2A651 Aerospace Propulsion Vol 1 Self-Test

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2A651 Aerospace Propulsion Vol 1 Self-Test
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2011-12-21 23:13:59
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2A651 Aerospace Propulsion Vol 1 Self-Test
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  1. Which squadrons form the MXG?
    MXG Commander, QA, Maintenance operations squadrons(MOS), Aircraft Maintenance squadrons (AMXS), maintenance squadron (MXS)
  2. Who does QA directly work for?
    MXG Commander
  3. How does QA idenrtify negative trends?
    Through eval and inspection
  4. The maintennace operations squdron (MOS) is directly responsible to the MXG commander for which taks to support the group production efffort?
    Administration, analysis, training management, and programs neccesarry to support the group production effort.
  5. What is the main funtion of the maintenance operations center (MOC)?
    monitor and coordinate sortie production
  6. What is crucial to the MOC to comply with reporting requirements?
    The exchange of detailed information from squadrons.
  7. The MX squadron may be divided into what 2 squadrons?
    Component MX squadron (CMS), and Equipment MX squadron (EMS)
  8. If you are assigned to the MXS or CMS/EMS which two flights might you be assigned?
    Propulsion flight (backshop), or MX flight (phase)
  9. What types of tasks does the propulsion flight perform?
    Engine/ module/ propeller/ accessory dissasembly
  10. If you are assigned to a specialist flight what tasks will you perform?
    troubleshooting, inspecting, servicing, and component r2
  11. what is the purpose of the career field education and training program (CFETP)?
    Provide career field and training managers with framework to develop training programs
  12. What does the fourth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent?
    The individual's skill level
  13. What is your title when you obtain the 5 skill level?
    Journyman
  14. What skill level would you posses with the title superintendant?
    9 skill level
  15. How many months must you be in the air force before attending Airman leadership school?
    48 months
  16. Why should you keep your CDCs after you have completed them?
    To study for the WAPS tests associated with NCO and SNCO ranks
  17. When you are promoted to the rank of tech sergent what school must you attend?
    NCO Academy
  18. At what skill level is an airman expected to fill positions such as flight chief or production?
    9 skill level
  19. What is the purpose of the Air force occupational safety and health program?
    To ensure safe and healthy working conditions
  20. What series of afosh standards govern occupational saafety?
    the 91 series of the Air Force Instructions (AFI)
  21. What office would you contact if you have any questions regarding an unsafe condition?
    the safety office
  22. What is the purpose of safety in the work area?
    prevent personal injury and damage to equipment
  23. How can most hazardous situations be avoided?
    following tech data, asking for help when needed, and using PPE correctly
  24. List four good housekeeping practices.
    wipe up spills, pick up oily rags, pick up fod, get rid of clutter
  25. How should you lift a heavy or bulky object?
    bck straight, sqaut down, legs and arms doing an equal amount of lifting
  26. How is quality maintenance defined?
    meeting or exceeding tech specs
  27. On what aspects of performing maintenance must all levels of supervision place emphasis?
    safetty, performance, and timeliness of maintenance
  28. What types of maintenance actions are prohibited?
    shortcuts or incomplete maintenance
  29. What does maintenance discipline require of maintenance personnel?
    display integrity and comply with all written guidelines
  30. What will happen to personnel who fail to uphold maintenance discipline?
    they will be held accountable
  31. What two things should you check to ensure the aircraft is safe for you to perform maintenance?
    Check the forms and the personell working on the acft
  32. Which aircraft forms should you check for entries that may prevent you from starting yourassigned task?
    781 H, 781 A
  33. Why should you check with other people working inside or outside of the aircraft prior to startingmaintenance?
    The aircraft could be unsafe to work on
  34. What form is documented to identify an armed aircraft?
    AFTO form 781H
  35. What are three types of equipment that produce radio frequency radiation?
    radar, radio transmissions, and electronic countermeasure systems
  36. What are the primary danger areas that exist around an operating engine?
    intakes and exhausts, planes of rotation, and high frequency noises
  37. When a propeller is running, what are its two most dangerous areas?
    plane and axis of rotation
  38. What causes the danger area in front of the intake of an operating engine?
    High noise levels and the "suction" effect
  39. What is the minimum safe distance that should be established to avoid the effects of an exhaustblast?
    200 ft
  40. What is the best way to protect yourself from noise levels that can cause permanent hearing loss?
    avoiding high noise areas and using proper ppe
  41. Why should personnel exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of a helicopter’smain rotor blades?
    as the speed of the rotor decreases, the blades droop
  42. When approaching or leaving a helicopter with blades rotating, what two things shouldmaintenance personnel remember?
    keep an eye on the pilot and keep low
  43. What are the primary factors that create static electricity?
    different movements or motions
  44. What is effective grounding?
    providing a path for static electricity to run from the aircraft to a grounding point in the earth
  45. What is the purpose of bonding?
    eliminate differentials in electrical charges
  46. At the locations where a bonding wire is attached, what surface requirements must be met?
    they must be clean and unpainted
  47. What should you do if the clothing you are wearing becomes soaked with fuel?
    immediatly remove and dispose of it properly
  48. What conditions could result from excessive inhalation of fuel or chemicals?
    headaches, diziness, and unconciousness
  49. Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD?
    it is the number one cause of damage in the air force today.
  50. What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway?
    they can be ingested and fod out an engine
  51. Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD Prevention Program?
    the commander
  52. Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards that could causedamage to equipment or loss of life?
    everyone
  53. What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action?
    tools
  54. What should you do when you suspect that an item is lost on an aircraft and it is in an area whereit can cause damage?
    stop maintence and begin searching immediaatly
  55. What should you wear when you are required to physically enter an intake or exhaust?
    full suit or "bunny suit"
  56. To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediaterepair?
    base airfield manager
  57. Into what two categories are hazardous materials divided?
    health and physical hazards
  58. What is the purpose of the hazard communication program?
    reduce the occurances of occupational illness and injuries
  59. Toxic materials are divided into what three general physical classifications?
    vapors, liquids, and solids
  60. What type of gas are we frequently exposed to during test cell and flightline operations?
    carbon monoxide
  61. Which physical form of hazardous material enters the body easily and can cause rapid toxicreactions?
    vapor/gas
  62. What is the key factor in making the PPE program successful?
    personal commitment
  63. What is a critical factor in PPE maintenance?
    inspecting all equipment before and after each use
  64. What is normally used to clean most protective equipment?
    soap and water
  65. When you store PPE, from what are you protecting them?
    protect it from the elements
  66. What should the design of a hazardous storage area allow for?
    proper containment and movable storage for hazardous materials
  67. When removing spilled or leaking hazardous materials from the storage area, what should younever do?
    never mix hazardous materials together
  68. What information must hazard-warning labels include?
    the name identity and warnings of the contents
  69. For stationary hazard containers, what can be used in place of a label?
    placards
  70. An MSDS is required to be available for every type of material recorded on what document?
    listed on the inventory
  71. Where can you find the proper procedures for disposing of hazardous waste materials?
    Material Safety Data Sheets MSDS
  72. What are the ways hazardous wastes can be disposed of properly?
    chemical treatment, biodegration, incineration, and land disposal
  73. What is the purpose of the maintenance supply system?
    to procure and issue millions of items world-wide
  74. What areas of major weapon systems do RSSs manage?
    support systems at home and deployed locations
  75. What is the standard base supply system?
    an accounting system of available inventory world-wide
  76. What are the three primary points of contact within Base Supply?
    customer service, equipment managment, and demand processing orders
  77. What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
    Due in From Maintenance (DIFM)
  78. What Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    the repair cycle support system (RCSS)
  79. What is the purpose of the repair cycle system?
    establish control over repair cycle assests to ensure components are repaired ASAP
  80. When does the repair cycle time of an item start and stop?
    when the component is installed/removed accordingly
  81. When you route a part to be repaired through RCSS, which part of the AFTO Form 350 do they
    need?
    the bottom portion or part 2 of the form
  82. What types of items generally require complete depot-level overhaul?
    time change items involded in time compliance tech orders or TCTOs
  83. List three of the important supply documents that you may utilize.
    daily document register, priority monitor report, repair cycle asset management listing
  84. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers
    processed during the day by the SBSS?
    Daily document register
  85. Which supply document provides data by which to monitor due-outs and their corresponding
    status?D
    Due out validtion listing
  86. Why must Base Supply have a priority system in place?
    Organizations require parts at different speeds for different missions
  87. What two priority systems does Supply use?
    delivery priority system and issue priority system
  88. What two factors determine the priority for an off-base requisition?
    urgency justification code (UJC), and the force activity designator (FAD)
  89. What factor is adversely affected by the misuse of priority designators?
    the integrity of the supply system
  90. What is Part I of the AFTO Form 350 known as and for what is it used?
    repair cycle processing actions and it is used to identify the parts attached
  91. Where is Part II of the AFTO Form 350 located and what purpose does it serve?
    the section below the perforation and it is used as a "reciept" for the 350 tag
  92. Where can you find a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
    TO 00-20-2
  93. When an item is sent to RPC, which blocks (both front and back) are required to be completed by
    the individual (originator) initiating the 350 tag?
    1-14, 15a, and 29
  94. When an item is not sent to the RPC because of its size or for other reasons, which additional
    blocks must be completed by the originator?
    16, 17, and 18
  95. Where can you go to find detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries?
    AFMAN 23-110
  96. When are you required to enter the type, model, series, and serial number required on the AF IMT
    2005?
    if the requirement is not for a mission capable supply (NMCS) or partially mission capable supply (PMCS)
  97. Which form should you submit if it’s determined that a first-time request part will become a
    recurring one and, therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted?
    AF IMT 1996
  98. Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
    TO 00-20-5
  99. What conditions warrant use of the DD Form 1575?
    attached to a part that is awaiting maintenance (AWM) or awaiting parts (AWP) (brown tag)
  100. What is the purpose of DD Form 1577?
    it is used for a condemned item (red tag)
  101. What is the purpose of DD Form 1577–2?
    It is used to identify items that can be repaired (green tag)
  102. What is the definition of a shelf-life item?
    an item that will deteriorate or expire
  103. What is the main difference between Types I and II shelf-life items?
    • 1- Defininte non-extendable shelf life
    • 2- Possibility of having the shelf life extended
  104. For what can the information on DRs be used?
    to increase operational capability and efficiency
  105. What are some of the justifications for initiating a DR?
    if the part doesnt fit, work, or fails
  106. You receive a part from Supply that does not fit correctly and the part is still under warranty.
    Would you still submit a DR?
    yes
  107. You find a deficiency that, if uncorrected, would cause severe injury. Under which category
    should you submit the DR?
    category 1
  108. Within what timeframe must all Category II DRs be forwarded?
    within 3 days
  109. List some examples of EAID items.
    individual, organizational, and special equipment
  110. EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
    CA/CRL
  111. Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
    equipment management element at base supply
  112. List the things you must accomplish if you serve as an equipment custodian.
    be properly trained, do initial inventories, due periodic inventories

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