:

    A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
    B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service
    they own
    C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service theyown
    D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
    A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
  173. Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?

    A. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
    B. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
    C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
    D. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
    D. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
    Service Lifecycle?

    A. Service Design
    B. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Service Transition
    D. Service Strategy
    D. Service Strategy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

    A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
    B. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
    C. Reports should be produced weekly
    D. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider
    A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?

    A. Incident Management
    B. Capacity Management
    C. Service Level Management
    D. IT Operations Management
    D. IT Operations Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

    A. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
    B. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
    C. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
    D. To detect security events and make sense of them
    C. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?

    A. Demand Management
    B. Event Management
    C. Access Management
    D. Facilities Management
    C. Access Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. A risk is:

    A. Something that will happen
    B. Something that might happen
    C. Something that won't happen
    D. Something that has happened
    B. Something that might happen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
    known as?

    A. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
    B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    C. Pocket Guides
    D. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
    B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
    expected of them?

    A. Manage an activity
    B. Tell others about the progress of an activity
    C. Perform an activity
    D. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
    D. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
    impact?

    A. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
    B. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
    C. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
    D. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
    A. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?

    A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
    that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
    B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
    assets and service components that are compatible with each other
    C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
    and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
    D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
    A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
  184. Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

    1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage
    services at agreed levels to the business
    2. The successful release of services into the live environment
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    A. 1 only
  185. Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?

    A. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
    B. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
    C. They must contain legal wording because of their importance
    D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer
    B. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
    (CIs)?

    1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
    2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
    3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
    4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 3 and 4 only
    B. All of the above
  187. What does a service always deliver to customers?

    A. Applications
    B. Infrastructure
    C. Resources
    D. Value
    D. Value
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

    1. Data mining and workflow tools
    2. Measurement and reporting systems
    3. Release and deployment technology
    4. Process Design

    A. 1, 3 and 4 only
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

    A. Maturity and cost
    B. Processes and functions
    C. The end to end service
    D. Infrastructure availability
    C. The end to end service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
    (SLA)?

    A. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
    B. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
    C. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
    D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
    D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?

    1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
    2. A process should be documented

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    C. Both of the above
  192. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

    A. The Service Level Manager
    B. The Business Relationship Manager
    C. The Service Owner
    D. The Service Continuity Manager
    C. The Service Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

    1. Risk assessment
    2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
    3. Monitoring of component availability

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. All of the above
    D. 2 and 3 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?

    A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
    B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
    locations are in one place
    C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
  195. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:

    1. What is the vision?
    2. Where are we now?
    3. Where do we want to be?
    4. How do we get there?
    5. Did we get there?
    6. ?

    A. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)?
    B. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)?
    C. How do we keep the momentum going?
    D. How much did it cost?
    C. How do we keep the momentum going?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

    A. Review and Close
    B. Remediation Planning
    C. Prioritization
    D. Categorization
    B. Remediation Planning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

    A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
    B. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
    C. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
    D. To provide training and certification in project management
    D. To provide training and certification in project management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

    A. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
    B. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur
    C. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
    D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
    A. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?

    A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release
    B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
    C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
    D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
    C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?

    A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
    B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of
    service to customers
    C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
    D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
    overal management of the IT Infrastructure
    • D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
    • overal management of the IT Infrastructure
  201. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:

    1: Design of the service technology
    2: Business continuity strategy
    3: Business Impact Analysis
    4: Risk assessment

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 3 and 4 only
    B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?

    A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
    activities
    B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident
    C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
    D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
    A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities
  203. Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?

    1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
    2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
    3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
    4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
    D. None of the above
    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
    to the agreed and documented process?

    A. The IT Director
    B. The Customer
    C. The Process Owner
    D. The Service Owner
    C. The Process Owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. When should tests for a new service be designed?

    A. Before the service is designed
    B. As part of Service Transition
    C. At the same time as the service is designed
    D. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition
    C. At the same time as the service is designed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

    A. Service Design: Design the processes
    B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
    D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management
    A. Service Design: Design the processes
  207. Reliability is a measure of:

    A. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
    B. The availability of a service or component
    C. How long a service or component can perform its function withoutfailing
    D. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
    C. How long a service or component can perform its function with out failing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
    A. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements
    B. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
    C. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service
    D. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service LevelAgreements(SLAs)
    B. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

    A. Network Management and Application Management
    B. Facilities Management and Release Management
    C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
    D. Technical Management and Change Management
    C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?

    1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
    2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
    3. An external service provider

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. All of the above
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. All of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

    A. Rapid, one-off improvement
    B. Return on investment within 12 months C. Quick wins
    D. Steady, ongoing improvement
    D. Steady, ongoing improvement
  212. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

    A. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
    B. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
    C. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
    D. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
    A. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

    A. Change Management
    B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
    C. Service Level Management
    D. Incident Management
    B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. What is the Service Pipeline?

    A. All services except those that have been retired
    B. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
    C. All complex multi-user services
    D. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    B. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management
    has been established
    B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
    should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
    C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established
    at the same time
    D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
    provider
    B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
  216. Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

    A. The Service Knowledge Management System
    B. The Information Management System
    C. The Asset Register
    D. The Known Error Database
    A. The Service Knowledge Management System
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

    A. The Availability Management Information System
    B. The IT Service Continuity Plan
    C. The Problem Record
    D. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    C. The Problem Record
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. What are Request Models used for?

    A. Capacity Management
    B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
    C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as
    local or remote
    D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
    D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
  219. Consider the following list:

    1. Change Authority
    2. Change Manager
    3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

    What are these BEST described as?

    A. Teams
    B. Roles, people or groups
    C. Functions
    D. Job descriptions
    B. Roles, people or groups
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

    A. An SLA for a service with no customers
    B. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
    C. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
    D. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
    B. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution?

    A. Measures for optimization are identified
    B. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
    C. Service value is actually seen by customers
    D. Service value is model led
    C. Service value is actually seen by customers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

    A. A Request Model
    B. A Release Package
    C. The RACI Model
    D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
    B. A Release Package
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

    A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
    B. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
    C. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt
    D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
    A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
    Operation to perform?

    1. Communication between Data Centre shifts
    2. Communication related to changes
    3. Performance reporting
    4. Routine operational communication

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  225. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

    A. Continual Service Improvement
    B. Service Strategy
    C. Service Transition
    D. Service Operation
    A. Continual Service Improvement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

    A. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged
    B. All incidents must be fully logged
    C. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
    D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log
    B. All incidents must be fully logged
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is underpinned by which set of activities?

    A. Taking measurements and recording metrics
    B. Baseline assessments
    C. Setting measurement targets
    D. Service and process improvements
    D. Service and process improvements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

    A. The Supplier Manager
    B. The Service Level Manager
    C. The Service Catalogue Manager
    D. The IT Service Continuity Manager
    A. The Supplier Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

    A. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers
    B. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss
    C. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster
    D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
    D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

    A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
    B. A measurement of cost
    C. A function described within Service Transition
    D. The team of people responsible for implementing a release
    A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

    A. Service Desk
    B. RequestFulfilment
    C. Supplier Management
    D. Demand Management
    D. Demand Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
    B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners
    C. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization
    D. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners
    A. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

    A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    B. A Service Description
    C. The Service Portfolio
    D. A Request for Change (RFC)
    A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

    A. The utility of a service
    B. The warranty of a service
    C. Return on investment
    D. The economic value of a service
    A. The utility of a service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

    A. Reactive and Technical
    B. Proactive and Reactive
    C. Technical and Service
    D. Resource and Proactive
    B. Proactive and Reactive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

    A. The Change Manager who provides formal authorization for each change
    B. The Change Advisory Board
    C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.
    D. A person that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change.
    C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?

    A. The Service Level Manager
    B. The Change Manager
    C. The Configuration Manager
    D. The Information Security Manager
    D. The Information Security Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

    A. Service Transition
    B. Service Operation
    C. Service Design
    D. Service Strategy
    D. Service Strategy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. Identify the input to the Problem Management process

    A. Incident Records
    B. Problem Resolution
    C. New Known Errors
    D. Request for Change
    A. Incident Records
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

    A. Early Life Support
    B. Service Test Manager
    C. Release Packaging and Build Manager
    D. Evaluation
    A. Early Life Support
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?

    A. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.
    B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements
    C. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement
    D. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.
    D. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

    A. The value of a service
    B. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
    C. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
    D. Customer satisfaction
    A. The value of a service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?

    A. Financial Management
    B. Incident Management
    C. Capacity Management
    D. Service Level Management
    C. Capacity Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  244. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:

    1. The services
    2. The architectures
    3. The configuration items
    4. The processes

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  245. Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these Four Ps?

    A. People, Products, Partners, Profit
    B. People, Process, Products, Partners
    C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
    D. People, Potential, Products, Performance
    B. People, Process, Products, Partners
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

    A. Capacity Management
    B. Incident Management
    C. IT Service Continuity
    D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
    B. Incident Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

    A. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
    B. Capacity Plan
    C. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
    D. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    A. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
    B. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
    C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
    D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
    C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

    A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    B. The Service Support book
    C. Pocket Guides
    D. The Service Strategy book
    A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

    A. Configuration Baseline
    B. Project Baseline
    C. Asset Baseline
    D. Change Baseline
    A. Configuration Baseline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

    A. The Service Provider
    B. The Customer
    C. The Service Level Manager
    D. The Finance department
    A. The Service Provider
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?
    1. Things that were done correctly
    2. Those things that were done incorrectly
    3. How to prevent recurrence
    4. What could be done better in the future
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  253. What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items(Cls) are stored and protected?

    A. Definitive Media Library
    B. Definitive Software Store
    C. Software Secure Library
    D. Service Knowledge Management System
    A. Definitive Media Library
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?

    A. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
    B. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
    C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
    D. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
    D. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Continual Service Improvement
    B. Service Operation
    C. Service Transition
    D. Service Strategy
    B. Service Operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
    1. Architectures
    2. Technology
    3. Service Management processes
    4. Metrics

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  257. Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

    A. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
    B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
    C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
    D. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
    C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

    A. Change Model
    B. Incident Model
    C. Problem Model
    D. Configuration Model
    D. Configuration Model
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. The BEST processes to automate are those that are:

    A. Simple and well understood
    B. Carried out by lots of people
    C. Carried out by Service Operations
    D. Critical to the success of the business mission
    A. Simple and well understood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
    1. Risk assessment
    2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
    3. Monitoring of component availability

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. All of the above
    D. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?

    A. A document that describes business services to operational staff
    B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
    C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
    D. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
    D. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

    A. Only one - the process owner
    B. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
    C. As many as necessary to complete the activity
    D. Only one - the process architect
    A. Only one - the process owner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    A. They deliver specific results
    B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
    C. They respond to specific events
    D. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
    D. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
    1. Roles
    2. Activities
    3. Functions
    4. Responsibilities

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
  265. The Supplier Management process includes:
    1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service
    requirements
    2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
    3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. All of the above
    D. 1 and 3 only
    C. All of the above
  266. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
    A. Service Strategy
    B. Service Transition
    C. Change Management
    D. Service Design
    D. Service Design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be
    easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

    A. Logging
    B. Closure
    C. Prioritization
    D. Categorization
    D. Categorization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
    1. Local Service Desk
    2. Virtual Service Desk
    3. IT Help Desk
    4. Follow the Sun

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
    B. 1, 2 and 4 only
    C. 1, 3 and4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2 and 4 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

    A. ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality
    B. Strategic, tactical and operational
    C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
    D. Technology, process and service
    D. Technology, process and service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

    A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
    B. Customer and User satisfaction
    C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
    D. Utility and Warranty
    D. Utility and Warranty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

    A. Do
    B. Perform
    C. Measure
    D. Implement
    A. Do
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
    1. Documenting the process
    2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
    3. Improving the process
    4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required train

    A. 1, 3 and 4 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
    B. All of the above
  273. In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:

    A. IT Infrastructure and Applications
    B. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services
    C. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
    D. Services, technology and tools
    D. Services, technology and tools
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

    A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
    Management
    B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
    Management
    C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
    Management
    D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
    RequestFulfilment
    • A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
    • Management
  275. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
    efficient use of:

    A. People, Process, Products, Technology
    B. People, Products, Technology, Partners
    C. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
    D. People, Process, Products, Partners
    D. People, Process, Products, Partners
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?

    A. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents
    B. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
    C. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem
    D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service
    B. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

    A. Service Portfolio Management
    B. IT Finance
    C. RequestFulfilment
    D. Service Desk
    C. RequestFulfilment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes?

    A. Act
    B. Plan
    C. Do
    D. Check
    B. Plan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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