MQF AFI 41-307

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Anonymous
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128588
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MQF AFI 41-307
Updated:
2012-01-17 21:42:00
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Aeromedical
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  1. in the event a patient is injured while in the AE system, who can document the injury and care rendered on the patient's medical record and complete a DD Form 2852, AE Event/Near Miss Report?
    1)FN
    2)AET
    3)CCATT
    4)All of the above
    D
  2. to reduce the multiple stresses of flight and the effects of fatigue on litter patients,_____.
    a)allow the patients to sit up for periods of time
    b)when it is not contraindicated, elevate their head
    c)support the patients injured limb in a position of function
    d)all of the above
    D
  3. if using palpation for determining the BP, the reading may vary_____ when compared to an auscultation reading
    a)8 to 10 mm Hg
    b)5 to 10 mm Hg
    c)2 to 4 mm Hg
    d)none of the above
    A
  4. Anytime a patient is removed from a flight for clinical evaluation or there is a significant change in status, notify:
    a)TACC
    B)AMOCC/AOC
    C)PMRC
    D)All of the above
    D
  5. some steps to minimize the problem caused by decreased humidity include:
    a)mouth care
    b)lip balm
    c)adequate fluid intake
    d)all of the above
    D
  6. _____ is a general term describing an oxygen deficiency in the tissues sufficient enough to cause impairment of function
    a)Hypoxia
    b)Hypercapnia
    c)High Altitude
    d)Hyperventilation
    A
  7. altitude is the most important cause of in-flight hypoxia
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  8. In the AE environment the primary assessment skills are inspection and palpitation
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  9. Hyperventilate the patient for approximately 30 seconds with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  10. Advanced Airway Treatment/Management procedures may be performed by any AECM
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  11. When administering oxygen to correct hypoxia, allow approximately__ minutes to elapse; this will provide a more accurate pulse oximeter reader
    a)1-2 minutes
    b)2-3 minutes
    c)3-5 minutes
    d)none of the above
    C
  12. General guidelines for all respiratory patients if breathing is present includes maintaining pulse oximetry greater than 91% by titrating oxygen
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  13. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a trauma patient with significant respiratory compromise can be caused by____.
    a)vibrations
    b)thermal stress
    c)Barometric pressure changes
    d)all of the above
    C
  14. Oropharyngeal Airway indications:
    a)used for the unconscious patient
    b)used for the conscious patient
    c)Both A+B
    d)None of the above
    A
  15. Administer oxygen for:
    a)any signs of hypoxia
    b)any signs of respiratory distress
    c)significant change from original assessment
    d)All of the above
    D
  16. CCATT is responsible for ensuring the ventilator interfaces with aircraft systems and a dedicated regulator/oxygen line is available to operate ventilators
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  17. In all cases, burn patients should be moved within____ hours from time of injury
    a)12
    b)24
    c)72
    d)None of the above
    B
  18. patients with 20% total body surface or more, excluding first-degree burns, should have an IV, NG, and Foley catheter during all phases of AE.
    A)True
    B)False
    A
  19. D10W may be substituted for TPN if TPN is not available enroute
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  20. AECM first action following a rapid decompression for patients receiving IV therapy include?
    a)Clamp tubing
    b)clear the tubing of air and resume infusion if not clotted or infiltrated
    c)check infusion site
    d)None of the above
    A
  21. Document all medication administration times in local time.
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  22. a controlled drug accepted by the healthcare provider becomes his/her responsibility for __.
    a)accountability
    b)counting
    c)dispensing
    d)None of the above
    A
  23. Upon termination of the mission, all unaccompanied/unserviceable controlled drugs are documented on the
    a)AF Form 3899
    b)AF Form 3859
    c)AF Form 3581
    d)None of the above
    B
  24. When administering medication/treatment protocols IAW established AF instructions, the following statement will be documented on AF Form 3899/DD Form 602/DD Form 1380:
    a)No additional documentation is required
    b)"Medication was administered IAW AFI 41-307"
    C)"(Insert name of drug) was administered IAW AFI 41-307"
    d)"Medication was administered according to established protocols"
    C
  25. Infusion Pumps will be used for:
    a)Heparin and total parenteral nutrition
    b)Cardiac and vasoactive medications
    c)neonatal/pediatric patients
    d)All of the above
    D
  26. excessive heat may cause patients on cardiac medication to become hypertensive
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  27. Enroute adult transvenous pacing requiring direct CCATT or physician supervision IAW the PMRC VFS and tasked unit Chief Nurse Executive for appropriate medical crew complement
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  28. Patients with chronic low hemoglobin (7.0-8.5) require___ oxygen for flight
    a)2L
    b)PRN
    c)4L
    d)A+B
    A
  29. An altitude restriction minimizes the stresses of barometric pressure changes and decreased partial pressure of oxygen for patients with
    a)penetrating head injuries
    b)skull fractures
    c)severe facial fracture
    d)all of the above
    D
  30. Signs of increasing intracranial pressure include____.
    a)low blood pressure with narrow pulse pressure
    b)bradycardia initially followed by tachycardia as the ICP increase
    c)Headache with increasing, intensity which may be aggravated by movement
    d)all of the above
    C
  31. The politzer bag is appropriate for patients with skull fracture
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  32. For a patient with signs of increasing ICP treatment/management include: maintaining an open airway, ensuring adequate breathing and circulation, and maintaining a pulse oximeter reading greater than?
    a)88%
    b)91%
    c)93%
    d)95%
    B
  33. seizure precautions include____.
    a)insert padded tongue blade
    b)allow patient to fall to the floor
    c)position near oxygen /suction, and away from windows near propellers to avoid rhythmic flashes of light
    d)restrain to prevent injury
    C
  34. if a seizure continues for more than three minutes or restarts without regaining consciousness
    a)medicate as directed
    b)Notify TACC/PMRC for guidance and possible diversion to MTF capable of handling the situation, as required
    c)notify AMOCC/AOC for guidance and possible diversion to MTF capable of handling the situation, as required
    d)all of the above
    D
  35. Sitting on a cramped aircraft for a long period of time may lead to___.
    a)chest pain
    b)back injury
    c)deep vein thrombosis
    d)a severe case of motion sickness
    C
  36. Signs and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis include____.
    a)feeling of being on pins and needles
    b)swelling and warmth or skin discoloration
    c)pain in calf or behind the knees which may increase with standing or ambulating
    d)all of the above
    D
  37. Compartment Syndrome is_____.
    a)experienced by patients who become uncomfortable in enclosed spaces
    b)caused by bleeding into or swelling of tissues within the facial sheath of the extremity
    c)caused by open /closed fractures and external fixation/skeletal devices
    d)B+C
    D
  38. Air splints expand at altitude and should not be used in-flight if alternate splinting devices are available.
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  39. Any patient with a constrictive bandage/cast, external fixation or skeletal device is at risk for compartment syndrome
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  40. Wound management includes:
    a)observing type and amount of drainage on dressings
    b)controlling bleeding with direct pressure, elevation and pressure points
    c)changing dressings every 8 hours or as ordered
    d)Both A+B
    D
  41. Positioning and alignment considerations for patients with orthopedic injuries include___.
    a)resting the extremity on the bulkhead
    b)securing the extremity to the aircraft to maintain elevation
    c)providing spica casts four litter spaces
    d)Repositioning every 2 hours with pillows
    D
  42. all penetrating eye injury patients will be:
    a)2-7 days post injury
    b)given mydriatic drops
    c)will be categorized as 2A litter patient
    d)on O2 at 4 LPM via nasal cannula or mask while in-flight
    D
  43. techniques to prevent or lessen the effects of ear block on descent include___.
    a)Toynbee maneuver
    b)chewing gum
    c)valsalva
    d)all of the above
    D
  44. An inubator will be carried and ready to use on board the aircraft for patients who are beyond the 34th week of pregnancy
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  45. Pre-flight assessment and documentation of fetal heart tones at 20 weeks or more gestation will be done
    a)prior to flight
    b)at cruise altitude
    c)re-assessed every 12 hours
    d)all of the above
    D
  46. Pediatric/Neonatal rapid cardiopulmonary assessment includes
    a)assess airway patency
    b)assess breathing/color
    c)assess circulation
    d)all of the above
    D
  47. Hyperextension of flexion of the neck, while opening the airway on an infant or child will cause_____.
    a)tachycardia
    b)gastric distension
    c)airway compression
    d)incorrect placement of hand during CPR
    d)
    c
  48. in a pediatric/neonatal patient,____ is a late sign of hypoxia
    a)pale skin color
    b)cyanosis
    c)respiratory rate of 20 per minute
    d)tachycardia
    B
  49. The risk of acquiring an infection depends upon
    a)type of injury
    b)time of day
    c)patients virus titer
    d)A+C
    D
  50. If a patient with ischemic chest pain is already on high flow O2, what medication should the AECM anticipate will be used for treatment?
    a)motrin
    b)dopamine
    c)epinephrine
    d Nitroglycerin
    D
  51. signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock include___.
    a)bradycardia
    b)flushed, itchy skin
    c)tachycardia, hypotension, dizziness and syncope
    d)B+C
    D
  52. in-flight nursing considerations for the care of a patient with anaphylactic shock are___.
    a)atrophine as needed
    b)remove causative agent
    c)high flow 02 and monitor pulse oximetry
    d)B+C
    D
  53. All blood products will be administered through a dedicated line of_____.
    a)D5 1/2 NS
    b)Normal Saline
    c)Lactated Ringers
    d)D5 1/2 NS with 20 mg Potassium
    B
  54. Higher acuity psychiatric patients judged a high risk by the originating physician and PMRC/VFS___ be pre-medicated for flight and have PRN drug orders from the originating physician
    a)May
    b)should
    c)can
    d)Will
    D
  55. All severe psychiatric patients requiring ongoing supervision will have a medical attendant_____.
    a)of same gender
    b)of commensurate rank during movement between originating and destination facility
    c)responsible for administering medications and charting
    d)all of the above
    D
  56. a category 1A patient _____ travel with a medical attendant
    a)will
    b)should
    c)may
    d)all of the above
    B
  57. level of observation required for patients in restraints include every___ minute circulation and neurological assessments of all extremities with devices, and safety check
    a)5
    b)10
    c)15
    d)20
    C
  58. A physician will renew restraint orders___ if required, while a patient is in the AE system
    a)every 12 hours
    b)every 24 hours
    c)every 8 hours
    d)none of the above
    B
  59. a trained and competent___, in coordination with the_____, may apply restraints to control behavior of a who is immediate danger to self and others in the AE environment
    a)FN/Medical Attendant
    b)AET/Loadmaster
    c)MCD/aircraft Commander
    d)none of the above
    A
  60. Restraints straps should be secured to or around the litter.
    a)True
    b)False
    B
  61. patients in soft restraints require circulation and neurological assessments every___minutes of all extremities with devices, and safety check
    a)60
    b)20
    c)15
    d)30
    A
  62. a TB patient requiring O2 may wear the N95 Mask over a nasal cannula
    A)True
    B)False
    A
  63. The following personal protective attire items are worn anytime splashing of blood and body fluids is anticipated
    a)goggles
    b)gowns
    c)masks
    d)all of the above
    D
  64. Known or suspected infectious patients should be placed
    a)in the lowest litter position
    b)near the exit for ventilation
    c)in the highest litter position
    d)upwind from the direction of aircraft airflow
    A
  65. HIV infected patients going for evaluation of a new undiagnosed pulmonary process will be transported as possible active TB
    A)True
    b)False
    A
  66. When assessing a patient with new onset or increasin level of pain, it is important to rule out the following:
    a)hypoxia
    b)compartment syndrome
    c)life-threatening conditions such as cardiac pain
    d) all of the above
    D
  67. obtain vital signs, including pulse oximetry and assess pain level at least every 4 hours for patients who require en route pain medication administration
    a)true
    b)false
    A
  68. A pain score of 3 or more usually indicated the need for pain medication
    a)true
    b)false
    A
  69. Assess adequacy of pain medication at all patient care handoffs, en route staging locations and in-flight.
    a)True
    b)False
    A
  70. If a physician is not present and pain medication is not available or is insufficient, request and establish radio communication with
    a)TACC
    B)AMOCC/AOC
    C)PMRC
    D)All of the above
    D
  71. Prescribed controlled drugs entrusted to a patient/attendant are considered the property of____.
    a)MCD
    B)CMT
    C)Loadmaster
    D)the individual, who is then responsible for safeguarding and administering drug(S) during all phases of patient movement
    D
  72. Treatment/management of a patient with signs/symptoms of acute pulmonary or fat embolism includes:
    a)start IV
    b)consider decrease in cabin altitude if operationally feasible
    c)maintain the airway, assist breathing, and administer high flow O2
    d)all of the above
    D
  73. Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT common to both pulmonary and fat embolism?
    a)anxiety
    b)bradycardia
    c)tachycardia
    d)angina like chest-pain
    B

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